SUP Supervision manual

Part

SUP Supervision manual

Printed on: 18/12/2024

Rulebook at: 01/01/2011

Chapters

SUP 1 The FSA's
approach to supervision
SUP 2 Information gathering by the FSA on its own initiative
SUP 3 Auditors
SUP 4 Actuaries
SUP 5 Reports by skilled persons
SUP 6 Applications to vary and cancel Part IV permission
SUP 7 Individual requirements
SUP 8 Waiver and modification of rules
SUP 9 Individual guidance
SUP 10 Approved
persons
SUP 11 Controllers and close links
SUP 12 Appointed representatives
SUP 13 Exercise of passport rights by UK firms
SUP 13A Qualifying for authorisation under the Act
SUP 14 Incoming EEA firms changing details, and cancelling qualification for authorisation
SUP 15 Notifications to the FSA
SUP 16 Reporting requirements
SUP 17 Transaction reporting
SUP 18 Transfers of business
SUP 20 Fees Rules
SUP 21 Waiver
SUP App 1 Prudential categories and sub-categories
SUP App 2 Insurers: Regulatory intervention points and run-off plans
SUP App 3 Guidance on passporting issues
Transitional Provisions and Schedules

SUP 1

The FSA's
approach to supervision

SUP 1.1

Application and purpose

01/12/2004

Application

SUP 1.1.1

This chapter applies to every firm, except that its relevance for an ICVC is limited as the FSA does not intend to carry out an assessment of an ICVC that is specific to that ICVC.

21/06/2001

Purpose

SUP 1.1.2

The Act requires the FSA to "maintain arrangements designed to enable it to determine whether persons on whom requirements are imposed by or under this Act, or by any directly applicable Community regulation made under MiFID, are complying with them" (paragraph 6(1) of Schedule 1 to the Act).

01/11/2007

SUP 1.1.3

The design of these arrangements is shaped by the regulatory objectives. These are set out in section 2 of the Act (The Authority's general duties) and are:

(1) maintaining confidence in the UK financial system;

(1A) contributing to the protection and enhancement of the stability of the UK financial system;

(2) [deleted]

(3) securing the appropriate degree of protection for consumers; and

(4) reducing the extent to which it is possible for a business carried on by a regulated person, or in contravention of the general prohibition, to be used for a purpose connected with financial crime.

11/11/2010

SUP 1.1.4

In designing its approach to supervision, the FSA has regard to the principles of good regulation set out in section 2(3) of the Act. In particular, the FSA's regulatory approach aims to focus and reinforce the responsibility of the management of each firm (section 2(3)(b) of the Act) to ensure that it takes reasonable care to organise and control the affairs of the firm responsibly and effectively and develops and maintains adequate risk management systems. It is the responsibility of management to ensure that the firm acts in compliance with its regulatory requirements. The FSA will have regard to the principle that a burden or restriction which is imposed on a firm should be proportionate to the benefits, considered in general terms, which are expected to result from the imposition of that burden or restriction (section 2(3)(c) of the Act).

21/06/2001

SUP 1.2

Introduction

01/12/2004

SUP 1.2.1

(1) The Supervision manual (SUP) and Decision, Procedure and Penalties manual (DEPP) form the regulatory processes part of the Handbook.

(2) [deleted]

(3) SUP sets out the relationship between the FSA and authorised persons (referred to in the Handbook as firms). As a general rule, material that is of continuing relevance after authorisation is in SUP.

(4) [deleted]

(5) DEPP is principally concerned with and sets out the FSA's decision making procedures that involve the giving of statutory notices, the FSA's policy in respect to the imposition and amount of penalties, and the conduct of interviews to which a direction under section 169(7) of the Act has been given or the FSA is considering giving.

06/10/2007

SUP 1.2.2

For a firm which undertakes business internationally (or is part of a group which does), the FSA will have regard to the context in which it operates, including the nature and scope of the regulation to which it is subject in jurisdictions other than the United Kingdom. For a firm with its head office outside the United Kingdom, the regulation in the jurisdiction where the head office is located will be particularly relevant. As part of its supervision of such a firm, the FSA will usually seek to cooperate with relevant overseas regulators, including exchanging information on the firm. Different arrangements apply for an incoming EEA firm, an incoming Treaty firm and a UCITS qualifier. The arrangements applying for an incoming EEA firm and an incoming Treaty firm are addressed in SYSC App 1. For UCITS qualifiers see also COLLG.

01/04/2009

SUP 1.2.3

The FSA continues to develop the risk assessment approach set out in this chapter. The approach will not be introduced for all firms at commencement. For those firms where the approach is not introduced at commencement, the FSA continues to operate the risk assessment approach of the firm's previous regulator.

21/06/2001

SUP 1.3

The FSA's risk based approach to supervision

01/12/2004

Purpose

SUP 1.3.1

The purpose of taking a risk-based approach to supervision is to focus the FSA's resources on the mitigation of risks to the regulatory objectives, and to have regard to the need to use the FSA's resources in the most efficient and economic way. The approach to risk assessment of firms is based on the extent to which they pose risks to the FSA meeting the regulatory objectives. This extent encompasses both the impact of such risks were they to crystallise and the probability of their doing so. The probability of risks crystallising depends on the inherent risks run by firms, the environment within which they operate and the internal systems and controls designed to mitigate such risks. This approach permits a matching of the intensity of the FSA's supervisory effort with the degree of risk posed by firms to meeting the regulatory objectives.

21/06/2001

Impact and probability assessment

SUP 1.3.2

The FSA uses a standard risk assessment process applied consistently across all its activities. It involves assessing the risk posed by the firm against a number of impact and probability factors, both initially and on a continuing basis.

21/06/2001

SUP 1.3.3

The impact of a firm is assessed by reference to a range of factors derived from the regulatory objectives, including:

(1) the degree to which risks related to the firm, were they to materialise, would damage market confidence;

(1A) the extent to which the firm may pose risks to the stability of the UK financial system;

(2) [deleted]

(3) the extent to which consumers may be adversely affected either directly or indirectly by the firm as a result of prudential failure, misconduct, market malfunction, market manipulation or the need to contribute to the financial reconstitution of compensation schemes;

(4) the incidence and materiality of any financial crime which may be perpetrated through or by the firm.

11/11/2010

SUP 1.3.4

The probability of a firm posing a risk to meeting the regulatory objectives is, where applicable, assessed in terms of "risk groups". These are discrete sources of risks to meeting the regulatory objectives which arise from:

(1) the firm's strategy;

(2) the firm's business risk: those risks (such as credit, market and operational risk) which are inherent in the business;

(3) the financial soundness of the firm;

(4) the nature of the firm's customers and the products and services it offers;

(5) the internal systems and controls and the compliance culture of the firm; and

(6) the organisation of the firm and the role played by its governing body, management and staff in effectively mitigating risk.

21/06/2001

SUP 1.3.5

The impact and probability assessments are combined to give an overall judgment as to the firm's priority for the FSA and therefore the nature of the relationship which the FSA will seek to have with the firm (see 'A new regulator for the new millennium' and 'Building the new regulator, Progress report 1').

21/06/2001

SUP 1.3.6

In addition to assessing the firm in terms of these impact and probability factors, the FSA takes into account three further factors which may affect the choice of supervisory approach and activities:

(1) the level of confidence in the information on which the risk assessment is based;

(2) the quality of the home regulatory regime (for firms with their head office overseas); and

(3) any anticipated material change in impact and probability factors.

21/06/2001

The scope of the risk assessment process for firms

SUP 1.3.7

The risk assessment process applies to all firms, although the detail required may vary from firm to firm. Firms judged as high impact are likely to require a more detailed assessment. A peer review process within the FSA assists consistency.

21/06/2001

SUP 1.3.8

The main steps in the risk assessment process are:

(1) preliminary assessment of a firm's potential impact on the regulatory objectives;

(2) probability assessment - the level of detail depends on the impact rating and the complexity of the firm (in the case of low impact firms, the firm-specific probability analysis will be minimal);

(3) for a sample of firms, validation panel for peer review of risk grading and resource allocation;

(4) letter to firm regarding risk assessment and any remedial actions (see SUP 1.3.10 G); and

(5) continuing review of risk assessment as necessary.

21/06/2001

SUP 1.3.9

In order to create incentives for firms to raise standards and to maximise the success of the FSA's supervisory arrangements, it is important that a firm understands the FSA's evaluation of its risk so that it can take appropriate action.

21/06/2001

SUP 1.3.10

The FSA intends to communicate the outcomes of its risk assessment to the firm. In the case of firms in which risks have been identified which could have a material bearing on the FSA meeting the regulatory objectives, the FSA will also outline a programme intended to address these. The FSA considers that it would generally be inappropriate for the firm to disclose the FSA risk assessment to third parties, except those who have a right to be aware of it, for example external auditors. The assessment is directed towards a very specific purpose - to illustrate the risk posed by the firm to the regulatory objectives and to enable the FSA to allocate its resources accordingly. Using it for any other purpose might well be misleading. The FSA therefore discourages firms from disclosing their assessments.

21/06/2001

The nature of the FSA's relationship with firms

SUP 1.3.11

The FSA's relationship with firms has five main elements:

(1) Determining satisfaction of the threshold conditions: in order to carry on regulated activities, a firm must demonstrate that it can satisfy, initially and on a continuing basis, the threshold conditions (see COND) (for example, the need to maintain adequate resources).

(2) Baseline monitoring which is designed to ensure that firms comply, on a continuing basis, with the regulatory requirements which apply to them (see SUP 1.1.2 G): the FSA collects and analyses data supplied by firms (see for example SUP 16) and by third parties such as the Financial Ombudsman Service Limited , consumers, and by other regulators.

(3) Sectoral reviews and thematic work which will be used, for example, to validate information provided by a firm and to collect up to date information on a particular sector, in order to assess whether a firm meets required standards: thematic work is carried out to assess the risks posed by a particular issue (rather than by a sector or group of firms). The issues selected for such work are likely to be broader and proportionately more significant to the FSA's regulatory objectives.

(4) Programmes designed to mitigate specific risks in individual firms these programmes depend on the firm's priority for the FSA (see SUP 1.3.5 G).

(5) Work undertaken after particular risks have escalated or crystallised: once the FSA has identified an issue, it will need to use its regulatory judgment to determine how it should respond, if at all.

21/06/2001

SUP 1.3.12

The exact mixture of elements will thus vary with the firm's risk categorisation. Moreover, the elements being used at a particular time will depend on the firm's circumstances - for example, whether it is applying for permission to conduct other regulated activities, or is being investigated by the FSA.

21/06/2001

SUP 1.4

Tools of supervision

01/12/2004

SUP 1.4.1

In order to meet the regulatory objectives and address identified risks to those objectives, the FSA has a range of supervisory tools available to it.

21/06/2001

SUP 1.4.2

The FSA classifies these tools under four headings:

(1) diagnostic: designed to identify, assess and measure risks;

(2) monitoring: to track the development of identified risks, wherever these arise;

(3) preventative: to limit or reduce identified risks and so prevent them crystallising or increasing; and

(4) remedial: to respond to risks when they have crystallised.

21/06/2001

SUP 1.4.3

Tools may serve more than one purpose. For example, supervisory powers can be used to address risks which have materialised or to assist in preventing risks from escalating. In the first instance they are remedial, in the second, preventative.

21/06/2001

SUP 1.4.4

Certain of these tools, for example the use of public statements to deliver messages to firms or consumers of financial services, do not involve the FSA in direct oversight of the business of firms. Other tools do involve a direct relationship with firms. The FSA also has powers to act on its own initiative to impose individual requirements on a firm (see SUP 7).

21/06/2001

SUP 1.4.5

The FSA uses a variety of tools to monitor whether a firm, once authorised, remains in compliance with regulatory requirements. These tools include:

(1) desk-based reviews;

(2) liaison with other agencies or regulators;

(3) meetings with management and other representatives of a firm;

(4) on-site inspections;

(5) reviews and analysis of periodic returns and notifications;

(6) reviews of past business;

(7) transaction monitoring;

(8) use of auditors;

(9) use of skilled persons.

21/06/2001

SUP 1.4.6

The FSA also uses a variety of tools to address specific risks identified in firms. These tools include:

(1) making recommendations for preventative or remedial action;

(2) giving other individual guidance to a firm;

(3) imposing individual requirements;

(4) varying a firm's permission in another way.

21/06/2001

SUP 1.4.7

For further discussion of the FSA's regulatory approach, see publications on the FSA website (www.fsa.gov.uk): in particular, 'A new regulator for the new millennium' and 'Building the new regulator, Progress report 1'.

21/06/2001

SUP 1.5

Lead supervision

01/12/2004

Application

SUP 1.5.1

This section applies to a firm which is a member of a group with more than one supervisory contact at the FSA.

21/06/2001

Purpose

SUP 1.5.2

The FSA has developed arrangements for lead supervision in order to achieve more efficient and more effective supervision of firms and their groups. Lead supervision is designed to deliver a coordinated approach to the supervision of groups with more than one supervisory contact at the FSA, assisting the FSA to monitor them effectively and respond to the risks that arise.

21/06/2001

Process

SUP 1.5.3

The FSA appoints a lead supervisor for a group with more than one supervisory contact at the FSA. The choice of lead supervisor depends principally on the predominant business of the group.

21/06/2001

SUP 1.5.4

The lead supervisor has three key responsibilities:

(1) to produce an overall assessment of the group: this comprises an assessment of the strengths and weaknesses of the business of the group and each of the firms within a group and a risk assessment of the group as a whole;

(2) to coordinate the supervision programme: based on the overall assessment, the coordinated supervision programme is a single, risk-based supervision plan for the whole group for a specified period; and

(3) to act as the central point of contact for the group with the FSA, where the group decides to use the lead supervisor in this way; this removes the need for duplicate communication between the FSA and firms in groups on group-wide issues.

21/06/2001

SUP 2

Information gathering by the FSA on its own initiative

SUP 2.1

Application and purpose

01/12/2004

Application

SUP 2.1.1

The application of this chapter is the same as the application of Principle 11 (Relations with regulators).

21/06/2001

SUP 2.1.2

PRIN 3 (Rules about application) specifies to whom, to what and where Principle 11 applies.

21/06/2001

Purpose

SUP 2.1.3

Achieving the regulatory objectives involves the FSA informing itself of developments in firms and in markets. The Act requires the FSA to monitor a firm's compliance with requirements imposed by or under the Act (paragraph 6 (1) of Schedule 1). The Act also requires the FSA to take certain steps to cooperate with other relevant bodies and regulators (section 354). For these purposes, the FSA needs to have access to a broad range of information about a firm's business.

06/08/2010

SUP 2.1.4

The FSA receives the information in SUP 2.1.3 G through a variety of means, including notifications by firms (see SUP 15) and regular reporting by firms (see SUP 16). This chapter is concerned with the methods of information gathering that the FSA may use on its own initiative in the discharge of its functions under the Act. This chapter does not deal with the information gathering powers that the FSA has under the Unfair Terms Regulations. These are dealt with in UNFCOG .

28/08/2007

SUP 2.1.5

Part XI of the Act (Information Gathering and Investigations) gives the FSA statutory powers, including:

(1) to require the provision of information (see sections 165, 165A, EG 3 and FINMAR 1);

(2) to require reports from skilled persons (see section 166 and SUP 5);

(3) to appoint investigators (see sections 167, 168 and 169 of the Act and EG 3 ); and

(4) to apply for a warrant to enter premises (see section 176 of the Act and EG 4 ).

06/08/2010

SUP 2.1.6

The FSA prefers to discharge its functions by working in an open and cooperative relationship with firms. The FSA will look to obtain information in the context of that relationship unless it appears that obtaining information in that way will not achieve the necessary results, in which case it will use its statutory powers. The FSA has exercised its rule-making powers to make Principle 11 which requires that a firm must deal with its regulators in an open and cooperative way, and must disclose to the FSA appropriately anything relating to the firm of which the FSA would reasonably expect notice.

21/06/2001

SUP 2.1.7

The FSA operates in the context of the Act and the general law. The purpose of SUP 2.2 is to explain how certain provisions of the Act and the general law are relevant to the FSA's methods of information gathering described in SUP 2.3 and SUP 2.4.

21/06/2001

SUP 2.1.8

The purpose of SUP 2.3 is to amplify Principle 11 in the context of information gathering by the FSA on its own initiative in the discharge of its functions under the Act. SUP 2.3 therefore sets out, in guidance on Principle 11 and in rules, how the FSA expects firms to deal with the FSA in that context, including the steps that a firm should take with a view to ensuring that certain connected persons should also cooperate with the FSA .

21/06/2001

SUP 2.1.9

The purpose of SUP 2.4 is to explain a particular method of information gathering used by the FSA , known as "mystery shopping". Information about how a firm sells financial products can be very difficult to obtain, and the purpose of this method is to obtain such information from individuals who approach a firm in the role of potential retail consumers on the FSA's initiative. The FSA may seek information about particular issues or the activities of individual firms by means of mystery shopping.

21/06/2001

SUP 2.2

Information gathering by the FSA on its own initiative: background

01/12/2004

Link to the statutory information gathering and investigation powers

SUP 2.2.1

Breaching Principle 11, or the rules in this chapter, makes a firm liable to regulatory sanctions, including discipline under Part XIV of the Act (Disciplinary Measures), and may be relevant to the use of the FSA's other powers, including the statutory information gathering and investigation powers (see further PRIN 1.1.7 G to PRIN 1.1.9 G). But, unlike a breach of a requirement imposed under the statutory powers listed in SUP 2.1.5 G, a breach of Principle 11 or a rule:

(1) is not a criminal offence; and

(2) cannot lead to a person being treated as if in contempt of court (see section 177 of the Act (Offences).

21/06/2001

SUP 2.2.2

Neither Principle 11 nor SUP 2.3.5 R (1) (Access to premises) enable the FSA to force access to premises.

21/06/2001

Banking confidentiality and legal privilege

SUP 2.2.3

The FSA would not normally seek to gather information using the methods described in SUP 2.3 or SUP 2.4 in a situation where the FSA could not have obtained it under the powers in Part XI of the Act (Information Gathering and Investigations). In particular, the limitations in the following sections of the Act are relevant to this chapter:

(1) section 175(5) (Information and documents: supplementary powers) under which no person may be required under Part XI of the Act (Information Gathering and Investigations) to disclose information or produce a document subject to banking confidentiality (with exceptions); the FSA would not normally seek such information using the methods described in SUP 2.3 or SUP 2.4; and

(2) section 413 (Protected items), under which no person may be required under the Act to produce, disclose or permit the inspection of protected items; a firm would not breach Principle 11 or the rules in this chapter by not producing such items.

21/06/2001

Confidentiality of information

SUP 2.2.4

When the FSA obtains confidential information using the methods of information gathering described in SUP 2.3 or SUP 2.4, it is obliged under Part XXIII of the Act (Public Record, Disclosure of Information and Co-operation) to treat that information as confidential. The FSA will not disclose confidential information without lawful authority, for example if an exception applies under the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Disclosure of Confidential Information) Regulations 2001 (SI 2001/2188) or with the consent of the person from whom that information was received and (if different) to whom the information relates.

21/06/2001

Admissibility of information in proceedings

SUP 2.2.5

Information obtained by the FSA using the methods described in SUP 2.3 and SUP 2.4 is admissible in evidence in any proceedings, so long as it complies with any requirements governing the admissibility of evidence in the circumstances in question.

21/06/2001

SUP 2.3

Information gathering by the FSA on its own initiative: cooperation by firms

01/12/2004

Introduction: Methods of information gathering requiring cooperation

SUP 2.3.1

The FSA uses various methods of information gathering on its own initiative which require the cooperation of firms:

(1) Visits may be made by representatives or appointees of the FSA . These visits may be made on a regular basis, on a sample basis, for special purposes such as theme visits (looking at a particular issue across a range of firms), or when the FSA has a particular reason for visiting a firm. Appointees of the FSA may include persons who are not FSA staff, but who have been appointed to undertake particular monitoring activities for the FSA (paragraph 6(2) of Schedule 1 to the Act). The FSA needs to have access to a firm's documents, personnel and business premises to carry out a visit.

(2) The FSA may seek meetings at the FSA's offices or elsewhere.

(3) The FSA may seek information or request documents by telephone, at meetings or in writing, including by electronic communication.

21/06/2001

SUP 2.3.2

The FSA expects to request meetings or access to business premises during reasonable business hours. The FSA also normally expects to be able to give reasonable notice to a firm or connected person when it seeks information, documents, meetings or access to business premises. On rare occasions, however, the FSA may seek access to premises without notice. The prospect of unannounced visits is intended to encourage firms to comply with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system at all times.

21/06/2001

Access to a firm's documents and personnel

SUP 2.3.3

In complying with Principle 11, the FSA considers that a firm should, in relation to the discharge by the FSA of its functions under the Act:

(1) make itself readily available for meetings with representatives or appointees of the FSA as reasonably requested;

(2) give representatives or appointees of the FSA reasonable access to any records, files, tapes or computer systems, which are within the firm's possession or control, and provide any facilities which the representatives or appointees may reasonably request;

(3) produce to representatives or appointees of the FSA specified documents, files, tapes, computer data or other material in the firm's possession or control as reasonably requested;

(4) print information in the firm's possession or control which is held on computer or on microfilm or otherwise convert it into a readily legible document or any other record which the FSA may reasonably request;

(5) permit representatives or appointees of the FSA to copy documents or other material on the premises of the firm at the firm's reasonable expense and to remove copies and hold them elsewhere, or provide any copies, as reasonably requested; and

(6) answer truthfully, fully and promptly all questions which are reasonably put to it by representatives or appointees of the FSA .

21/06/2001

SUP 2.3.4

In complying with Principle 11, the FSA considers that a firm should take reasonable steps to ensure that the following persons act in the manner set out in SUP 2.3.3 G:

(1) its employees, agents and appointed representatives; and

(2) any other members of its group, and their employees and agents.

(See also, in respect of appointed representatives, SUP 12.5.3 G (2)).

21/06/2001

Access to premises

SUP 2.3.5

(1) A firm must permit representatives of the FSA, or persons appointed for the purpose by the FSA, to have access, with or without notice, during reasonable business hours to any of its business premises in relation to the discharge of the FSA's functions under the Act.

(2) A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that its agents, suppliers under material outsourcing arrangements and appointed representatives permit such access to their business premises. (See also, in respect of appointed representatives, SUP 12.5.3 G (2)).

21/06/2001

SUP 2.3.6

The FSA normally expects to give reasonable notice of a visit (See SUP 2.3.2 G).

21/06/2001

Suppliers under material outsourcing arrangements

SUP 2.3.7

A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that each of its suppliers under material outsourcing arrangements deals in an open and cooperative way with the FSA in the discharge of its functions under the Act in relation to the firm.

21/06/2001

SUP 2.3.8

The cooperation that a firm is expected to procure from such suppliers is similar to that expected of the firm, in the light of the guidance in SUP 2.3.3 G to SUP 2.3.4 G, but does not extend to matters outside the scope of the FSA's functions in relation to the firm. SUP 2.3.5 R (2) also requires a firm to take reasonable steps regarding access to the premises of such suppliers.

21/06/2001

SUP 2.3.9

When a firm appoints or renews the appointment of a supplier under a material outsourcing arrangement, it should satisfy itself that the terms of its contract with the supplier require the supplier to give the FSA access to its premises as described in SUP 2.3.5 R (2), and to cooperate with the FSA as described in SUP 2.3.7 R. The FSA does not consider that the 'reasonable steps' in SUP 2.3.7 R would require a firm to seek to change a contract, already in place when that rule was made by the FSA , until renewal of the contract.

21/06/2001

SUP 2.3.10

The FSA will normally seek information from the firm in the first instance, but reserves the right to seek it from a supplier under a material outsourcing arrangement if the FSA considers it appropriate.

21/06/2001

Information requested on behalf of other regulators

SUP 2.3.11

The FSA may ask a firm to provide it with information at the request of or on behalf of other regulators to enable them to discharge their functions properly. Those regulators may include overseas regulators or the Takeover Panel. The FSA may also, without notifying a firm, pass on to those regulators information which it already has in its possession. The FSA's disclosure of information to other regulators is subject to the obligation described in SUP 2.2.4 G (Confidentiality of information).

21/06/2001

SUP 2.3.12

In complying with Principle 11, the FSA considers that a firm should cooperate with it in providing information for other regulators. Sections 169 (Investigations etc. in support of overseas regulator) and 169A (Support of overseas regulator with respect to financial stability) of the Act give the FSA certain statutory powers to obtain information and appoint investigators for overseas regulators if required (see DEPP 7 , EG 3 and FINMAR 1).

06/08/2010

SUP 2.4

'Mystery shopping'

01/12/2004

SUP 2.4.1

Representatives or appointees of the FSA (which may include individuals engaged by a market research firm) may approach a firm, its agents or its appointed representatives in the role of potential retail consumers with any authorisation under the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 that is considered appropriate. This is known as 'mystery shopping'.

21/06/2001

SUP 2.4.2

The FSA uses mystery shopping to help it protect consumers. This may be by seeking information about a particular practice across a range of firms (SUP 2.4.3 G (1)) or the practices of a particular firm (SUP 2.4.3 G (2)). One of the risks consumers face is that they may be sold financial products which are inappropriate to them. A problem in protecting consumers from this risk is that it is very difficult to establish after the event what a firm has said to a 'genuine' consumer in discussions. By recording what a firm says in discussions with a 'mystery shopper', the FSA can establish a firm's normal practices in a way which would not be possible by other means.

21/06/2001

SUP 2.4.3

The FSA may carry out mystery shopping:

(1) together with a programme of visits to obtain information about a particular practice, looking at a particular issue across a range of firms, when the FSA may advise the firms of the issues beforehand; the practice being scrutinised may be that of firms or a class of firms in carrying on regulated activities or ancillary activities or in communicating or approving financial promotions;

(2) together with focused visits (concentrating on particular aspects of a firm's business) to obtain information about the practices of a firm; these practices may be in carrying on regulated activities or ancillary activities or in communicating or approving financial promotions when the FSA has particular concerns about those practices;

(3) using recording devices, telephonic or other communications; the FSA may monitor and store the contents of the materials obtained by these devices or communications.

21/06/2001

SUP 2.4.4

Telephone calls and meetings held during mystery shopping will be recorded. The FSA expects that any mystery shopping it arranges will be conducted in accordance with the Market Research Society Code of Practice.

21/06/2001

SUP 2.4.5

The FSA may use the information it obtains from mystery shopping in support of both its supervisory functions and its enforcement functions. This includes sharing any information so obtained with firms and approved persons.

01/12/2005

SUP 3

Auditors

SUP 3.1

Application

01/12/2004

SUP 3.1.1

This chapter applies to:

(1) every firm within a category listed in column (1) of the table in SUP 3.1.2 R; and

(2) the external auditor of such a firm (if appointed under SUP 3.3 or appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act);

in accordance with column (2) or (3) of that table, except as described in the remainder of this section.

21/06/2001

SUP 3.1.1A

For the avoidance of doubt, this chapter does not apply to the following firms if they do not hold client money or client assets and do not appoint an auditor under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act:

(1) authorised professional firms;
(2) energy market participants, including oil market participants to whom IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply;
(3) exempt insurance intermediaries;
(4) insurance intermediaries not subject to SUP 3.1.2 R(10);
(5) investment management firms;
(6) home finance administrators;
(7) home finance intermediaries;
(8) home finance providers;
(9) personal investment firms, including small personal investment firms;
(10) securities and futures firms; and
(11) service companies.

06/04/2007

SUP 3.1.2

Applicable sections (see SUP 3.1.1 R)

(1) Category of firm

(2) Sections applicable to the firm

(3) Sections applicable to its auditor

(1)

Authorised professional firm which is required by IPRU(INV) 2.1.2R to comply with chapters 3, 5,10 or 13 of IPRU(INV) and which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act (Note 1)

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

(2)

Authorised professional firm not within (1) to which the custody chapter or client money chapter applies , unless the firm is regulated by The Law Society (England and Wales), The Law Society of Scotland or The Law Society of Northern Ireland (Note 2)

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

(3)

Authorised professional firm not within (1) or (2) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(4)

Bank, building society or dormant account fund operatorwhich in each case carries on designated investment business(Note 2A)

SUP 3.1-SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

(5)

Bank, building society or a dormant account fund operator which in each case does not carry on designated investment business (Note 2A)

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(5A)

Credit union

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(5B)

ELMI

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(6)

Insurer, the Society of Lloyd's, underwriting agent or members' adviser, UK ISPV (Note 5)

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(7)

Investment management firm, (other than an exempt CAD firm), personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm or exempt CAD firm). or securities and futures firm (other than an exempt CAD firm or an exempt BIPRU commodities firm) which, in each case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act(Notes 3 and 3A)

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

(7A)

Investment management firm (other than an exempt CAD firm), personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm or exempt CAD firm), or securities and futures firm (other than an exempt CAD firm or an exempt BIPRU commodities firm) not within (7) to which the custody chapter or client money chapter applies

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

(7B)

UCITS firm

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

(7C)

UK MiFID investment firm, which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act(Note 3B)

SUP 3.1 - 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

(7D)

Sole trader or partnership that is a UK MiFID investment firm (other than an exempt CAD firm) (Note 3C)

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

(8)

Small personal investment firm or service company which, in either case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(9)

Home finance provider which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(10)

Insurance intermediary (other than an exempt insurance intermediary) to which the insurance client money chapter (except for CASS 5.2 (Holding money as agent)) applies (see Note 4)

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

(11)

Exempt insurance intermediary and insurance intermediary not subject to SUP 3.1.2 R(10) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(12)

Home finance intermediary or home finance administrator which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act.

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

Note 1 = This chapter applies to an authorised professional firm in row (1) (and its auditor) as if the firm were of the relevant type in the right-hand column of IPRU(INV) 2.1.4R.

Note 2 = In row (2):
(a) The non-directive custody chapter is treated as applying only if (i) the firm safeguards and administers investments in connection with managing investments (other than when acting as trustee) or (ii) it safeguards and administers investments in relation to bonded investments (and, in either case, it has not opted to conduct all business that would fall within the non-directive custody chapter under the MiFID custody chapter).
(b) The non-directive client money chapter is treated as applying only if the firm receives or holds client money other than under an arrangement where commission is rebated to the client (and assuming that it has not opted to conduct all business that would fall within the non-directive client money chapter under the MiFID client money chapter);
but, if the custody rules or the client money rules above are treated as applying, then SUP 3.10 (Duties of auditors: notification and report on client assets) applies to the whole of the business within the scope of the custody rules or the client money rules above.

Note 2A = For this purpose, designated investment business does not include either or both:
(a) dealing which falls within the exclusion in article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order (Absence of holding out etc) (or agreeing to do so); and
(b) dealing in investments as principal (or agreeing to do so):
(i) by a firm whose permission to deal in investments as principal is subject to a limitation to the effect that the firm, in carrying on this regulated activity, is limited to entering into transactions in a manner which, if the firm was an unauthorised person, would come within article 16 of the Regulated Activities Order (Dealing in contractually based investments); and
(ii) in a manner which comes within that limitation;
having regard to article 4(4) of the Regulated Activities Order (Specified activities:).

Note 3 = This note applies in relation to an oil market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply and in relation to an energy market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply. In SUP 3:
(a) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.7 are applicable to such a firm; and
(b) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 are applicable to its auditor;
and, in each case, only if it has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act.

Note 3A = If the firm has elected to comply with the MiFID custody chapter or the MiFID client money chapter also in respect of its non-MiFID business then SUP 3.10 will apply to the whole of the business within the scope of the MiFID custody chapter or the MiFID client money chapter.

Note 3B = UK MiFID investment firms include exempt CAD firms. An exempt CAD firm that has opted into MiFID can benefit from the audit exemption for small companies in the Companies Act legislation if it meets the relevant criteria in that legislation and fulfils the conditions of regulation 4C(3) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Markets in Financial Instruments) Regulations 2007. If a firm does so benefit then SUP 3 will not apply to it. For further details about exempt CAD firms, see PERG 13, Q58.

Note 3C = A sole trader or a partnership that is a UK MiFID investment firm to which the custody chapter or client money chapter applies must have its annual accounts audited.

Note 4 = The client money audit requirement in SUP 3.1.2 R(10) therefore applies to all insurance intermediaries except:
• those which do not hold client money or other client assets in relation to insurance mediation activities; or
• those which only hold up to, but not exceeding, £30,000 of client money under a statutory trust arising under CASS 5.3.
Insurance intermediaries which, in relation to insurance mediation activities, hold no more than that amount of client money only on a statutory trust are exempt insurance intermediaries.

Note (5) = In row (6):

(a)

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7 applies to a managing agent in respect of its own business and in respect of the insurance business of each syndicate which it manages; and

(b)

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 apply to the auditors of a managing agent and the auditors of the insurance business of each syndicate which the managing agent manages.

06/04/2010

SUP 3.1.2A

If a firm falls within more than one row in column (1) of the table in SUP 3.1.2 R, SUP 3.1.1 R requires the firm and its external auditor to comply with all the sections referred to in column (2) or (3). For example, a bank which carries on designated investment business which is also a mortgage lender, falls in rows (4) and (9). Therefore, the bank must comply with SUP 3.1 to SUP 3.7, and its external auditor must comply with SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8 and SUP 3.10.

21/06/2001

Incoming firms

SUP 3.1.3

This chapter appliesto an incoming EEA firm(and the auditor of such a firm) only if it has a top-up permission .

01/11/2007

SUP 3.1.4

The application of SUP 3.10 to the auditor of an incoming EEA firm with a top-up permission is qualified in SUP 3.10.3 R.

21/06/2001

SUP 3.1.5

This chapter does not apply to an incoming Treaty firm, which:

(1) does not have a top-up permission; and

(2) is not required to comply with the client asset rules.

21/06/2001

SUP 3.1.6

The application of SUP 3.7 to an incoming Treaty firm or an auditor of such a firm is further qualified in SUP 3.7.1 G.

31/12/2007

Auditors of lead regulated firms

SUP 3.1.7

The application of SUP 3.10 to the auditor of a lead regulated firm is qualified in SUP 3.10.3 R.

31/12/2007

Authorised professional firms

SUP 3.1.8

This chapter applies to an authorised professional firm as set out in rows (1) to (3) of SUP 3.1.2 R:

(1) a firm in row (1) is treated in the same way as its equivalent in row (7);

(2) large parts of this chapter apply to a firm in row (2) and its auditor; the report on client assets under SUP 3.10 (Duties of auditors: notification and report on client assets) must cover compliance for the whole of the business within the scope of whichever ofthe custody rules and the client money rules are treated as applying; but there is no requirement for the auditor to prepare a report to the FSA on the firm's financial statements;

(3) this chapter has limited application to a firm in row (3) and its auditor.

01/11/2007

Material elsewhere in the Handbook

SUP 3.1.9

A firm which is a friendly society or other insurer, investment management firm, personal investment firm or a securities and futures firm , should see the Prudential Standards part of the Handbookfor further provisions on auditors as set out in SUP 3.1.10 G. For the categorisations employed in SUP 3.1.2 R and SUP 3.1.10 G see SUP App 1.

01/01/2007

SUP 3.1.10

Other relevant sections of the Handbook (see SUP 3.1.9 G)

Friendly society

IPRU(FSOC)

Insurer (other than a friendly society)

IPRU(INS)

Investment management firm, personal investment firm, securities and futures firm (other than BIPRU investment firms)

IPRU(INV)

UCITS firm

(UPRU)

Society of Lloyd's and Lloyd's managing agents

IPRU(INS)

01/01/2007

Enabling provision and application

SUP 3.1.11

The insurance market direction in this chapter is given under section 316(1) of the Act (Direction by Authority) and applies to members.

01/01/2005

Purpose

SUP 3.1.12

The insurance market direction in this chapter is intended to enable the rules in SUP 3 and SUP 4 to be applied to a managing agent in respect of the insurance business of each syndicate which it manages.

01/01/2005

Insurance market direction on rules concerning auditors and actuaries

SUP 3.1.13

(1) With effect from 1 January 2005, Part XXII of the Act (Auditors and Actuaries) applies to the carrying on of insurance business by members as modified by paragraph (3).

(2) For the purposes of (1) "insurance business" means the regulated activities of effecting or carrying out contracts of insurance written at Lloyd's.

(3) Regulations made by the Treasury under section 342(5) and section 343(5) of Part XXII of the Act apply only to actuaries appointed by a managing agent in respect of the insurance business of a syndicate, in relation to the long-term insurance business of that syndicate.

(4) In Part XXII of the Act (Auditors and Actuaries) as applied by this insurance market direction:

(a) a reference to an auditor of an authorised person is to be read as including an auditor appointed by a managing agent in respect of the insurance business of a syndicate; and

(b) a reference to an actuary acting for an authorised person is to be read as including an actuary appointed by a managing agent in respect of the insurance business of a syndicate.

01/01/2005

SUP 3.1.14

Part XXII (Auditors and Actuaries) is a core provision mentioned in section 317(1) of the Act (The core provisions).

01/01/2005

SUP 3.1.15

Section 317(2) of the Act (The core provisions) provides that references in an applied core provision to an authorised person are to be read as references to a person in the class to which the insurance market direction applies. The effect of this, and of the insurance market direction set out at SUP 3.1.13 D, is that Part XXII of the Act (Auditors and Actuaries), applies also to auditors and actuaries who are appointed to report on the underwriting business of members. Part XXII is modified in its application to members by paragraph (3) of SUP 3.1.13 D with the effect that the regulations made under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act relating to communications by actuaries will only apply where the actuary is appointed to evaluate the long-term insurance business of the syndicate. The regulations made under sections 342(5) and 343(5) in relation to communications by auditors will apply in relation to both general insurance business and long-term insurance business.

01/01/2005

SUP 3.1.16

SUP 3.3 sets out rules the effect of which is to require a managing agent to appoint an auditor in respect of its own business and the insurance business of each syndicate which it manages.

01/01/2005

SUP 3.1.17

References in SUP 3, as applied by SUP 3.1.2 R, to a firm include, where appropriate:

(1) a managing agent; and

(2) one or more members carrying on insurance business at Lloyd's through a syndicate,

and references to an actuary of a firm should be read accordingly.

01/01/2005

SUP 3.1.18

SUP 4.6 sets out rules the effect of which is to require a managing agent to appoint an actuary in respect of the insurance business of each syndicate which it manages.

01/01/2005

SUP 3.2

Purpose

01/12/2004

Purpose: general

SUP 3.2.1

This chapter sets out rules and guidance on the role auditors play in the FSA's monitoring of firms' compliance with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system. In determining whether a firm satisfies the threshold conditions, the FSA has regard to whether the firm has appointed auditors with sufficient experience in the areas of business to be conducted by the firm (COND 2.5.7 G (11)). Auditors act as a source of information for the FSA in its supervision. They report, where required, on the financial resources of the firm, the accuracy of its reports to the FSA and its compliance with particular rules, such as the Client asset rules.

21/06/2001

SUP 3.2.2

The Act, together with other legislation such as the Companies Acts 1985, 1989 and 2006, the Building Societies Act 1986 and the Friendly Societies Act 1992, provides the statutory framework for firms' and auditors' obligations.

06/10/2007

SUP 3.2.3

The requirements in SUP 3.9 represent an interim approach to the use of auditors, based mainly on the requirements which previous regulators applied to firms.

21/06/2001

Insurance intermediaries and their auditors

SUP 3.2.5

It is the responsibility of an insurance intermediary's senior management to determine, on a continuing basis, whether the insurance intermediary is an exempt insurance intermediaryand to appoint an auditor if management determines the firm is no longer exempt. SUP 3.7 (amplified by SUP 15) sets out what a firm should consider when deciding whether it should notify the FSA of matters raised by its auditor.

06/10/2006

Rights and duties of auditors

SUP 3.2.6

The rights and duties of auditors are set out in SUP 3.8 (Rights and duties of all auditors) and SUP 3.10 (Duties of auditors: notification and report on client assets). SUP 3.8.10 G includes the auditor's statutory duty to report certain matters to the FSA imposed by regulations made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (information given by auditor or actuary to the FSA). An auditor should bear these rights and duties in mind when carrying out client asset report work, including whether anything should be notified to the FSA immediately.

01/04/2005

SUP 3.3

Appointment of auditors

01/12/2004

Purpose

SUP 3.3.1

This section requires a firm to appoint an auditor and supply the FSA with information about its auditor. The FSA requires such information to ensure that the firm has an auditor.

21/06/2001

Appointment by firms

SUP 3.3.2

A firm to which this section applies (see SUP 3.1) must:

(1) appoint an auditor;

(2) notify the FSA, without delay, on the form in SUP 15 Ann 2R (Standing data form), in accordance with the instructions on the form, when it is aware that a vacancy in the office of auditor will arise or has arisen, giving the reason for the vacancy;

(3) appoint an auditor to fill any vacancy in the office of auditor which has arisen;

(4) ensure that the replacement auditor can take up office at the time the vacancy arises or as soon as reasonably practicable after that; and

(5) notify the FSA of the appointment of an auditor, on the form in SUP 15 Ann 2R (Standing data form), in accordance with the instructions on the form, advising the FSA of the name and business address of the auditor appointed and the date from which the appointment has effect.

01/11/2004

SUP 3.3.3

(1) SUP 3.3.2 R applies to every firm to which this section applies. That includes a firm which is under an obligation to appoint an auditor under an enactment other than the Act, such as the Companies Act 1985 or the Companies Act 2006, as appropriate. Such a firm is expected to wish to have a single auditor who is appointed to fulfil both obligations. SUP 3.3.2 R is made under section 138 of the Act (General rule-making power), in relation to such firms, and under section 340(1) (Appointment) in relation to other firms.

(2) Building societies and friendly societies are reminded that they are subject to the provisions of Schedule 11 to the Building Societies Act 1986 and Schedule 14 to the Friendly Societies Act 1992 relating to auditors, in addition to the provisions in this chapter. In relation to SUP 3.3.2 R (2), such firms may give the FSA a single notification of a vacancy in the office of auditor provided that the notification complies with the requirements of the relevant Act and SUP 3.3.2 R (2).

06/06/2008

Appointment by the FSA

SUP 3.3.7

(1) Paragraph (2) applies to a firm which is not under an obligation to appoint an auditor imposed by an enactment other than the Act.

(2) If a firm fails to appoint an auditor within 28 days of a vacancy arising, the FSA may appoint an auditor for it on the following terms:

(a) the auditor to be remunerated by the firm on the basis agreed between the auditor and firm or, in the absence of agreement, on a reasonable basis; and

(b) the auditor to hold office until he resigns or the firm appoints another auditor.

21/06/2001

SUP 3.3.8

In addition, in the case of a building society or friendly society, Schedule 11 of the Building Societies Act 1986 and Schedule 14 of the Friendly Societies Act 1992 allow the FSA to appoint an auditor if this is not done at the society's annual general meeting.

21/06/2001

SUP 3.3.9

SUP 3.3.7 R allows but does not require the FSA to appoint an auditor if the firm has failed to do so within the 28 day period. When it considers whether to use this power, the FSA will take into account the likely delay until the firm can make an appointment and the urgency of any pending duties of the appointed auditor.

21/06/2001

SUP 3.3.10

A firm must comply with and is bound by the terms on which an auditor has been appointed by the FSA , whether under SUP 3.3.7 R, the Building Societies Act 1986 or the Friendly Societies Act 1992.

21/06/2001

SUP 3.4

Auditors' qualifications

01/12/2004

Purpose

SUP 3.4.1

The FSA is concerned to ensure that the auditor of a firm has the necessary skill and experience to audit the business of the firm to which he has been appointed. This section sets out the FSA's rules and guidance aimed at achieving this.

21/06/2001

Qualifications

SUP 3.4.2

Before a firm, to which SUP 3.3.2 R applies, appoints an auditor, it must take reasonable steps to ensure that the auditor has the required skill, resources and experience to perform his functions under the regulatory system and that the auditor:

(1) is eligible for appointment as an auditor under Part II of the Companies Act 1989 or Part III of the Companies (Northern Ireland) Order 1990 (Eligibility for appointment) where applicable, otherwise Chapters 1, 2 and 6 of Part 42 of the Companies Act 2006 ; or

(2) if appointed under an obligation in another enactment, is eligible for appointment as an auditor under that enactment; or

(3) in the case of an overseas firm, is eligible for appointment as an auditor under any applicable equivalent laws of that country or territory.

06/06/2008

SUP 3.4.3

Enactments within SUP 3.4.2 R (2) include the Building Societies Act 1986 and the Friendly Societies Act 1992.

21/06/2001

SUP 3.4.4

An auditor which a firm proposes to appoint should have skills, resources and experience commensurate with the nature, scale and complexity of the firm's business and the requirements and standards under the regulatory system to which it is subject. A firm should have regard to whether its proposed auditor has expertise in the relevant requirements and standards (which may involve access to UK expertise) and possesses or has access to appropriate specialist skill, for example actuarial expertise in carrying out audits of insurance companies or friendly societies where appropriate. The firm should seek confirmation of this from the auditor concerned as appropriate.

21/06/2001

Disqualified auditors

SUP 3.4.5

A firm must not appoint as auditor a person who is disqualified by the FSAunder section 345 of the Act (Disqualification) from acting as an auditor either for that firm or for a relevant class of firm.

21/06/2001

SUP 3.4.6

If it appears to the FSA that an auditor of a firm has failed to comply with a duty imposed on him under the Act, it may disqualify him under section 345 of the Act. For more detail about what happens when the disqualification of an auditor is being considered or put into effect, see EG 15 . A list of persons who are disqualified by the FSA under section 345 of the Act may be found on the FSA website ( www.fsa.gov.uk).

28/08/2007

Requests for information on qualifications by the FSA

SUP 3.4.7

A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that an auditor, which it is planning to appoint or has appointed, provides information to the FSA about the auditor's qualifications, skills, experience and independence in accordance with the reasonable requests of the FSA .

21/06/2001

SUP 3.4.8

To enable it to assess the ability of an auditor to audit a firm, the FSA may seek information about the auditor's relevant experience and skill. The FSA will normally seek information by letter from an auditor who has not previously audited any firm. The firm should instruct the auditor to reply fully to the letter (and should not appoint an auditor who does not reply to the FSA ). The FSA may also seek further information on a continuing basis from the auditor of a firm (see also the auditor's duty to cooperate under SUP 3.8.2 R).

21/06/2001

SUP 3.5

Auditors' independence

01/12/2004

Purpose

SUP 3.5.1

If an auditor is to carry out his duties properly, he needs to be independent of the firm he is auditing, so that he is not subject to conflicts of interest. Many firms are also subject to requirements under the Companies Act 1989, or the Companies Act 2006, the Building Societies Act 1986 or the Friendly Societies Act 1992 on auditor's independence.

06/06/2008

Independence

SUP 3.5.2

A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that the auditor which it appoints is independent of the firm.

21/06/2001

SUP 3.5.3

If a firm becomes aware at any time that its auditor is not independent of the firm, it must take reasonable steps to ensure that it has an auditor independent of the firm. The firm must notify the FSA if independence is not achieved within a reasonable time.

21/06/2001

SUP 3.5.4

The FSA will regard an auditor as independent if his appointment or retention does not breach the ethical guidance in current issue from the auditor's recognised supervisory body on the appointment of an auditor in circumstances which could give rise to conflicts of interest.

21/06/2001

SUP 3.5.5

Firms are reminded that the Building Societies Act 1986 and Friendly Societies Act 1992 provide that an auditor who is ineligible under section 27 of the Companies Act 1989 where applicable, otherwise sections 1214 and 1215 of the Companies Act 2006 for appointment as auditor of a company (which is a subsidiary undertaking of a building society or a subsidiary of a friendly society) is ineligible for appointment as auditor to the building society or friendly society concerned.

06/06/2008

SUP 3.6

Firms' cooperation with their auditors

01/12/2004

SUP 3.6.1

A firm must cooperate with its auditor in the discharge of his duties under this chapter.

21/06/2001

Auditor's access to accounting records

SUP 3.6.2

In complying with SUP 3.6.1 R, a firm should give a right of access at all times to the firm's accounting and other records, in whatever form they are held, and documents relating to its business. A firm should allow its auditor to copy documents or other material on the premises of the firm and to remove copies or hold them elsewhere, or give him such copies on request.

21/06/2001

SUP 3.6.3

Section 341 of the Act (Access to books etc.) provides that an auditor of a firm appointed under SUP 3.3.2 R:

(1) has a right of access at all times to the firm's books, accounts and vouchers; and

(2) is entitled to require from the firm's officers such information and explanations as he reasonably considers necessary for the performance of his duties as auditor.

21/06/2001

SUP 3.6.4

Section 389A of the Companies Act 1985 where applicable, otherwise sections 499 and 500 of the Companies Act 2006, section 79 of the Building Societies Act 1986 and section 75 of the Friendly Societies Act 1992 give similar rights to auditors of companies, building societies and friendly societies respectively.

06/06/2008

SUP 3.6.5

Section 413 (Protected items), under which no person may be required under the Act to produce, disclose or permit the inspection of protected items, is relevant to SUP 3.6.1 R and SUP 3.6.3 G.

21/06/2001

Access and cooperation: appointed representatives, material outsourcing, employees

SUP 3.6.6

In complying with SUP 3.6.1 R, a firm should take reasonable steps to ensure that each of its appointed representativesor, where applicable, tied agentsgives the firm's auditor the same rights of access to the books, accounts and vouchers of the appointed representativeor tied agentand entitlement to information and explanations from the appointed representative'sor tied agent'sofficers as are given in respect of the firm by section 341 of the Act (see also SUP 12.5.5 R (3)).

01/11/2007

SUP 3.6.7

In complying with SUP 3.6.1 R, a firm should take reasonable steps to ensure that each of its suppliers under a material outsourcing arrangement gives the firm's auditor the same rights of access to the books, accounts and vouchers of the firm held by the supplier, and entitlement to information and explanations from the supplier's officers as are given in respect of the firm by section 341 of the Act.

21/06/2001

SUP 3.6.8

In complying with SUP 3.6.1 R, a firm should take reasonable steps to ensure that all its employees cooperate with its auditor in the discharge of his duties under this chapter.

21/06/2001

Provision of false or misleading information to auditors

SUP 3.6.9

Firms and their officers, managers and controllers are reminded that, under section 346 of the Act (Provision of false or misleading information to auditor or actuary), knowingly or recklessly giving false information to an auditor appointed under SUP 3.3.2 R constitutes an offence in certain circumstances, which could render them liable to prosecution. This applies even when an auditor is also appointed under an obligation in another enactment.

21/06/2001

SUP 3.7

Notification of matters raised by auditor

01/12/2004

Application

SUP 3.7.1

SUP 3.7 does not apply to an incoming Treaty firm which does not have a top-up permission.

21/06/2001

Notification

SUP 3.7.2

A firm should consider whether it should notify the FSA under Principle 11 if:

(1) the firm expects or knows its auditor will qualify his report on the audited annual financial statements or add an explanatory paragraph; or

(2) the firm receives a written communication from its auditor commenting on internal controls (see also SUP 15.3).

21/06/2001

SUP 3.8

Rights and duties of auditors

01/12/2004

Purpose

SUP 3.8.1

The auditor of a firm has various rights and duties to obtain information from the firm and both to enable and to require him to pass information to the FSA in specified circumstances. This section imposes or gives guidance on those rights and duties.

21/06/2001

Cooperation with the FSA

SUP 3.8.2

An auditor of a firm must cooperate with the FSA in the discharge of its functions under the Act.

21/06/2001

SUP 3.8.3

The FSA may ask the auditor to attend meetings and to supply it with information about the firm. In complying with SUP 3.8.2 R, the auditor should attend such meetings as the FSA requests and supply it with any information the FSA may reasonably request about the firm to enable the FSA to discharge its functions under the Act.

21/06/2001

SUP 3.8.4

An auditor of a firm must give any skilled person appointed by the firm all assistance that person reasonably requires (see SUP 5 and section 166(5) of the Act (Reports by skilled persons)).

21/06/2001

Auditor's independence

SUP 3.8.5

An auditor of a firm must be independent of the firm in performing his duties in respect of that firm.

21/06/2001

SUP 3.8.6

An auditor of a firm must take reasonable steps to satisfy himself that he is free from any conflict of interest in respect of that firm from which bias may reasonably be inferred. He must take appropriate action where this is not the case.

21/06/2001

SUP 3.8.7

SUP 3.5.4 G explains that an auditor whose appointment does not breach the ethical guidance in current issue from the auditor's recognised supervisory body will be regarded as independent by the FSA .

21/06/2001

Auditors' rights to information

SUP 3.8.8

SUP 3.6.1 R requires a firm to cooperate with its auditor. SUP 3.6.3 G refers to the rights to information which an auditor is granted by the Act. SUP 3.6.4 G refers to similar rights granted by the Companies Act 1985 or where applicable, the Companies Act 2006, the Building Societies Act 1986 and the Friendly Societies Act 1992.

06/06/2008

Communication between the FSA, the firm and the auditor

SUP 3.8.9

Within the legal constraints that apply, the FSA may pass on to an auditor any information which it considers relevant to his function. An auditor is bound by the confidentiality provisions set out in Part XXIII of the Act (Public record, disclosure of information and cooperation) in respect of confidential information he receives from the FSA . An auditor may not pass on such confidential information without lawful authority, for example if an exception applies under the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Disclosure of Confidential Information) Regulations 2001 (SI 2001/2188) or with the consent of the person from whom that information was received and (if different) to whom the information relates.

21/06/2001

Auditors' statutory duty to report

SUP 3.8.10

(1) Auditors are subject to regulations made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (Information given by auditor or actuary to the FSA). Section 343 and the regulations also apply to an auditor of an authorised person in his capacity as an auditor of a person who has close links with the authorised person.

(2) These regulations oblige auditors to report certain matters to the FSA. Sections 342(3) and 343(3) of the Act provide that an auditor does not contravene any duty by giving information or expressing an opinion to the FSA , if he is acting in good faith and he reasonably believes that the information or opinion is relevant to any functions of the FSA . These provisions continue to have effect after the end of the auditor's term of appointment.
In relation to Lloyd's, an effect of the insurance market direction set out at SUP 3.1.13 D is that sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (Information given by an auditor or actuary to the Authority) apply also to auditors appointed to report on the insurance business of members.

06/05/2009

Termination of term of office, disqualification

SUP 3.8.11

An auditor must notify the FSA without delay if he:

(1) is removed from office by a firm; or

(2) resigns before his term of office expires; or

(3) is not re-appointed by a firm.

21/06/2001

SUP 3.8.12

If an auditor ceases to be, or is formally notified that he will cease to be, the auditor of a firm, he must notify the FSA without delay:

(1) of any matter connected with his so ceasing which he thinks ought to be drawn to the FSA's attention; or

(2) that there is no such matter.

21/06/2001

SUP 3.10

Duties of auditors: notification and report on client assets

01/12/2004

Application

SUP 3.10.1

Where this section requires an auditor of a firm to report on a firm's compliance with rules, this section applies to the auditor only to the extent that the firm is required to comply with the relevant rules.

21/06/2001

SUP 3.10.2

An auditor of an authorised professional firm need not report under this section in relation to that firm's compliance with the client money rulesin the client money chapter , if that firm is regulated by:

(1) the Law Society (England and Wales);

(2) the Law Society of Scotland;

(3) the Law Society of Northern Ireland.

06/04/2010

SUP 3.10.3

SUP 3.10.5 R(3) does not apply to an auditor of a lead regulated firm or an incoming EEA firm.

21/06/2001

Client assets report: content

SUP 3.10.4

An auditor of a firm must submit a report addressed to the FSA , signed in his capacity as auditor, which:

(1) states the matters set out in SUP 3.10.5 R; or

(2) if the firm claims not to hold client money or custody assets, states whether anything has come to the auditor's attention that causes him to believe that the firm held client money or custody assets during the period covered by the report.

21/06/2001

SUP 3.10.5

Client assets report

Whether in the auditor's opinion

(1)

the firm has maintained systems adequate to enable it to comply with the custody rules, the collateral rules and the client money rules (except CASS 5.2) throughout the period since the last date as at which a report was made;

(2)

the firm was in compliance with the custody rules, the collateral rules and the client money rules (except CASS 5.2), at the date as at which the report has been made;

(3)

in the case of an investment management firm, personal investment firm, a UCITS firm, securities and futures firm or BIPRU investment firm , when a subsidiary of the firm is a nominee company in whose name custody assets of the firm are registered that nominee company has maintained throughout the year systems for the custody, identification and control of custody assets which:

(a)

are adequate; and

(b)

include reconciliations at appropriate intervals between the records maintained (whether by the firm or the nominee company) and statements or confirmations from custodians or from the person who maintains the record of legal entitlement; and

(4)

if there has been a secondary pooling event during the period, the firm has complied with the rules CASS 5.6 and CASS 7A (Client money distribution) in relation to that pooling event.

06/04/2010

Client assets report: period covered

SUP 3.10.6

The period covered by a report under SUP 3.10.4 R must end not more than 53 weeks after the period covered by the previous report on such matters, or, if none, after the firm is authorised or becomes a firm to which SUP 3.10 applies.

21/06/2001

Client assets report: timing of submission

SUP 3.10.7

An auditor must deliver a report under SUP 3.10.4 R to the FSA within a reasonable time from the end of each period covered, unless it is the auditor of a firm falling within category (10) of SUP 3.1.2 R.

01/11/2007

SUP 3.10.7A

A period of four months, in ordinary circumstances, would be considered by the FSA as a reasonable time for the auditor to deliver the client assets report to the FSA.

01/11/2007

SUP 3.10.8

If an auditor is unable to report to the FSA within a reasonable time, the auditor must notify the FSA and advise the FSA of the reasons why it has been unable to meet the requirements of SUP 3.10.7 R.

01/11/2007

SUP 3.10.8A

The auditor of a firm falling within category (10) of SUP 3.1.2 R must deliver a report under SUP 3.10.4 R:

(1) to the firm so as to be received within four months of the end of each period covered; and

(2) to the FSA upon request within six years of the end of the period covered.

01/04/2005

SUP 3.10.8B

The rights and duties of auditors are set out in SUP 3.8 (Rights and duties of all auditors) and SUP 3.10 (Duties of auditors: notification and report on client assets). SUP 3.8.10 G also refers to the auditor's statutory duty to report certain matters to the FSA imposed by regulations made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (information given by auditor or actuary to the FSA). An auditor should bear these rights and duties in mind when carrying out client asset report work, including whether anything should be notified to the FSA immediately.

01/04/2005

SUP 3.10.8C

It is the responsibility of an insurance intermediary's senior management to determine, on a continuing basis, whether the firm is an exempt insurance intermediary for the purposes of this requirement and to appoint an auditor if management determines the firm is no longer exempt. SUP 3.7 (amplified by SUP 15) sets out what a firm should consider when deciding whether it should notify the FSA of matters raised by its auditor.

01/04/2005

Client assets report: requirements not met or inability to form opinion

SUP 3.10.9

If the report under SUP 3.10.4 R states that one or more of the applicable requirements described in SUP 3.10.5 R have not been met, the auditor must specify in the report those requirements and the respects in which they have not been met.

21/06/2001

SUP 3.10.10

If an auditor is unable to form an opinion as to whether one or more of the applicable requirements described in SUP 3.10.5 R have been met, the auditor must specify in the report under SUP 3.10.4 R those requirements and the reasons why the auditor has been unable to form an opinion.

21/06/2001

SUP 3.10.11

An auditor may at the firm's request include the matters required under this section in a separate report to that required under section SUP 3.9.

21/06/2001

Method of submission of reports

SUP 3.10.12

An auditor of a firm must submit a report under SUP 3.10.4 R in accordance with the rules in SUP 16.3.6 R to SUP 16.3.13 R as if those rules applied directly to the auditor.

21/06/2001

Service of Notice Regulations

SUP 3.10.13

The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Service of Notices) Regulations 2001 (SI 2001/1420) contain provisions relating to the service of documents on the FSA . They do not apply to reports required by SUP 3.10 because of the specific provisions in SUP 3.10.12 R.

21/06/2001

SUP 4

Actuaries

SUP 4.1

Application

31/12/2004

SUP 4.1.1

This chapter applies to:

(1) every firm within a category listed in column (1) of the table in SUP 4.1.3 R; and

(2) every actuary appointed under this chapter;

in accordance with column (2) of that table.

31/12/2004

SUP 4.1.2

This chapter applies to long-term insurers (including friendly societies) and other friendly societies and to the Society of Lloyd's and managing agents at Lloyd's. This chapter does not apply to actuaries advising the auditors of long-term insurers under IPRU(INS) 9.35(1A) or IPRU(FSOC) 5.11(2A), as they are not appointed to act on behalf of the firm.

01/01/2005

SUP 4.1.3

Applicable sections

(1)

Category of firm

(2) Applicable sections

(1)

A long-term insurer, other than:

SUP 4.1, SUP 4.2, SUP 4.3 and SUP 4.5

(a)

a registered friendly society which is a non-directive friendly society;

(b)

an incorporated friendly society that is a flat rate benefits business friendly society; and

(c)

an incoming EEA firm

(2)

A friendly society, other than a friendly society within (1).

SUP 4.1, SUP 4.2, SUP 4.4 and SUP 4.5

(3)

A Lloyd's managing agent, in respect of each syndicate it manages

SUP 4.1, SUP 4.2, SUP 4.5, SUP 4.6

(4)

The Society of Lloyd's

SUP 4.1, SUP 4.2, SUP 4.5, SUP 4.6

01/01/2005

SUP 4.2

Purpose

31/12/2004

SUP 4.2.1

Section 340 of the Act gives the FSA power to make rules requiring an authorised person, or an authorised person falling into a specified class, to appoint an actuary . Section 340 further empowers the FSA to make rules governing the manner, timing and notification to the FSAof such an appointment and, where an appointment is not made, for the FSA to make an appointment on the firm's behalf. The FSA's rule-making powers under section 340 of the Act also extend to an actuary's duties and to the cessation of an actuary's term of office.

31/12/2004

SUP 4.2.2

This chapter defines the relationship between firms and their actuaries and clarifies the role which actuaries play in the FSA's monitoring of firms' compliance with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system. The chapter sets out rules and guidance on the appointment of actuaries, and the termination of their term of office, as well as setting out their respective rights and duties. The purpose of the chapter is to ensure that:

(1) long-term insurers (other than certain friendly societies) have access to adequate actuarial advice, both in valuing their liabilities to policyholders and in exercising discretion affecting the interests of their with-profits policyholders; and
(2) other friendly societies carrying on insurance business (and which have traditionally relied upon actuarial expertise) employ or use an actuary of appropriate seniority and experience to evaluate the liabilities of that business; and
(3) managing agents of Lloyd's syndicates employ or use an actuary of appropriate seniority and experience to evaluate the liabilities associated with insurance business carried on at Lloyd's.

01/01/2005

SUP 4.2.3

The functions described by SUP 4.2.2 G (1) are performed by one or more actuaries who are required to hold office continuously and must be approved persons. The principal duty of an actuary appointed to perform these functions is to advise the firm (see SUP 4.3.13 R to SUP 4.3.18 G for the rights and duties of such an actuary).

31/12/2004

SUP 4.2.4

The function described by SUP 4.2.2 G (2) is performed by an appropriate actuary who is appointed to prepare the triennial investigation and interim certificate or statement required by IPRU(FSOC) 5.2(1) (see SUP 4.4.6 R and SUP 4.5.12 G to SUP 4.5.14 G for the rights and duties of an appropriate actuary).

31/12/2004

SUP 4.2.5

Actuaries act as a valuable source of information to the FSA in carrying out its functions. For example, in determining whether a firm satisfies the threshold conditions, the FSA has regard to whether the firm has appointed an actuary with sufficient experience in the areas of business to be conducted by the firm (COND 2.5.7 G (11)).

31/12/2004

SUP 4.2.6

In making appointments under this chapter and in allocating duties to actuaries, firms are reminded of their obligation under SYSC 2.1.1 R to maintain a clear and appropriate apportionment of significant responsibilities so that it is clear who has which of those responsibilities and that the business and affairs of the firm can be adequately monitored and controlled by the directors, relevant senior managers and governing body of the firm.

31/12/2004

SUP 4.3

Appointment of actuaries

31/12/2004

Appointment by firms

SUP 4.3.1

A firm to which this section applies (see SUP 4.1) must:

(1) appoint one or more actuaries to perform:

(a) the actuarial function (see SUP 4.3.13 R) in respect of all classes of its long-term insurance business; and

(b) the with-profits actuary function (see SUP 4.3.16A R) in respect of all classes of its with-profits business (if any);

(2) notify the FSA , without delay, when it is aware that a vacancy in the office of any such actuary will arise or has arisen, giving the reason for the vacancy;

(3) appoint an actuary to fill any such vacancy that has arisen; and

(4) ensure a replacement actuary can take up office at the time the vacancy arises or as soon as is reasonably practicable after that.

31/12/2004

SUP 4.3.2

The provisions relating to the duties of an actuary appointed to perform these functions are set out in SUP 4.3.13 R to SUP 4.3.18 G. The functions performed by actuaries appointed by a firm under SUP 4.3.1 R are specified as controlled functions (CF 12, the actuarial function, and CF 12A, the with-profits actuary function) in SUP 10 ( Approved persons). As a result, an application must be made to the FSA under section 60 of the Act (Applications for approval) for approval of the person proposing to take up such an appointment. Section 61(3) of the Act (Determination of applications) gives the FSA three months to grant its approval or give a warning notice that it proposes to refuse the application. A firm should not appoint an actuary until the FSA has approved the actuary. In order to comply with SUP 4.3.1 R, a firm should ensure it applies to the FSA as soon as practicable before the date when it needs the actuary to take office. The FSA will need time to consider the application before deciding whether to grant approval. See SUP 10 ( Approved persons).

31/12/2004

Appointment by the FSA

SUP 4.3.3

If a firm, which is required to appoint one or more actuaries under SUP 4.3.1 R, fails to do so within 28 days of a vacancy arising, the FSA may appoint one or more actuaries to perform any function corresponding to the actuarial function or the with-profits actuary function on the following terms:

(1) the actuary to be remunerated by the firm on the basis agreed between the actuary and the firm or, in the absence of agreement, on a reasonable basis; and

(2) the actuary to hold office until he resigns or the firm appoints another actuary.

31/12/2004

SUP 4.3.4

SUP 4.3.3 R allows but does not require the FSA to appoint an actuary if the firm has failed to do so within the 28 day period. When it considers whether to use this power, the FSA will take into account the likely delay until the firm can make an appointment and the urgency of any pending duties of the actuary.

31/12/2004

SUP 4.3.5

The FSA will not normally seek to appoint an actuary under SUP 4.3.3 R if a notification under SUP 10 ( Approved persons) has been received from the firm in relation to a proposed appointment of an actuary under SUP 4.3.1 R, and that application is still being considered.

31/12/2004

SUP 4.3.6

A firm must comply with and is bound by the terms on which an actuary has been appointed by the FSA under SUP 4.3.3 R.

31/12/2004

SUP 4.3.7

If the FSA appoints an actuary under SUP 4.3.3 R, he will not be an approved person (not being appointed under SUP 4.3.1 R). However, the firm is still under an obligation to appoint an actuary under SUP 4.3.1 R and will need to seek prior approval of that person (even if the individual it proposes to appoint is the person who has been appointed by the FSA under SUP 4.3.3 R).

31/12/2004

Actuaries' qualifications

SUP 4.3.8

The FSA is concerned to ensure that every actuary appointed by a firm under this section has the necessary skill and experience to provide the firm with appropriate actuarial advice. SUP 4.3.9 R to SUP 4.3.10 G set out the FSA's rules and guidance aimed at achieving this.

31/12/2004

SUP 4.3.9

Before a firm applies for approval of the person it proposes to appoint as an actuary under SUP 4.3.1 R, it must take reasonable steps to ensure that the actuary:

(1) has the required skill and experience to perform his functions under the regulatory system; and

(2) is a Fellow of the Institute of Actuaries or of the Faculty of Actuaries.

31/12/2004

SUP 4.3.10

To comply with SUP 4.3.9 R and Principle 3, before an actuary takes up his appointment the firm should ensure that the actuary:

(1) has skills and experience appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of the firm's business and the requirements and standards under the regulatory system to which it is subject; and

(2) has adequate qualifications and experience, which includes holding an appropriate practising certificate under the rules of the Institute of Actuaries or the Faculty of Actuaries;

and seek confirmation of these from the actuary, or the actuary's current and previous employers, as appropriate.

31/12/2004

Disqualified actuaries

SUP 4.3.11

A firm must not appoint under SUP 4.3.1 R an actuary who is disqualified by the FSA under section 345 of the Act (Disqualification) from acting as an actuary either for that firm or for a relevant class of firm.

31/12/2004

SUP 4.3.12

If it appears to the FSA that an actuary has failed to comply with a duty imposed on him under the Act, it may disqualify him under section 345 of the Act. For more detail about what happens when the disqualification of an actuary is being considered or put into effect, see EG 15 (Disqualification of auditors and actuaries). A list of actuaries who are disqualified by the FSA may be found on the FSA website (www.fsa.gov.uk).

28/08/2007

SUP 4.3.12A

A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that an actuary who is to be, or has been, appointed under SUP 4.3.1 R:

(1) does not perform the function of chairman or chief executive of the firm, or does not, if he is to perform the with-profits actuary function, become a member of the firm's governing body; and

(2) does not perform any other function on behalf of the firm which could give rise to a significant conflict of interest.

31/12/2004

SUP 4.3.12B

Both the actuarial function and the with-profits actuary function may be performed by employees of the firm or by external consultants, and performing other functions on behalf of the firm will not necessarily give rise to a significant conflict of interest. However, being a director, or a senior manager responsible, say, for sales or marketing in a firm (or for finance in a proprietary firm), is likely to give rise to a significant conflict of interest for an actuary performing the with-profits actuary function. He nevertheless retains direct access to the firm's governing body under SUP 4.3.17 R (2).

31/12/2004

The actuarial function

SUP 4.3.13

An actuary appointed to perform the actuarial function must, in respect of those classes of the firm's long-term insurance business which are covered by his appointment:

(1) advise the firm's management, at the level of seniority that is reasonably appropriate, on the risks the firm runs in so far as they may have a material impact on the firm's ability to meet liabilities to policyholders in respect of long-term insurance contracts as they fall due and on the capital needed to support the business, including regulatory capital requirements;
(2) monitor those risks and inform the firm's management, at the level of seniority that is reasonably appropriate, if he has any material concerns or good reason to believe that the firm:

(a) is not meeting liabilities to policyholders under long-term insurance contracts as they fall due, or may not be doing so, or might not have done so, or might, in reasonably foreseeable circumstances, not do so;
(b) is, or may be, effecting new long-term insurance contracts on terms under which the resulting income earned is insufficient, under reasonable actuarial methods and assumptions, and taking into account the other financial resources that are available for the purpose, to enable the firm to meet its liabilities to policyholders as they fall due (including reasonable bonus expectations);
(c) does not, or may not, have sufficient financial resources to meet liabilities to policyholders as they fall due (including reasonable bonus expectations) and the capital needed to support the business, including regulatory capital requirements or, if the firm currently has sufficient resources, might, in reasonably foreseeable circumstances, not continue to have them;

(3) advise the firm's governing body on the methods and assumptions to be used for the investigations required by IPRU(INS) 9.4R or IPRU(FSOC) 5.1R and the calculation of the with-profits insurance capital component under INSPRU 1.3 as applicable;
(4) perform those investigations and calculations in (3), in accordance with the methods and assumptions determined by the firm's governing body;
(5) report to the firm's governing body on the results of those investigations and calculations in (3); and
(6) in the case of a friendly society to which this section applies, perform the functions of the appropriate actuary under section 87 (Actuary's report as to margin of solvency) of the Friendly Societies Act 1992.

31/12/2006

SUP 4.3.14

IPRU(INS) 9.4R and IPRU(FSOC) 5.1R require firms to which this section applies to cause an investigation to be made at least yearly by the actuary or actuaries appointed to perform the actuarial function, and to report on the result of that investigation. INSPRU 1.3 requires realistic basis life firms to calculate the with-profits insurance component as part of their capital resources requirements.The firm is responsible for the methods and assumptions used to determine the liabilities attributable to its long-term insurance business. The obligation on friendly societies to obtain a report from the 'appropriate actuary' under section 87 of the Friendly Societies Act 1992 applies to a friendly society which is to receive a transfer of engagements under section 86 (transfer of engagements to or by a friendly society). The 'appropriate actuary' in this context is the actuary appointed to perform the actuarial function, rather than the appropriate actuary under SUP 4.4 (Appropriate actuaries).

31/12/2006

SUP 4.3.15

SUP 4.3.13 R is not intended to be exhaustive of the professional advice that a firm should take whether from an actuary appointed under this chapter or from any other actuary acting for the firm. Firms should consider what systems and controls are needed to ensure that they obtain appropriate professional advice on financial and risk analysis; for example:

(1) risk identification, quantification and monitoring;

(2) stress and scenario testing;

(3) ongoing financial conditions;

(4) financial projections for business planning;

(5) investment strategy and asset-liability matching;

(6) individual capital assessment;

(7) pricing of business, including unit pricing;

(8) variation of any charges for benefits or expenses;

(9) discretionary surrender charges; and

(10) adequacy of reinsurance protection.

31/12/2004

The with-profits actuary function

SUP 4.3.16A

An actuary appointed to perform the with-profits actuary function must:

(1) advise the firm's management, at the level of seniority that is reasonably appropriate, on key aspects of the discretion to be exercised affecting those classes of the with-profits business of the firm in respect of which he has been appointed;
(2) where the firm is a realistic basis life firm advise the firm's governing body as to whether the assumptions used to calculate the with-profits insurance component under INSPRU 1.3 are consistent with the firm's PPFM in respect of those classes of the firm's with-profits business;
(3) at least once a year, report to the firm's governing body on key aspects (including those aspects of the firm's application of its Principles and Practices of Financial Management on which the advice described in (1) has been given) of the discretion exercised in respect of the period covered by his report affecting those classes of with-profits business of the firm;
(4) in respect of each financial year, make a written report addressed to the relevant classes of the firm's with-profits policyholders, to accompany the firm's annual report under , COBS 20.4.7 R as to whether, in his opinion and based on the information and explanations provided to him by the firm, and taking into account where relevant the rules and guidance in, COBS 20, the annual report and the discretion exercised by the firm in respect of the period covered by the report may be regarded as taking, or having taken, the interests of the relevant classes of the firm's with-profits policyholders into account in a reasonable and proportionate manner;
(5) request from the firm such information and explanations as he reasonably considers necessary to enable him properly to perform the duties in (1) to (4);
(6) advise the firm as to the data and systems that he reasonably considers necessary to be kept and maintained to provide the duties in (5); and
(7) in the case of a friendly society to which this section applies, perform the function of appropriate actuary under section 12 (Reinsurance) of the Friendly Societies Act 1992 or section 23A (Reinsurance) of the Friendly Societies Act 1974 as applicable, in respect of those classes of its with-profits business covered by his appointment.

01/11/2007

SUP 4.3.16B

In advising or reporting on the exercise of discretion, an actuary performing the with-profits actuary function should cover the implications for the fair treatment of the relevant classes of the firm's with-profits policyholders. His opinion on any communication or report to them should also take into account their information needs and the extent to which the communication or report may be regarded as clear, fair and not misleading. Aspects of the business that should normally be included are:

(1) bonus rates to be applied to policies at maturity or on the death of a policyholder, or when calculating the annual bonus;

(2) investment policy in the light of product descriptions disclosed to customers;

(3) surrender value methodology (including market value adjusters);

(4) new business plans and premium rates;

(5) allocation of expenses to with-profits business;

(6) investment fees to be charged to with-profits business;

(7) changes to the Principles and Practices of Financial Management; and

(8) communications with policyholders or potential policyholders on the issues in (1) to (7).

01/10/2005

SUP 4.3.16C

The reports in SUP 4.3.16AR (3)and SUP 4.3.16AR (4)should be proportionate to the nature of the with-profits business. For smaller firms with fewer products, the extent of reporting would be proportionately less.

01/10/2005

SUP 4.3.16D

Firms should normally obtain advice, from the actuary appointed to perform the with-profits actuary function in respect of the affected class or classes of with-profits business, whenever they are preparing to make key decisions based on the exercise of discretion affecting their with-profits business. Firms should also have risk management processes in place to ensure that all relevant matters are referred to the actuary for advice.

31/12/2004

SUP 4.3.17

A firm must require and allow any actuary appointed to perform the with-profits actuary function to perform his duties and must:

(1) keep him informed of the firm's business and other plans (including, where relevant, those of any related firm, to the extent it is aware of these);

(2) provide him with sufficient resources (including his own time and access to the time of others);

(3) hold such data and establish such systems as he reasonably requires;

(4) request his advice about the likely effect of material changes in the firm's business plans, practices or other circumstances on the fair treatment of the relevant classes of the firm's with-profits policyholders; and

(5) pay due regard to his advice, whether provided in response to a request under (4) or on the actuary's own initiative; this will include, if he requests it, allowing him to present his advice directly to the firm's governing body (that is, the board of directors or, for a friendly society, the committee of management).

31/12/2004

SUP 4.3.18

A firm's duty to keep an actuary appointed to perform the with-profits actuary function informed includes providing relevant information, even where the actuary does not ask for it. The firm needs to appreciate that the actuary may be unaware of certain business developments and so unable to request relevant information.

31/12/2004

SUP 4.4

Appropriate actuaries

01/12/2004

Appointment of an appropriate actuary

SUP 4.4.1

A firm to which this section applies (see SUP 4.1) and required by IPRU(FSOC) 5.2(1) to ensure that an investigation is carried out must:

(1) appoint an actuary (the "appropriate actuary") to carry out the triennial investigation and prepare an abstract of the report as required by IPRU(FSOC) 5.2(2) and provide the interim certificate or statement as required by IPRU(FSOC) 5.2(3); and

(2) appoint a replacement for that actuary if he ceases to hold office before he has carried out the duty described in (1).

21/06/2001

Appropriate actuaries' qualifications

SUP 4.4.2

Before a friendly society appoints an appropriate actuary, it must take reasonable steps to ensure that the actuary is a Fellow of the Institute of Actuaries or of the Faculty of Actuaries.

21/06/2001

SUP 4.4.3

An appropriate actuary should have skills and experience appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of the firm's business and the requirements and standards under the regulatory system to which it is subject. In complying with Principle 3, a firm should have regard to whether its proposed appropriate actuary has adequate qualifications and experience, and seek confirmation of this from the actuary, or the actuary's current and previous employers, as appropriate.

21/06/2001

SUP 4.4.4

A firm must not appoint as appropriate actuary an actuary who has been disqualified by the FSA under section 345 of the Act (Disqualification) from acting as an actuary either for that firm or for a relevant class of firm.

21/06/2001

SUP 4.4.5

If it appears to the FSA that an appropriate actuary has failed to comply with a duty imposed on him under the Act, it may disqualify him under section 345 of the Act. For more detail about what happens when the disqualification of an actuary is being considered or put into effect, see EG 15 (Disqualification of auditors and actuaries). A list of actuaries who have been disqualified by the FSA may be found on the FSA website (www.fsa.gov.uk).

28/08/2007

Specific duties of the appropriate actuary

SUP 4.4.6

An appropriate actuary must carry out the triennial investigation and prepare an abstract of the report as required by IPRU(FSOC) 5.2(2) and provide the interim certificate or statement as required by IPRU(FSOC) 5.2(3).

31/12/2004

SUP 4.5

Provisions applicable to all actuaries

31/12/2004

Objectivity

SUP 4.5.1

An actuary appointed under this chapter must be objective in performing his duties.

31/12/2004

SUP 4.5.2

Objectivity requires the actuary to perform his duties in such a manner that he can have an honest belief in his work and does not compromise the quality of his work or his judgment. An actuary should not allow himself to be placed in situations where he feels unable to make objective professional judgments.

31/12/2004

SUP 4.5.3

An actuary appointed under this chapter must take reasonable steps to satisfy himself that he is free from bias, or from any conflict of interest from which bias may reasonably be inferred. He must take appropriate action where this is not the case.

31/12/2004

SUP 4.5.4

The appropriate action may include asking the firm's governing body to re-assign temporarily some or all of his duties to another competent actuary. Where this is insufficient, the actuary should resign his office.

31/12/2004

SUP 4.5.5

If the actuary is an employee of the firm, the ordinary incentives of employment, including profit-related pay, share options or other financial interests in the firm or any associate, give rise to a conflict of interest only where they are disproportionate, or exceptional, relative to those of other employees of equivalent seniority.

31/12/2004

SUP 4.5.6

The guidance and professional conduct standards in current issue from the Institute of Actuaries and the Faculty of Actuaries are relevant to compliance with SUP 4.5.1 R and SUP 4.5.3 R.

31/12/2004

Actuaries' statutory duty to report

SUP 4.5.7

(1) Actuaries appointed under this chapter made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (Information given by auditor or actuary to the Authority). Section 343 and the regulations also apply to an actuary of an authorised person in his capacity as an actuary of a person with close links with the authorised person.

(2) These regulations oblige actuaries to report certain matters to the FSA. Sections 342(3) and 343(3) of the Act provide that an actuary does not contravene any duty by giving information or expressing an opinion to the FSA, if he is acting in good faith and he reasonably believes that the information or opinion is relevant to any functions of the FSA. These provisions continue to have effect after the end of the actuary's term of appointment.
In relation to Lloyd's, an effect of the insurance market direction set out at SUP 3.1.13 D is that sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (Information given by auditor or actuary to the FSA) apply also to actuaries who are appointed to evaluate the long-term insurance business of a syndicate.

06/05/2009

Termination of term of office

SUP 4.5.8

SUP 4.5.9 R to SUP 4.5.11 G apply to a person who is or has been an actuary appointed under this chapter.

31/12/2004

SUP 4.5.9

An actuary appointed under this chapter must notify the FSA without delay if he:

(1) is removed from office by a firm; or

(2) resigns before his term of office expires; or

(3) is not reappointed by a firm.

31/12/2004

SUP 4.5.10

An actuary who has ceased to be appointed under this chapter, or who has been formally notified that he will cease to be so appointed, must notify the FSA without delay:

(1) of any matter connected with the cessation which he thinks ought to be drawn to the FSA's attention; or

(2) that there is no such matter.

31/12/2004

SUP 4.5.11

When an actuary appointed under SUP 4.3.1 R ceases to hold office, he ceases to perform a controlled function. A firm is therefore required under SUP 10.13.6 R to tell the FSA within seven business days of its actuary ceasing to hold office and to complete a withdrawal form (Form C, SUP 10 Annex 6 R ). Note also the requirement of SUP 10.13.7 R in relation to qualified withdrawals.

31/12/2004

Rights and duties

SUP 4.5.12

Section 341 of the Act (Access to books etc.) provides that an actuary appointed under or as a result of the Act:

(1) has a right of access at all times to the firm's books, accounts and vouchers; and

(2) is entitled to require from the firm's officers such information and explanation as he reasonably considers necessary to perform his duties as actuary.

31/12/2004

SUP 4.5.13

When carrying out his duties, an actuary appointed under this chapter must pay due regard to generally accepted actuarial practice.

31/12/2004

SUP 4.5.14

The standards and guidance issued from time to time by the Institute of Actuariesandthe Faculty of Actuaries are important sources of generally accepted actuarial practice.

31/12/2004

SUP 4.6

Lloyd's

01/01/2005

Appointment of the Lloyd's actuary and syndicate actuaries

SUP 4.6.1

The Society must:

(1) appoint an actuary to perform the Lloyd's actuary function ;

(2) notify the FSA, without delay, when it is aware that a vacancy in the office of Lloyd's actuary will arise or has arisen, giving the reason for the vacancy;

(3) appoint an actuary to fill any vacancy in the office of Lloyd's actuary that has arisen; and

(4) ensure that the replacement actuary can take up office at the time the vacancy arises or as soon as reasonably practicable after that.

01/11/2007

SUP 4.6.2

The functions performed by the actuary appointed as the Lloyd's actuary under SUP 4.6.1 R are specified as controlled functions in SUP 10 (Approved persons). As a result, an application must be made to the FSA under section 60 of the Act (Applications for approval) for approval of the person proposing to take up such an appointment. Section 61(3) of the Act (Determination of applications) gives the FSA three months to grant its approval or give a warning notice that it proposes to refuse the application. An actuary should not be appointed until the FSA has approved the actuary. In order to comply with SUP 4.6.1 R, the Society should ensure it applies to the FSA as soon as practicable before the date when it needs the actuary to take office. The FSA will need time to consider the application before deciding whether to grant approval.

01/01/2005

Qualifications

SUP 4.6.3

Before the Society applies for approval of its proposed appointment of the Lloyd's actuary under SUP 4.6.1 R, it must take reasonable steps to ensure that the actuary:

(1) has the required skill and experience to perform his functions under the regulatory system; and

(2) is a Fellow of the Institute of Actuaries or of the Faculty of Actuaries.

01/01/2005

SUP 4.6.4

To comply with SUP 4.6.3 R and Principle 3, before the Lloyd's actuary takes up his appointment the Society should ensure that the actuary:

(1) has skills and experience appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of the Society's business and the requirements and standards under the regulatory system to which it is subject; and

(2) has adequate qualifications and experience, which includes holding an appropriate practising certificate under the rules of the Institute of Actuaries or the Faculty of Actuaries;

and seek confirmation of these from the actuary, or the actuary's current and previous employers, as appropriate.

01/01/2005

Disqualified actuaries

SUP 4.6.5

The Society must not appoint under SUP 4.6.1 R as Lloyd's actuary an actuary who is disqualified by the FSA under section 345 of the Act (Disqualification) from acting:

(1) as an actuary for the Society; or

(2) as a syndicate actuary; or

(3) as an actuary for any other relevant class of firm.

01/01/2005

SUP 4.6.6

If it appears to the FSA that an actuary has failed to comply with a duty imposed on him under the Act, it may disqualify him under section 345 of the Act. For more detail about what happens when the disqualification of an actuary is being considered or put into effect, see EG 15 . A list of actuaries who are disqualified by the FSAmay be found on the FSA website.

28/08/2007

Conflicts of interest

SUP 4.6.7

The Society must take reasonable steps to ensure that an actuary who is to be, or has been, appointed under SUP 4.6.1 R:

(1) does not perform the function of chairman or chief executive of the Society; and

(2) does not perform any other function on behalf of the Society which could give rise to a significant conflict of interest.

01/01/2005

The Lloyd's actuary function

SUP 4.6.8

An actuary who has been appointed to perform the Lloyd's actuary function must:

(1) prepare the statement required under IPRU(INS) 9.58 (1) to be annexed to the Lloyd's Return; and

(2) take reasonable steps to ensure that the general insurance business technical provisions for each syndicate year have been reviewed by the syndicate actuary and that an appropriate opinion has been obtained under SUP 4.6.15 R; and

(3) where a syndicate actuary's opinion has not been provided, sets appropriate technical provisions and, within six months of the end of the financial year, submits a report to the FSA on the setting of those technical provisions.

01/11/2007

Appointment of syndicate actuaries

SUP 4.6.9

Each managing agent must, in respect of each syndicate it manages:

(1) appoint an actuary (the "syndicate actuary") to carry out the duties described in SUP 4.6.15 R or SUP 4.6.16 R; and

(2) appoint a replacement for that actuary if he ceases to hold office before he has carried out the duties described in SUP 4.6.15 R or SUP 4.6.16 R; and

(3) ensure that the replacement syndicate actuary can take up office at the time the vacancy arises or as soon as reasonably practicable after that.

01/01/2005

SUP 4.6.10

(1) The insurance market direction and guidance set out in SUP 3.1.4 G to SUP 3.1.15 G is relevant to actuaries appointed to report on the insurance business of members.

(2) References in SUP 4, as applied by SUP 4.1.3 R, to a firm include, where appropriate:

(a) a managing agent; and

(b) one or more member carrying on insurance business at Lloyd's policy through a syndicate;

and references to an actuary of a firm should be read accordingly.

01/01/2005

Syndicate actuaries' qualifications

SUP 4.6.11

Before a managing agent appoints a syndicate actuary, it must take reasonable steps to ensure that the syndicate actuary:

(1) has the required skill and experience to perform his duties; and

(2) is a fellow of an actuarial body or (except for a syndicate actuary of a long-term insurance business syndicate) is a fellow of the Casualty Actuarial Society who is a member of an actuarial body.

01/01/2005

SUP 4.6.12

To comply with SUP 4.6.11 R and Principle 3, before a syndicate actuary takes up his appointment a managing agent should ensure that the syndicate actuary:

(1) has skills and experience appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of a syndicate's business and the requirements and standards under the regulatory system applicable to the activities of managing agents in relation to each syndicate which they manage; and

(2) has adequate qualifications and experience, which includes holding an appropriate practising certificate under the rules of the Institute of Actuaries or the Faculty of Actuaries;

and seeks confirmation of these from the syndicate actuary, or the syndicate actuary's current and previous employers, as appropriate.

01/01/2005

Disqualified actuaries

SUP 4.6.13

A managing agent must not appoint under SUP 4.6.9 R as syndicate actuary an actuary who is disqualified by the FSA under section 345 of the Act (Disqualification) from acting:

(1) as a syndicate actuary; or

(2) as a Lloyd's actuary; or

(3) as an actuary for a relevant class of firm.

01/01/2005

SUP 4.6.14

If it appears to the FSA that an actuary has failed to comply with a duty imposed on him under the Act, it may disqualify him under section 345 of the Act. For more detail about what happens when the disqualification of an actuary is being considered or put into effect, see EG 15 . A list of actuaries who are disqualified by the FSAmay be found on the FSA website.

28/08/2007

Duties of syndicate actuaries

SUP 4.6.15

The syndicate actuary of a long-term insurance business syndicate must:

(1) make an investigation at the end of each financial year into the financial condition of the business carried on through each syndicate year (other than a closed year);

(2) make an abstract of his report of the investigation; and

(3) prepare the certificate required under IPRU(INS) 9.58 (3) to be annexed to the Lloyd's Return.

31/12/2006

SUP 4.6.16

The syndicate actuary of a general insurance business syndicate must:

(1) review the technical provisions (both gross and net of reinsurance recoveries) of each syndicate year (other than a closed year); and

(2) provide his opinion confirming that the technical provisions for each syndicate year are no less prudent than his best estimate of the amounts required.

01/01/2005

SUP 4.6.17

If a managing agent becomes aware that the syndicate actuary of a general insurance business syndicate will or may be unable to produce an unqualified opinion under SUP 4.6.16 R, the managing agent must promptly inform the FSA that this is the case.

01/01/2005

SUP 4.6.18

In carrying out his duties a syndicate actuary must pay due regard to generally accepted actuarial best practice.

01/01/2005

SUP 4.6.19

The standards and guidance issued by the Institute of Actuaries and the Faculty of Actuaries are important sources of actuarial best practice.

01/01/2005

SUP 5

Reports by skilled persons

SUP 5.1

Application and purpose

01/12/2004

Application

SUP 5.1.1

(1) This chapter applies to every firm.

(2) The rules, and the guidance on rules in SUP 5.5 (Duties of firms), do not apply to a UCITS qualifier.

21/06/2001

SUP 5.1.2

This chapter (other than the rules, and guidance on rules, in SUP 5.5 (Duties of firms)) is also relevant to certain unauthorised persons within the scope of section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons) (see SUP 5.2.1 G).

21/06/2001

Purpose

SUP 5.1.3

The purpose of this chapter is to give guidance on the FSA's use of the power in section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons). The purpose is also to make rules requiring a firm to include certain provisions in its contract with a skilled person and to give assistance to a skilled person. These rules are designed to ensure that the FSA receives certain information from a skilled person and that a skilled person receives assistance from a firm.

21/06/2001

SUP 5.2

The FSA's power

01/12/2004

Who may be required to provide a report?

SUP 5.2.1

Under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons), the FSA may, by giving a written notice, require any of the following persons to provide it with a report by a skilled person:

(1) a firm;

(2) any other member of the firm's group;

(3) a partnership of which the firm is a member;

(4) a person who has at any relevant time been a person falling within (1), (2) or (3);

but only if the person is, or was at the relevant time, carrying on a business.

21/06/2001

SUP 5.3

Policy on the use of skilled persons

01/12/2004

SUP 5.3.1

The appointment of a skilled person to produce a report under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons) is one of the FSA's regulatory tools. The tool may be used:

(1) for diagnostic purposes, to identify, assess and measure risks;

(2) for monitoring purposes, to track the development of identified risks, wherever these arise;

(3) in the context of preventative action, to limit or reduce identified risks and so prevent them from crystallising or increasing; and

(4) for remedial action, to respond to risks when they have crystallised.

SUP 5 Annex 1 gives examples of circumstances in which the FSA may use the skilled persons tool.

21/06/2001

SUP 5.3.2

The decision to require a report by a skilled personwill normally be prompted by a specific requirement for information, analysis of information, assessment of a situation, expert advice or recommendations or by a decision to seek assurance in relation to a regulatory return. It may be part of the risk mitigation programme applicable to a firm, or the result of an event or development relating or relevant to a firm, prompted by a need for verification of information provided to the FSA or part of the FSA's regular monitoring of a firm.

31/12/2007

SUP 5.3.3

When making the decision to require a report by a skilled person, the FSA will have regard, on a case-by-case basis, to all relevant factors. Those are likely to include:

(1) circumstances relating to the firm;

(2) alternative tools available, including other statutory powers;

(3) legal and procedural considerations;

(4) the objectives of the FSA's enquiries;

(5) cost considerations; and

(6) considerations relating to FSA resources.

SUP 5.3.4 G to SUP 5.3.10 G give further guidance on these listed factors.

21/06/2001

Circumstances relating to the firm

SUP 5.3.4

The FSA will have regard to circumstances relating to the firm, for example:

(1) attitude of the firm: whether the firm is being cooperative;

(2) history of similar issues: whether similar issues have arisen in the past and, if so, whether timely corrective action was taken;

(3) quality of a firm's systems and records: whether the FSA has confidence that the firm has the ability to provide the required information;

(4) objectivity: whether the FSA has confidence in the firm's willingness and ability to deliver an objective report;

(5) conflicts of interest: whether the subject matter of the enquiries or the report involves actual or potential misconduct and it would be inappropriate for the FSA to rely on the firm itself to enquire into the matter; and

(6) knowledge or expertise available to the firm: whether it would be appropriate to involve a third party with the required technical expertise.

21/06/2001

Alternative tools available, including other statutory powers

SUP 5.3.5

The FSA will have regard to alternative tools that may be available, including for example:

(1) obtaining what is required without using specific statutory powers (for example, by a visit by FSA staff or a request for information on an informal basis);

(2) requiring information from firms and others, including authorising an agent to require information, under section 165 of the Act (Authority's power to require information);

(3) appointing investigators to carry out general investigations under section 167 of the Act (Appointment of persons to carry out general investigations) (see EG 3 for the FSA's policy on the use of this power); and

(4) appointing investigators to carry out investigations in particular cases under section 168 of the Act (Appointment of persons to carry out investigations in particular cases) (see EG 3 for the FSA's policy on the use of this power).

28/08/2007

Legal and procedural considerations

SUP 5.3.6

The FSA will have regard to legal and procedural considerations including:

(1) statutory powers: whether one of the other available statutory powers is more appropriate for the purpose than the power in section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons);

(2) subsequent proceedings: whether it is desirable to obtain an authoritative and independent report for use in any subsequent proceedings; and

(3) application of the Handbook rules: whether it is important that the relevant rules in the Handbook should apply, for example SUP 5.5.1 R which obliges the firm to require and permit the skilled person to report specified matters to the FSA.

21/06/2001

The objectives of the FSA's enquiries

SUP 5.3.7

The FSA will have regard to the objectives of its enquiries, and the relative effectiveness of its available powers to achieve those objectives. For example:

(1) historic information or evidence: if the objectives are limited to gathering historic information, or evidence for determining whether enforcement action may be appropriate, the FSA's information gathering and investigation powers under sections 165 (Authority's power to require information), 167 (Appointment of persons to carry out general investigations) and 168 (Appointment of persons to carry out investigations in particular cases) of the Act are likely to be more appropriate than the section 166 power (Reports by skilled persons); and

(2) expert analysis or recommendations: if the objectives include obtaining expert analysis or recommendations (or both) for diagnostic, monitoring, preventative or remedial purposes, the section 166 power (Reports by skilled persons) may be an appropriate power to use, instead of, or in conjunction with, the FSA's other available powers.

21/06/2001

Cost considerations

SUP 5.3.8

In accordance with its general policy the FSA will have regard to the question of cost, which is particularly pertinent in relation to skilled persons because:

(1) if the FSA uses the section 166 power (Reports by skilled persons) the firm will appoint, and will have to pay for the services of, the skilled person;

(2) if the FSA uses its other information gathering and investigation powers, it will either authorise or appoint its own staff to undertake the information gathering or investigation (or both), or it will pay for the services of external competent persons to do so; in either case the costs will be recovered under the FSA's general fee scheme.

21/06/2001

SUP 5.3.9

In having regard to the cost implications of using the section 166 power (Reports by skilled persons) alternative options (such as visits) or other powers, the FSA will take into account relevant factors, including:

(1) whether the firm may derive some benefit from the work carried out and recommendations made by the skilled person, for instance a better understanding of its business and its risk profile, or the operation of its information systems, or improvements to its systems and controls;

(2) whether the work to be carried out by the skilled person is work that should reasonably have been carried out by the firm, or by persons instructed by the firm on its own initiative; for instance a compliance review or the development of new systems;

(3) whether the firm's record-keeping and management information systems are poor and:

(a) the required information and documents are not readily available; or

(b) an analysis of the required information cannot readily be performed without expert assistance;

(4) whether the firm appears to have breached requirements or standards under the regulatory system or otherwise put the interests of consumers at risk, and it is unable or unwilling to review and remedy the matters of concern, or the FSA considers that it cannot rely on the firm to do so; and

(5) the perceived probability and seriousness of possible breaches of regulatory requirements and the possible need for further action.

21/06/2001

Considerations relating to FSA resources

SUP 5.3.10

The FSA will have regard to FSA -related considerations including:

(1) FSA expertise: whether the FSA has the necessary expertise; and

(2) FSA resources: whether the resources required to produce a report or to make enquiries are available within the FSA , or whether the exercise will be the best use of the FSA's resources at the time.

21/06/2001

SUP 5.4

Appointment and reporting process

01/12/2004

Scope of report

SUP 5.4.1

The FSA will send a notice in writing requiring the person in SUP 5.2.1 G to provide a report by a skilled person on any matter if it is reasonably required in connection with the exercise of its functions conferred by or under the Act. The FSA may require the report to be in whatever form it specifies in the notice (SUP 5 Annex 2 summarises the appointment and reporting processes).

21/06/2001

SUP 5.4.2

As part of the decision making process the FSA will normally contact the person in SUP 5.2.1 G to discuss its needs before finalising its decision to require a report by a skilled person. This will provide an opportunity for discussion about the appointment, whether an alternative means of obtaining the information would be better, what the scope of a report should be, who should be appointed, and the likely cost.

21/06/2001

SUP 5.4.3

The FSA will give written notification to the person in SUP 5.2.1 G of the purpose of the report, its scope, the timetable for completion and any other relevant matters. The FSA will state the matters which the report is to contain as well as any requirements as to the report's format. For example, a report on controls may be required to address key risks, key controls and the control environment. The FSA attaches importance to there being a timetable for each report and to the skilled person, with the cooperation of the person in SUP 5.2.1 G, keeping to that timetable.

21/06/2001

SUP 5.4.4

The written notification in SUP 5.4.3 G may be preceded or followed by a discussion of the FSA's requirements and the reasons for them. This may involve the FSA, the person in SUP 5.2.1 G and the person who has been, or is expected to be, appointed as the skilled person. The FSA recognises that there will normally be value in holding discussions involving the skilled person at this stage. These discussions may include others if appropriate.

21/06/2001

SUP 5.4.5

The FSA will wish to conduct the discussion with the firm, its skilledperson and any others within a timescale appropriate to the circumstances of the case.

21/06/2001

Appointment process

SUP 5.4.6

The skilled person is appointed by the person in SUP 5.2.1 G. The FSA will normally seek to agree in advance with the person in SUP 5.2.1 Gthe skilled person who will make the report. The Act requires that the skilled person be nominated or approved by the FSA:

(1) if the FSA decides to nominate the skilled person who is to make the report, it will notify the person in SUP 5.2.1 G accordingly; and

(2) alternatively, if the FSA is content to approve a skilled person selected by the person in SUP 5.2.1 G, it will notify the latter person of that fact.

The FSA may give the person in SUP 5.2.1 G a shortlist from which to choose.

21/06/2001

SUP 5.4.7

A skilled person must appear to the FSA to have the skills necessary to make a report on the matter concerned. A skilled person may be an accountant, lawyer, actuary or person with relevant business, technical or technological skills.

21/06/2001

SUP 5.4.8

When considering whether to nominate or approve a skilled person to make a report, the FSA will have regard to the circumstances of the case, including whether the proposed skilledperson appears to have:

(1) the skills necessary to make a report on the matter concerned;

(2) the ability to complete the report within the time expected by the FSA;

(3) any relevant specialised knowledge, for instance of the person in SUP 5.2.1 G, the type of business carried on by the person in SUP 5.2.1 G, or the matter to be reported on;

(4) any professional difficulty or potential conflict of interest in reviewing the matters to be reported on, for instance because the matters to be reported on may involve questions reflecting on the quality or reliability of work previously carried out by the proposed skilled person; and

(5) enough detachment, bearing in mind the closeness of an existing professional or commercial relationship, to give an objective opinion on matters such as:

(a) matters already reported on by the skilled person (for example, on the financial statements of the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or in relation to their systems and controls);

(b) matters that are likely to be contentious and may result in disciplinary or other enforcement action against the person in SUP 5.2.1 G, its management, shareholders or controllers; or

(c) matters that the skilled person has been involved in, in another capacity (for example, when a skilled person has been involved in developing an information system it may not be appropriate for him to provide a subsequent opinion on the adequacy of the system).

21/06/2001

SUP 5.4.9

In appropriate circumstances, it may be cost effective for the FSA to nominate or approve the appointment of a skilled person who has previously acted for, or advised, the person in SUP 5.2.1 G. For example, the FSA may nominate, or approve the appointment of, the auditor of a person in SUP 5.2.1 G to prepare a report taking into account, where relevant, the considerations set out in SUP 5.4.7 G.

21/06/2001

Reporting process

SUP 5.4.10

The FSA will normally require the person in SUP 5.2.1 G to appoint the skilled person to report to the FSA through that person. In the normal course of events the FSA expects that the person in SUP 5.2.1 G will be given the opportunity to provide written comments on the report prior to its submission to the FSA (SUP 5 Annex 2 summarises the reporting process).

21/06/2001

SUP 5.4.11

The FSA may enter into a dialogue with the skilled person, and is ready to discuss matters relevant to the report with him, during the preparation of the report. Such discussions will normally involve or be through the person in SUP 5.2.1 G.

21/06/2001

SUP 5.4.12

The FSA will normally specify a time limit within which it expects the skilled person to deliver the report. The skilled person should, in complying with its contractual duty under SUP 5.5.1 R, take reasonable steps to achieve delivery by that time. If the skilled person becomes aware that the report may not be delivered on time, he should inform the FSA and the person in SUP 5.2.1 G as soon as possible. If the skilled person becomes aware that there may be difficulties delivering the report within cost estimates, he will no doubt wish to advise the firm.

21/06/2001

SUP 5.4.13

The FSA may meet with the person in SUP 5.2.1 G and the skilled person together to discuss the final report. The FSA may also wish to discuss the final report with the skilled person present but without the person in SUP 5.2.1 G.

21/06/2001

SUP 5.5

Duties of firms

01/12/2004

Contract with the skilled person

SUP 5.5.1

When a firm appoints a skilled person to provide a report under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons), the firm must, in a contract with the skilled person:

(1) require and permit the skilled person during and after the course of his appointment:

(a) to cooperate with the FSA in the discharge of its functions under the Act in relation to the firm; and

(b) to communicate to the FSA information on, or his opinion on, matters of which he has, or had, become aware in his capacity as skilled person reporting on the firm in the following circumstances:

(i) the skilled person reasonably believes that, as regards the firm concerned (A) there is or has been, or may be or may have been, a contravention of any relevant requirement that applies to the firm concerned; and (B) that the contravention may be of material significance to the FSA in determining whether to exercise, in relation to the firm concerned, any functions conferred on the FSA by or under any provision of the Act other than Part VI. (Official Listing); or

(ii) the skilled person reasonably believes that the information on, or his opinion on, those matters may be of material significance to the FSA in determining whether the firm concerned satisfies and will continue to satisfy the threshold conditions; or

(iii) the skilled person reasonably believes that firm is not, may not be or may cease to be a going concern;

(2) require the skilled person to prepare a report, as notified to the firm by the FSA, within the time specified by the FSA; and

(3) waive any duty of confidentiality owed by the skilled person to the firm which might limit the provision of information or opinion by that skilled person to the FSA in accordance with (1) or (2). (See also SUP 5.5.13 G and SUP 5.6)

21/06/2001

SUP 5.5.2

In complying with the contractual duty in SUP 5.5.1 R (1) the FSA expects that a skilled person appointed under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons) will cooperate with the FSA by, amongst other things, providing information or documentation about the planning and progress of the report and its findings and conclusions, if requested to do so. A firm should therefore ensure that the contract it makes with the skilled person requires and permits the skilled person to provide the following to the FSA if requested to do so:

(1) interim reports;

(2) source data, documents and working papers;

(3) copies of any draft reports given to the firm; and

(4) specific information about the planning and progress of the work to be undertaken (which may include project plans, progress reports including percentage of work completed, details of time spent, costs to date, and details of any significant findings and conclusions).

21/06/2001

SUP 5.5.3

If the FSA is considering asking for the information specified in SUP 5.5.2 G it will take into consideration the cost of the skilled person complying with the request, and the benefit that the FSA may derive from the information. For example, in most cases, the FSA will not need to request a skilled person to give it source data, documents and working papers. However, the FSA may do so when it reasonably believes that this information will be relevant to any investigation it may be conducting, or any action it may need to consider taking against the firm.

21/06/2001

SUP 5.5.4

In complying with the contractual duty in SUP 5.5.1 R, the FSA expects that, in the case of substantial or complex reports, the skilled person will give a periodic update on progress and issues to allow for a re-focusing of the report if necessary. The channel of communication would normally be directly between the skilled person and the FSA . However, the FSA would also expect firms normally to be informed about the passage of information, and the skilled person would usually be expected to keep the firm informed of any communication between the skilled person and the FSA.

21/06/2001

SUP 5.5.5

A firm must ensure that the contract required by SUP 5.5.1 R:

(1) is governed by the laws of a part of the United Kingdom;

(2) expressly

(a) provides that the FSA has a right to enforce the provisions included in the contract under SUP 5.5.1 R and SUP 5.5.5 R (2);

(b) provides that, in proceedings brought by the FSA for the enforcement of those provisions, the skilled person is not to have available by way of defence, set-off or counterclaim any matter that is not relevant to those provisions;

(c) (if the contract includes an arbitration agreement) provides that the FSA is not, in exercising the right in (a), to be treated as a party to, or bound by, the arbitration agreement; and

(d) provides that the provisions included in the contract under SUP 5.5.1 R and SUP 5.5.5 R (2) are irrevocable and may not be varied or rescinded without the FSA's consent; and

(3) is not varied or rescinded in such a way as to extinguish or alter the provisions referred to in (2)(d).

21/06/2001

SUP 5.5.6

The Contracts (Rights of Third Parties) Act 1999, or Scots common law, enables the FSA to enforce the rights conferred on it under the contract against the skilled person.

21/06/2001

SUP 5.5.7

If the FSA considers it appropriate, it may request the firm to give it a copy of the draft contract before it is made with the skilled person. The FSA will inform the firm of any matters that it considers require further clarification or discussion before the contract is finalised.

21/06/2001

SUP 5.5.8

The FSA expects the firm, in complying with Principle 11, to give the FSA information about the cost of the skilled persons report. This may include both an initial estimate of the cost as well as the cost of the completed report. This information is required to help inform the FSA's decision making in the choice of regulatory tools. Information about the number and cost of reports by skilled persons will be published by the FSA.

21/06/2001

Assisting the skilled person

SUP 5.5.9

A firm must provide all reasonable assistance to any skilled person appointed to provide a report under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons).

21/06/2001

SUP 5.5.10

In providing reasonable assistance under SUP 5.5.9 R, a firm should take reasonable steps to ensure that, when reasonably required by the skilled person, each of its appointed representativesor, where applicable, tied agentswaives any duty of confidentiality and provides reasonable assistance as though SUP 5.5.1 R (3) and SUP 5.5.9 R applied directly to the appointed representative or tied agent.

01/11/2007

SUP 5.5.11

Reasonable assistance in SUP 5.5.9 R should include:

(1) access at all reasonable business hours for the skilled person to the firm's accounting and other records in whatever form;

(2) providing such information and explanations as the skilled person reasonably considers necessary or desirable for the performance of his duties; and

(3) permitting a skilled person to obtain such information directly from the firm's auditor as he reasonably considers necessary or desirable for the proper performance of his duties.

21/06/2001

Responsibility for delivery

SUP 5.5.12

In complying with Principle 11, a firm is expected to take reasonable steps to ensure that a skilled person delivers a report in accordance with the terms of his appointment.

21/06/2001

Assistance to skilled persons from others

SUP 5.5.13

Section 166(5) of the Act (Authority's power to require information) imposes a duty on certain persons to give assistance to a skilled person. The persons on whom this duty is imposed are those who are providing, or have at any time provided, services to any person falling within SUP 5.2.1 G. They include suppliers under material outsourcing arrangements.

21/06/2001

SUP 5.6

Confidential information and privilege

01/12/2004

Confidential information

SUP 5.6.1

Within the legal constraints that apply, the FSA may pass on to a skilled person any information which it considers relevant to the skilled person's function. A skilled person, being a primary recipient under section 348 of the Act (Restrictions on disclosure of confidential information by Authority etc.), is bound by the confidentiality provisions in Part XXIII of the Act (Public record, disclosure of information and cooperation) as regards confidential information he receives from the FSA or directly from a firm or other person. A skilled person may not pass on confidential information without lawful authority, for example, where an exception applies under the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Disclosure of Confidential Information) Regulations 2001 (SI 2001/2188) or with the consent of the person from whom that information was received and (if different) to whom the information relates. The FSA will indicate to a skilled person if there is any matter which cannot be discussed with the person in SUP 5.2.1 G

21/06/2001

Banking confidentiality and legal privilege

SUP 5.6.2

The limitations in the following sections of the Act are relevant to this chapter:

(1) section 175(5) (Information and documents: supplemental provisions) under which a person may be required under Part XI of the Act (Information Gathering and Investigations) to disclose information or produce a document subject to banking confidentiality (with exceptions); and

(2) section 413 (Protected items), under which no person may be required to produce, disclose or allow the inspection of protected items.

21/06/2001

SUP 5 Annex 1

Examples of when the FSA may use the skilled person tool (This Annex belongs to SUP 5.3.1G)

01/12/2004

Toolkit purpose

Purpose for use of tool

Examples of reasons for use of tool

Diagnostic

• To find out more about a concern (e.g. the result of a visit, risk assessment, or notification) and determine whether action is needed to mitigate a risk to the regulatory objectives or to determine whether there may have been a breach of a rule or of a threshold condition.
• To assess the implications of, and firm's* response to, a change of circumstances e.g.
- proposed entry into new business area;
- new control structure;
- merger or take-over;
- new IT system; or
- launch of an E-Commerce venture.

• Concern about effectiveness of the firm's* internal audit department.
• Concern about reliability of submitted financial returns.
• Inability of a firm* to quantify its current financial position.
• Assessment of consequences of incomplete customer files.
• Concern about quality of systems and controls.
• Indication of financial crime or money laundering.
• Concern about a firm's* controller.
• Assessment of control structure when a bank (specialising in consumer lending) diversifies into commercial lending.

Diagnostic/monitoring

• To verify information provided to the FSA.

• Verification of a specific return to give the FSA assurance of the quality of information provided.

Monitoring

• To review systems and controls
• To complement baseline monitoring

• Assessment of systems and controls in firms* where identified as a risk mitigation priority.
• In-depth review of part of a firm* which is material to the firm's risk profile but of which the FSA does not consider it has an adequate, up-to-date understanding.

Preventative

• To gather and analyse information on an identified risk and develop recommendations for resolution.

Review of identified control weaknesses over client money to obtain recommendations to ensure compliance with the relevant rules.

Remedial

• To assist in the design of a customer redress programme.
• To assist in the design of a remedial action plan.
• To oversee and report on remedial action plan.

• Where possible, the FSA has identified possible losses from failure to reconcile assets or from mis-posting of transactions to the general ledger.
• To report on quality of work undertaken and adherence to milestones in the action plan.

* or, where applicable, the other persons in SUP 5.2.1 G.

21/06/2001

SUP 5 Annex 2

An overview of the appointment and report development process

01/12/2004

An overview of the appointment and report development process

21/06/2001

SUP 6

Applications to vary and cancel Part IV permission

SUP 6.1

Application and purpose

01/12/2004

Application

SUP 6.1.1

This chapter applies to every firm with a Part IV permission which wishes to:

(1) vary its Part IV permission; or

(2) cancel its Part IV permission and end its authorisation.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.1.2

If appropriate, a firm which is an authorised fund manager should also refer to COLL 7 for guidance on the termination of ICVCs and AUTs and on winding up authorised funds that are not commercially viable.

01/04/2009

SUP 6.1.3

This chapter applies to an incoming firm or a UCITS qualifier only in respect of a top-up permission. An incoming firm or a UCITS qualifier should refer to SUP 14 (Variation of passport rights by incoming EEA firms and ending authorisation) for the procedures for changes to permission granted under Schedules 3, 4 or 5 of the Act.

21/06/2001

Purpose

SUP 6.1.4

This chapter explains:

(1) how a firm with Part IV permission can apply to the FSA to vary that permission;

(2) how a firm which has ceased to carry on any of the regulated activities for which it has Part IV permission, or which expects to do so in the short term (normally less than six months), should apply to the FSA to cancel that permission completely;

(3) the additional procedures that apply to a firm carrying on regulated activities which create long term obligations to customers (for example, effecting contracts of insurance, carrying out contracts of insurance or accepting deposits) that needs to wind down (run off) its business over a long term period (normally more than six months) and the applications it should make with a view to ultimately cancelling its permission; and

(4) how the FSA assesses those applications.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.1.5

This chapter also outlines the FSA's powers to withdraw authorisation from a firm whose Part IV permission has been cancelled at the firm's request. It does not, however, cover the FSA's use of its own-initiative powers to vary or cancel a firm's Part IV permission (see SUP 7 (Individual requirements) and EG 8 (Variation and cancellation of permission on the FSA's own initiative and intervention against incoming firms)).

28/08/2007

SUP 6.2

Introduction

01/12/2004

SUP 6.2.1

A firm authorised under Part IV of the Act (Permission to carry on regulated activity) has a single Part IV permission granted by the FSA. A firm's Part IV permission specifies all or some of the following elements (see PERG 2 Annex 2 (Regulated activities and the permission regime) and the FSA website "How do I get authorised": http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml):

(1) a description of the activities the firm may carry on, including any limitations;

(2) the specified investments involved; and

(3) if appropriate, requirements.

06/10/2007

SUP 6.2.2

Under section 20(1) of the Act (Authorised persons acting without permission), a firm is prohibited from carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom (or purporting to do so) otherwise than in accordance with its permission.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.2.3

If a firm wishes to change its Part IV permission, it can apply to the FSA under section 44 of the Act (Variation etc. at request of authorised person) for a variation or cancellation of its Part IV permission. SUP 6.2.5 G sets out the differences between these types of application and the circumstances in which they should be made and SUP 6 Annex 1 gives an overview of the considerations in these cases.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.2.4

A firm intending to expand its business should assess, taking appropriate professional advice where necessary, whether it will need to apply to the FSA to vary its Part IV permission before making any changes to its business.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.2.4A

If a firm intends to transfer its business to a different legal entity (for example, the business is to be transferred from a sole trader to a partnership or the other way around) it will need to apply to the FSA for cancellation of its Part IV permission and the entity to which the business is to be transferred will need to apply for a Part IV permission.

01/08/2005

SUP 6.2.5

Variation and cancellation of Part IV permission. See ofSUP 6.2.3 G

Question

Variation of Part IV permission

Cancellation of Part IV permission

What does the application apply to?

Individual elements of a firm's Part IV permission. Variations may involve adding or removing categories of regulated activity or specified investments or varying or removing any limitations or requirements in the firm's Part IV permission.

A firm's entire Part IV permission and not individual elements within it.

In what circumstances is it usually appropriate to make an application?

If a firm:
1. wishes to change the regulated activities it carries on in the United Kingdom under a Part IV permission (SUP 6.3); or
2. has the ultimate intention of ceasing carrying on regulated activities but due to the nature of those regulated activities (for example, accepting deposits, or insurance business) it will require a long term (normally over six months) to wind down (run off) its business (see SUP 6.2.8 G to SUP 6.2.11 G and SUP 6 Annex 4).

If a firm:
1. has ceased to carry on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part IV permission (SUP 6.4); or
2. wishes or expects to cease carrying on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part IV permission in the short term (normally not more than six months). In this case, the firm may apply to cancel its Part IV permission prior to ceasing the regulated activities (see SUP 6.4.3 G).

Where do I find a summary of the application procedures?

See SUP 6 Annex 2 .

See SUP 6 Annex 3.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.2.6

A firm which is seeking to:

(1) vary its Part IV permission substantially; or

(2) cancel its Part IV permission;

should discuss its plans with its usual supervisory contact at the FSA as early as possible before making an application, in order to comply with Principle 11 (see SUP 15.3.7 G (Notifications to the FSA)). These discussions will help the FSA and the firm to agree the correct approach for the firm.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.2.7

If a firm intends to cease carrying on one or more regulated activities permanently, it should give prompt notice to the FSA to comply with Principle 11 (see SUP 15.3.8 G (1)(d)). A firm should consider whether it needs to notify the FSA before applying to vary or cancel its Part IV permission.

21/06/2001

Firms with long term liabilities to customers

SUP 6.2.8

Discussions with the FSA are particularly relevant where the firm has to discharge obligations to its customers or policyholders before it can cease carrying on a regulated activity. This may be the case, for example, where the firm is an insurer, a bank a dormant account fund operator, or, as is often the case, holding client money or customer assets.

06/08/2009

SUP 6.2.9

If an insurer , a bank, or a dormant account fund operator wishes to cease carrying on all regulated activities for which it has Part IV permission, it will usually be necessary to wind down the business over a long term period which is normally more than six months. This may also be the case for a firm holding client money or customer assets. In these circumstances, it will usually be appropriate for the firm to apply for variation of its Part IV permission before commencing the wind-down. A firm should only make an application for cancellation of permission when it expects to complete its wind-down (run-off) within six months.

06/08/2009

SUP 6.2.10

A firm which is winding down (running off) its activities should contact its usual supervisory contact at the FSA to discuss its circumstances. The FSA will discuss the firm's winding down plans and the need for the firm to vary or cancel its Part IV permission. Following these discussions, an application for variation or cancellation of Part IV permission, as appropriate, should usually be made by the firm, although, in certain circumstances, the FSA may use its own-initiative powers under section 45 of the Act (Variation etc. on the FSA's own initiative) (see SUP 7 and EG 8 (Variation and cancellation of permission on the FSA's own initiative and intervention against incoming firms)).

28/08/2007

SUP 6.2.11

(1) Specific guidance on the additional procedures for a firm winding down (running off) its business in the circumstances discussed in SUP 6.2.8 G is in SUP 6 Annex 4.

(2) The guidance in SUP 6 Annex 4 applies to any firm that is applying for variation of Part IV permission before it applies for cancellation of Part IV permission to enable it to wind down (run off) its business over a long term period of six months of more. It will apply to most insurers and banks and, in some circumstances,as advised by the FSA, to firms holding client money or customer assets.

(3) If a firm wishes to cease carrying on some of its regulated activities, or the specified investments in respect of which the activities are carried on, the FSA may consider it appropriate for the firm to comply with the additional procedures in SUP 6 Annex 4. This would depend on the scale and nature of the regulated activities concerned. This might be the case, for example, if the firm is ceasing a significant part of its business in respect of which it has outstanding obligations to customers and the FSA believes that the additional procedures would protect consumers.

21/06/2001

UK firms exercising EEA or Treaty rights

SUP 6.2.12

A UK firm should assess the effect of any change to its Part IV permission on its ability to continue to exercise any EEA right or Treaty right and discuss any concerns with its usual supervisory contact at the FSA. A variation of Part IV permission may also change the applicable provisions with which it is required to comply by a Host State.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.2.13

A UK firm which, as well as applying to vary or cancel its Part IV permission, wishes to vary or terminate any business which it is carrying on in another EEA State under one of the Single Market Directives, should follow the procedures in SUP 13 (Exercise of passport rights by UK firms) on varying or terminating its branch or cross border services business.

21/06/2001

The Lloyd's market

SUP 6.2.14

A firm making an application to vary or cancel its Part IV permission which requires any approval from the Society of Lloyd's should apply to the Society for this at the same time as applying to the FSA for the variation or cancellation. See SUP 6 Annex 4 for additional procedures.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.3

Applications for variation of permission

01/12/2004

What is a variation of permission?

SUP 6.3.1

Under section 44 of the Act, a firm may apply to the FSA to vary its Part IV permission to:

(1) allow it to carry on further regulated activities; or

(2) reduce the number of regulated activities it is permitted to carry on; or

(3) vary the FSA's description of its regulated activities (including by the removal or variation of any limitations); or

(4) cancel any requirement applied for by the firm or imposed by the FSA under section 43 of the Act (Imposition of requirements); or

(5) vary any such requirement.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.3.2

An application for variation of Part IV permission may include one or more of SUP 6.3.1 G(1)-(5). For example, a firm may apply to vary its Part IV permission to add a new regulated activity and at the same time remove a regulated activity for which it currently has permission.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.3.3

In applying for a variation of Part IV permission, a branch of a firm from outside the EEA should be mindful of any continuing requirements referred to in the rest of the Handbook.

06/10/2007

Applications to add additional regulated activities

SUP 6.3.4

In determining the activities and specified investments for which a Part IV permission is required, and whether to apply for a variation of that permission, a firm may need to take professional advice and may also wish to discuss this with its usual supervisory contact at the FSA.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.3.5

Before applying to vary its permission, a firm should determine whether there are any statutory restrictions that do not allow combinations of certain types of regulated activity, particularly for insurance business or UCITS managers. For example, the FSA will not grant a variation of Part IV permission to allow a friendly society to carry on reinsurance business as this is not permitted under the Friendly Societies Acts 1974 and 1992. A firm should discuss its plans with its usual supervisory contact at the FSA.

06/10/2007

SUP 6.3.6

If a firm is seeking a variation of Part IV permission to add categories of regulated activities, it should be mindful of the directive requirements referred to at SUP 6.3.42 G relating to the need to commence new activities within 12 months.

21/06/2001

Applications to remove certain regulated activities

SUP 6.3.7

If a firm wishes to cease carrying on an activity for which it has Part IV permission, it will usually apply to vary its Part IV permission to remove that activity. If a firm wishes to cease carrying on an activity in relation to any specified investment, it will usually apply to vary its Part IV permission to remove that specified investment from the relevant activity.

21/06/2001

How a variation of permission may affect the firm's approved persons

SUP 6.3.8

(1) Where a firm is submitting an application for variation of Part IV permission which would lead to a change in the controlled functions of its approved persons, it should, at the same time and as appropriate:

(a) make an application to the FSA for an internal transfer of an approved person, Form E (Internal transfer), or make an application to the FSA for an individual to perform additional controlled functions, the relevant Form A (Application); see SUP 10.13.3 D to SUP 10.13.5 G;

(b) notify the FSA of any approved person who has ceased to perform a controlled function, Form C (Ceasing to perform controlled functions); see SUP 10.13.6 R to SUP 10.13.13 G.

(2) If the firm intends to recruit new individuals to perform controlled functions, it should apply to the FSA for approval of the individuals as approved persons as soon as possible using Form A (Application); see SUP 10.12.

01/11/2007

How a variation of permission may change a firm's prudential category

SUP 6.3.9

A variation of Part IV permission may, in some cases, lead to a change in a firm's prudential category or sub-category (see SUP App 1). For example, an investment management firm which varies its Part IV permission to include accepting deposits and as a result meets the definition of a bank, would move to the prudential category for a bank (see SUP App 1.3.1 G).

21/06/2001

SUP 6.3.10

Even if a variation of permission does not itself lead to a change in a firm's prudential category or sub-category, the FSA may use its own-initiative powers to require a firm to comply with a different category or sub-category of prudential rules where it considers this to be appropriate. For details of when and how the FSA may use its own-initiative powers in this context, see SUP 7.

21/06/2001

Variation of permission involving insurance business

SUP 6.3.11

A firm with Part IV permission to carry on insurance business, which is applying for a variation of its Part IV permission to add further insurance activities or specified investments, will be required to submit particular information on its existing activities as part of its application. This includes the scheme of operations which is required to be submitted as part of the application pack (for further details on the scheme of operations, see SUP App 2 (Insurers: scheme of operations)).

21/06/2001

SUP 6.3.12

In applying to vary its Part IV permission to add categories of specified investments, in relation to insurance business, a firm carrying on insurance business will need to determine the classes of specified investments relating to effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance for which variation of Part IV permission will be necessary, having regard to whether certain classes of contract may qualify to be effected or carried out on an ancillary or supplementary basis (see SUP 3.12.6G to SUP 3.12.12G).

21/06/2001

SUP 6.3.13

The application for variation of Part IV permission will need to provide information about the classes of contract of insurance for which variation of Part IV permission is requested and also those classes qualifying to be carried on, on an ancillary or supplementary basis. For example, an insurer applying to vary its permission to include class 10 (motor vehicle liability, other than carrier's liability) must satisfy the FSA that it will meet, and continue to meet, threshold condition2A(Appointment of claims representatives). Firms should note that, although the FSA is able in principle to use its power to give Part IV permission for an applicant to carry on a regulated activity for which it did not originally apply, this is not possible under the Insurance Directives, which set out minimum information requirements for an application for authorisation including information on the specified investments the applicant proposes to deal in.

06/10/2007

SUP 6.3.14

(1) A firm carrying on insurance business which is seeking to cease such business in respect of one or more classes of specified investment, but which is not intending to cease all insurance business, should apply to vary its Part IV permission to remove the activity of effecting contracts of insurance in respect of those specified investments in relation to which it no longer wishes to carry on business. A firm intending to cease all insurance business should refer to SUP 6 Annex 4.

(2) If the application for variation of Part IV permission is granted by the FSA, the firm will have Part IV permission only to carry out contracts of insurance in respect of the specified investments in relation to which it no longer wishes to carry on business (see SUP 6 Annex 4). This will allow the firm to run off this aspect of its business. When the business in question has been run-off completely, the firm should then apply to vary its Part IV permission to remove the relevant classes of specified investment.

21/06/2001

The application for variation of permission

SUP 6.3.15

(1) A firm other than a credit union wishing to vary its Part IV permissionmust apply online at www.fsa.gov.uk using the form specified on the FSA's ONA system.
(2) A credit union wishing to vary its Part IV permission must apply using the form in SUP 6 Ann 5D and submit its application in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).
(3) Until the application has been determined, a firm which submits an application for variation of Part IV permission must inform the FSA of any significant change to the information given in the application immediately it becomes aware of the change.
(4) Where a firm is obliged to submit any form, notice or application online under (1), if the FSA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, until such time as facilities for online submission are restored a firm must submit any form, notice or application by using the form in SUP 6 Ann 5D and submitting it in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).

04/10/2010

SUP 6.3.15A

(1) If the FSA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FSA will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that online submission is unavailable and that the alternative methods of submission set out in SUP 6.3.15 D (4) and SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification) should be used.

(2) Where SUP 6.3.15 D (4) applies to a firm, GEN 1.3.2 R (Emergency) does not apply.

04/10/2010

SUP 6.3.16

(1) Section 51(2) of the Act (Applications under this Part) requires that the application for variation of Part IV permission must contain a statement:

(a) of the desired variation; and

(b) of the regulated activity or regulated activities which the firm proposes to carry on if its permission is varied.

(2) The full form and content of the application for variation of Part IV permission is a matter for direction by the FSA, who will determine the additional information and documentation required on a case by case basis.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.3.17

(1) [deleted]

(2) A firm is advised to discuss its application with its usual supervisory contact at the FSA before submission, particularly if it is seeking a variation of permission within a short timescale. A firm is also advised to include as much detail as possible (including any additional information identified by its supervisors at this stage) with its application.

01/11/2004

SUP 6.3.18

The FSA, as soon as possible after receipt of an application, will advise the firm of any additional information which is required as part of its application (see SUP 6.3.23 G to SUP 6.3.27 G). The amount of information the FSA will require will vary depending on the scale of the variation in the context of the firm as a whole, and the nature, risk profile and complexity of the variation.

21/06/2001

Applications from firms winding down (running off) business over the long term

SUP 6.3.19

A firm which is making an application for variation of Part IV permission to wind down (run off) its business before applying for a cancellation of that permission (see SUP 6.2.9 G) should read SUP 6 Annex 4 for details of the additional procedures that apply.

21/06/2001

Applications involving significant changes

SUP 6.3.20

In certain cases, FSA may consider that granting an application for variation of Part IV permission which includes adding further regulated activities or changing a requirement or limitation would cause a significant change in the firm's business or risk profile. In these circumstances, the FSA may require the firm to complete appropriate parts of the full application pack (see the FSA website "How do I get authorised": http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml ), as directed by the FSA. Applications for variation involving significant changes may be processed by the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FSA, in conjunction with the Permissions department. Examples of an application for variation of Part IV permission which may represent a significant change include, but are not limited to, an application:

(1) to carry on new regulated activities such as accepting deposits;

(2) to extend the insurance business of a firm which already has Part IV permission which includes carrying out or effecting contracts of insurance (or both), to new classes of specified investment; or

(3) to remove a requirement preventing a firm from holding or controlling client money; or

(4) which causes the firm to change prudential category by, for example, removing a requirement relating to prudential category (see SUP App 1).

06/10/2007

SUP 6.3.21

A firm that wishes to make a significant change to its business, or is unsure whether the changes it is proposing would be considered to be significant, should contact its usual supervisory contact at the FSA. The FSA will discuss with the firm whether it will be required to submit parts of the application pack and whether any reports from third parties may be required.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.3.22

The fees payable for a firm applying for a variation of its part IV permission are set out in FEES 3.

01/01/2006

Information to be supplied to the FSA as part of the application

SUP 6.3.23

(1) The FSA may ask for any information it reasonably requires before determining the application. The information required will be determined on a case by case basis, taking into account the FSA's existing knowledge of the firm and the variation requested. The FSA will advise the firm of the information required at an early stage in the application process.

(2) The nature of the information and documents requested will be related to the risks posed to the FSA's regulatory objectives by the regulated activities and any unregulated activities that the firm is seeking to carry on. This information will be proportional to the nature of the business which the firm intends to carry on or the risks posed by the firm.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.3.24

(1) The information the FSA may require includes, but is not limited to, the examples given in SUP 6.3.25 G:

21/06/2001

SUP 6.3.25

Information which may be required. See SUP 6.3.24 G

Type of business

Information which may be required

All

1. Details of how the firm plans to comply with the FSA's regulatory requirements relating to any additional regulated activities it is seeking to carry on.

2. Descriptions of the firm's key controls, senior management arrangements and audit and proposed compliance arrangements in respect of any new regulated activity (see SYSC).

3. Organisation charts and details of individuals transferring or being recruited to perform new controlled functions (see SUP 10 for details of the application or transfer procedures under the approved persons regime).

Insurance business

1. A scheme of operations in accordance with SUP App 2.

2. (If the application seeks to vary a permission to include motor vehicle liability insurance business) details of the claims representatives required by threshold condition2A (Appointment of claims representatives), if applicable.

Accepting deposits and designated investment business

1. A business plan which includes the impact of the variation on the firm's existing or continuing business financial projections for the firm, including the impact of the requested variation of Part IV permission on the firm's financial resources and capital adequacy requirements.

06/01/2008

SUP 6.3.26

Specific information may also be required by the FSA on the activities the firm intends to cease, or cease carrying on in relation to any specified investments (see SUP 6 Annex 4).

21/06/2001

SUP 6.3.27

When determining whether to grant an application, the FSA may request further information, including reports from third parties such as the firm's auditors, and may require meetings with, and visits to, the firm. The FSA may also require a statement from members of the firm's governing body confirming, to the best of their knowledge, the completeness and accuracy of the information supplied. The FSA may also discuss the application with other regulators , exchanges.

21/06/2001

When will the FSA grant an application for variation of permission?

SUP 6.3.28

(1) The FSA is required by section 41(2) of the Act to ensure that a firm applying to vary its Part IV permission satisfies and will continue to satisfy the threshold conditions in relation to all the regulated activities for which the firm has or will have Part IV permission after the variation. However, the FSA's duty under the Act does not prevent it, having regard to that duty, from taking such steps as it considers necessary in relation to a particular firm, to meet any of its regulatory objectives. This may include granting a firm's application for variation of Part IV permission when it wishes to wind down (run off) its business activities and cease to carry on new business as a result of no longer being able to satisfy the threshold conditions.

(2) In addition, the FSA may refuse the application if it appears that any of its regulatory objectives would be adversely affected if the application were to be granted and it is desirable in order to meet any of its regulatory objectives for the application to be refused.

06/08/2010

SUP 6.3.29

In determining whether the firm satisfies and continues to satisfy the threshold conditions, the FSA will consider whether the firm is ready, willing and organised to comply with the regulatory requirements it will be subject to if the requested variation of Part IV permission is granted.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.3.30

The FSA will also consider the specific requirements that apply to certain types of activity as these may not allow certain combinations of activity.

06/10/2007

SUP 6.3.31

In considering whether to grant a firm's application to vary its Part IV permission, the FSA will also have regard, under section 49(1) of the Act (Persons connected with an applicant), to any person appearing to be, or likely to be, in a relationship with the firm which is relevant. The Financial Groups Directive Regulations make special consultation provisions where the FSA is exercising its functions under Part IV of the Act (Permission to carry on regulated activities) for the purposes of carrying on supplementary supervision . Broadly, where the FSA, in the course of carrying on supplementary supervision, is considering varying the Part IV permission of a person who is a member of a group which is a financial conglomerate, the consultation provisions in section 49(2) of the Act are disapplied. In their place, the regulations impose special obligations, linked to the Financial Groups Directive, to obtain the consent of the relevant competent authorities, to consult those authorities and to consult with the group itself.

06/10/2007

The FSA's powers in respect of application for variation of Part IV permission

SUP 6.3.32

The FSA's power to vary a Part IV permission after it receives an application from a firm extends to including in the Part IV permission as varied any provision that could be included as though a fresh permission was being given in response to an application under section 40 of the Act (Application for permission). Under sections 42 (Giving permission) and 43 of the Act (Imposition of requirements), the FSA may:

(1) incorporate in the description of a regulated activity a limitation (for example, as to the circumstance in which a regulated activity may or may not be carried on); or

(2) specify a narrower or wider description of regulated activity than the firm applied for in the application for variation of Part IV permission (see SUP 3.9.29G(3) for restrictions on insurers); or

(3) require the firm not to take a specified action (for example, not to hold client money); or

(4) require the firm to take a specified action (for example, to submit financial returns more frequently than normal).

06/10/2007

SUP 6.3.33

Thus, when determining an application for variation of Part IV permission, the FSA can, therefore:

(1) include new limitations and vary existing limitations, either on application from the firm (for example, the customer categories with which a firm may carry on a specified activity), or if considered appropriate by the FSA under section 42(7)(a) of the Act; or

(2) include any new requirements and vary existing requirements, either on application from the firm or where considered appropriate by the FSA under section 43 of the Act to ensure that the firm satisfies and continues to satisfy the threshold conditions.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.3.34

If limitations or requirements are varied or imposed by the FSA which were not included in the firm's application for variation of Part IV permission, the FSA will be required to issue the firm with a warning notice and decision notice (see SUP 6.3.39 G).

21/06/2001

How long will an application take?

SUP 6.3.35

Under section 52(1) of the Act (Determination of applications), the FSA has six months to consider a completed application from the date of receipt.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.3.36

If the FSA receives an application which is incomplete (that is, if information or a document required as part of the application is not provided), section 52(2) of the Act requires the FSA to determine that incomplete application within 12 months of the initial receipt of the application.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.3.37

Within these time limits, however, the length of the process will relate directly to the complexity of the variation requested. The FSA publishes standard response times on its website at www.fsa.gov.uk setting out how long the application process is expected to take in practice. From time to time, the FSA also publishes its performance against these times.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.3.38

At any time after receiving an application and before determining it, the FSA may require the applicant to provide additional information or documents. The circumstances of each application will dictate what additional information or procedures are appropriate.

21/06/2001

How will the FSA make the decision?

SUP 6.3.39

A decision to grant an application for variation of Part IV permission, as applied for, will be taken by appropriately experienced FSA staff. However, if the FSA staff dealing with the application recommend that a firm's application for variation of Part IV permission be either refused or granted subject to limitations or requirements or a narrower description of regulated activities than applied for, the decision will be taken by either the RDC or executive procedures.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.3.40

DEPP gives guidance on the FSA's decision making procedures including the procedures it will follow if it proposes to refuse an application for variation of Part IV permission either in whole or in part (for example, an application granted by the FSA but subject to limitations or requirements not applied for).

28/08/2007

Commencing new regulated activities

SUP 6.3.41

If the variation of Part IV permission is given, the FSA will expect a firm to commence a new regulated activity in accordance with its business plan (revised as necessary to take account of changes during the application process) or scheme of operations for an insurer. Firms should take this into consideration when determining when to make an application to the FSA.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.3.42

(1) Firms should be aware that the FSA may exercise its own-initiative power to vary or cancel their Part IV permission if they do not (see EG 8 (Variation and cancellation of permission on the FSA's own initiative and intervention against incoming firms)):

(a) commence a regulated activity for which they have Part IV permission within a period of at least 12 months from the date of being given; or

(b) carry on a regulated activity for which they have Part IV permission for a period of at least 12 months (irrespective of the date of grant).

(1A) The FSA may exercise its own-initiative power to cancel an investment firm's Part IV permission if the investment firm has provided or performed no investment services and activities at any time during the period of six months ending with the day on which the warning notice under section 54(1) of the Act is given (see EG 8).

[Note: article 8(a) of MiFID]

(2) If the FSA considers that such a variation or cancellation of the firm's Part IV permission is appropriate, it will discuss the proposed action with the firm and its reasons for not commencing or carrying on the regulated activities concerned.

01/11/2007

SUP 6.3.43

When a firm commences new regulated activities following a variation of a Part IV permission , it should have particular regard to the requirements of Principle 11 (Relations with regulators) (see SUP 15.3.8 G (1)(c)).

21/06/2001

SUP 6.4

Applications for cancellation of permission

01/12/2004

SUP 6.4.1

Under section 44(2) of the Act (Variation etc. at request of authorised person), if an authorised person with a Part IV permission applies to the FSA, the FSA may cancel that permission. Cancellation applies to a firm's entire Part IV permission, that is to every activity and every specified investment and not to the individual elements such as specified investments. Changes to the individual elements of a permission would require a variation.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.4.2

Under section 44(3) of the Act, the FSA may refuse an application from a firm to cancel its Part IV permission if it appears that it is desirable for the application to be refused in order to meet any of the FSA's regulatory objectives.

(1) [deleted]

(2) [deleted]

06/08/2010

SUP 6.4.3

(1) A firm may apply to the FSA to cancel its Part IV permission before it has ceased carrying on all regulated activities. However, where a firm makes a formal application for cancellation of its permission when it has not yet ceased carrying on regulated activities, the FSA will expect the firm:

(a) to cease those regulated activities within the short term (normally no more than six months from the date of application for cancellation); and

(b) to have formal plans to cease its regulated activities in an orderly manner.

(2) Firms should note, however, that the FSA will not grant an application for cancellation of Part IV permission until the firm can demonstrate that it has ceased carrying on all regulated activities (SUP 6.4.19 G).

(3) The FSA may apply additional procedures or require additional information, as if the firm had entered into a long term wind down of business (see SUP 6 Annex 4), if it considers it appropriate to the circumstances of the firm.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.4.4

Additional guidance for a firm carrying on insurance business, accepting deposits, operating a dormant account fund or which holds client money or customer's assets is given in SUP 6 Annex 4. As noted in SUP 6.2.9 G, it will usually be appropriate for a firm to apply for variation of its Part IV permission while winding down (running off) its regulated activities and before applying to cancel its Part IV permission .

06/08/2009

The application for cancellation of permission

SUP 6.4.5

(1) A firm other than a credit union wishing to cancel its Part IV permission, must apply online at www.fsa.gov.uk using the form specified on the FSA's ONA system.
(2) A credit union wishing to cancel its Part IV permission must apply using the form in SUP 6 Annex 6D and submit its application in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification). The application must be addressed for the attention of the Cancellations Team at the FSA.

(a) [deleted]
(b) [deleted]

(3) [deleted]
(4) Until the application has been determined, a firm which submits an application for cancellation of Part IV permission must inform the FSA of any significant change to the information given in the application immediately it becomes aware of the change.
(5) Where a firm is obliged to submit any form, notice or application online under (1), if the FSA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, until such time as facilities for online submission are restored a firm must submit any form, notice or application by using the form in SUP 6 Annex 6D and submitting it in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).

04/10/2010

SUP 6.4.5A

(1) If the FSA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FSA will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that online submission is unavailable and that the alternative methods of submission set out in SUP 6.4.5 D (5) and SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification) should be used.

(2) Where SUP 6.4.5 D (5) applies to a firm, GEN 1.3.2 R (Emergency) does not apply.

04/10/2010

SUP 6.4.6

(1) In addition to applying for cancellation of Part IV permission in accordance with SUP 6.4.5 D, a firm may discuss prospective cancellations with its usual supervisory contact at the FSA. Alternatively a firm can contact the Firms Contact Centre on 0845 606 9966.

(2) To contact the Cancellations Team:

(a) write to: Cancellations Team, The Financial ServicesAuthority, 25 The North Colonnade, Canary Wharf, London, E14 5HS; or

(b) email cancellation.team@fsa.gov.uk

(3) If a firm which has applied for cancellation decides to remain authorised it should inform the FSA immediately using one of the methods in SUP 6.4.6 G (2).

01/03/2005

SUP 6.4.7

When an application is received, the FSA will send the firm a written acknowledgement. The firm will be required to provide information which, in the opinion of the FSA, is necessary for it to determine whether to grant or refuse the application for cancellation of Part IV permission. The CancellationsTeam will work with the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FSA during this process.

01/03/2005

Information to be supplied to the FSA as part of the application for cancellation of permission

SUP 6.4.8

The information which the FSA may request on the circumstances of the application for cancellation and the confirmations which the FSA may require a firm to provide will differ according to the nature of the firm and the activities it has Part IV permission to carry on.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.4.9

A firm will be expected to demonstrate to the FSA that it has ceased carrying on regulated activities. The FSA may require, as part of the application, a report from the firm that includes, but is not limited to, the confirmations referred to in SUP 6.4.12 G (as appropriate to the firm's business). The FSA may also require additional information to be submitted with the report including, in some cases, confirmation or verification from a professional adviser on certain matters to supplement the report (see SUP 6.4.15 G).

21/06/2001

SUP 6.4.10

(1) If a firm is subject to the complaints rules in DISP, the FSA may request confirmation from the firm that there are no unresolved, unsatisfied or undischarged complaints against the firm from a customer of the firm.

(2) If there are unresolved or undischarged complaints against a firm from a customer of the firm, the FSA may request confirmation, as appropriate, of the steps (if any) which have been taken under the firm's complaints procedures and the amount of compensation claimed. The FSA may also request an explanation of the arrangements made for the future consideration of such complaints.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.4.11

If the firm is carrying on designated investment business with retail clients , the FSA may request confirmation that the firm has written, or intends to write, to all retail clients with, or for whom, the firm has conducted regulated activities within a certain period.

01/11/2007

Confirmations and resolutions

SUP 6.4.12

The FSA will usually require the report in SUP 6.4.9 G to be signed by a director or other officer with authority to bind the firm. It may include confirmations from the firm that, in relation to business carried on under its Part IV permission, it has:

(1) ceased carrying on all regulated activities;

(2) properly disbursed funds in its client bank accounts and closed those accounts;

(3) discharged all insurance or deposit liabilities; and

(4) properly transferred all investments, title documents and other property that it held on behalf of clients.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.4.13

The FSA may also require a resolution from the firm's governing body, for example to support the application for cancellation of permission, expressed to be irrevocable, and to give the signatory the authority to sign the formal report to the FSA.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.4.14

Under section 397 of the Act (Misleading statements and practices), it is an offence, in purported compliance with a requirement imposed by or under the Act (including the directions in SUP 6.4.5 D), for a person to knowingly or recklessly give the FSA information that is false or misleading. If necessary, a firm should take appropriate professional advice when supplying information required by the FSA. An insurer, for example, may ask an actuary to check assumptions in respect of future claims made under contracts of insurance.

21/06/2001

Reports from professionals

SUP 6.4.15

The FSA may require additional information, including professional advice, to supplement or support the report in SUP 6.4.9 G where it considers this appropriate. Examples of reports that may be requested by the FSA include, but are not limited to those detailed in SUP 6.4.16 G.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.4.16

Types of reports. See SUP 6.4.15 G

Category of firm

Type of report

a bank or building society

• an audited balance sheet which confirms that, in the auditor's opinion, the firm has no remaining deposit liabilities to customers;
• a report from auditors or reporting accountants;

a securities and futures firm

• a report from auditors or reporting accountants

an insurer

• an audited closing balance sheet which demonstrates that the firm has no insurance liabilities to policyholders;
• a report from the auditors or reporting accountants; and
• in some cases, an actuarial opinion as to the likelihood of any remaining liabilities to policyholders.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.4.17

If a firm is transferring its business, the FSA may require a professional opinion in respect of certain aspects of the transfer. For example, the FSA may require a legal opinion on the validity of arrangements to transfer regulated activities, client money, client deposits, custody assets or any other property belonging to clients, to another authorised person. Alternatively, an auditor or reporting accountant may be requested to verify that a transfer has been properly accounted for in the firm's books and records. Transfers of insurance and banking business are subject to statutory requirements (see SUP 18).

21/06/2001

Approved persons

SUP 6.4.18

A firm which is applying for cancellation of Part IV permission and which is not otherwise authorised by, or under, the Act should, at the same time, comply with SUP 10.13.6 R and notify the FSA of persons ceasing to perform controlled functions. These forms should give the effective date of withdrawal, if known (see SUP 10 (Approved persons)).

21/06/2001

When will the FSA grant an application for cancellation of permission?

SUP 6.4.19

The FSA will usually not cancel a firm's Part IV permission until the firm can demonstrate that, in relation to business carried on under that permission, it has, as appropriate:

(1) ceased carrying on regulated activities or fully run off or transferred all insurance liabilities;

(2) repaid all client money and client deposits;

(3) discharged custody assets and any other property belonging to clients; and

(4) discharged, satisfied or resolved complaints against the firm.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.4.20

If it is not possible for a firm to demonstrate a relevant matter referred to in SUP 6.4.19 G, for example, depositors are uncontactable, the firm will be expected to have satisfied the FSA that it has made adequate provisions for discharging any liabilities to clients which do not involve the firm carrying on regulated activities.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.4.21

Before the FSA cancels a firm's Part IV permission, the firm will be expected to be able to demonstrate that it has ceased or transferred all regulated activities under that permission. For example, the firm may be asked to provide evidence that a transfer of business (including, where relevant, any client money, customer assets or deposits or insurance liabilities) is complete. As noted in SUP 6.4.9 G, the FSA may require the firm to confirm this by providing a report, in a form specified by the FSA:

(1) as part of the application for cancellation of permission, if the firm has ceased carrying on all regulated activities under its Part IV permission at the time of application (see SUP 6.4.9 G); or

(2) after the application but before its determination, if the firm has not ceased carrying on regulated activities under its Part IV permission at the time of application.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.4.22

In deciding whether to cancel a firm's Part IV permission, the FSA will take into account all relevant factors in relation to business carried on under that permission, including whether:

(1) there are unresolved, unsatisfied or undischarged complaints against the firm from any of its customers;

(2) the firm has complied with CASS 4.3.99 R , CASS 5.5.80 R and CASS 7.2.15 R (Client money: discharge of fiduciary duty) and CASS 4.3.104 R and CASS 7.2.19 R (Client money: allocated but unclaimed client money) if it has ceased to hold client money; these rules apply to both repayment and transfer to a third party;

(3) the firm has ceased to hold or control custody assets in accordance with instructions received from clients (including instructions set out in an agreement entered into in accordance with CASS 2.3.2 R (Custody: client agreement)) and COBS 6.1.7 R (Information concerning safeguarding of designated investments belonging to clients and client money);

(4) the firm has repaid all client deposits, if it is ceasing to carry on regulated activities including accepting deposits;

(5) the FSA or another regulator has commenced an investigation against the firm or continuing enforcement action against the firm;

(6) there are any matters affecting the firm which should be investigated before a decision on whether the firm should have its Part IV permission cancelled by the FSA or be disciplined;

(7) the firm has unsettled or unexpired liabilities to consumers, for example, outstanding contracts (such as deposits or insurance liabilities);

(8) the firm has settled all its debts to the FSA; and

(9) the factors set out in SUP 6.4.19 G apply.

01/11/2007

The FSA's enforcement and investigation powers against a former authorised person

SUP 6.4.23

If the FSA has granted an application for cancellation of Part IV permission and withdrawn a firm's status as an authorised person (see SUP 6.5) it will retain certain investigative and enforcement powers in relation to the firm as a former authorised person. These include:

(1) information gathering and investigation powers in Part XI of the Act (Investigation gathering and investigations) (see EG 3 (Use of information gathering and investigation powers));

(2) powers to apply to court for injunctions and restitution orders in Part XXV of the Act (Injunctions and restitution) (see EG 10 (Injunctions) and EG 11 (Restitution and redress));

(3) powers in Part XXIV of the Act (Insolvency) to petition for administration orders or winding up orders against companies or insolvent partnerships, or bankruptcy orders (or in Scotland sequestration awards) against individuals (see EG 13 (Insolvency));

(4) powers in Part XXVII of the Act (Offences) to prosecute offences under the Act and other specified provisions (see EG 12 (Prosecution of criminal offences)).

28/08/2007

SUP 6.4.24

However, the FSA will not be able to use the following powers against former authorised persons:

(1) powers to take disciplinary action against firms by publishing statements of misconduct under section 205 of the Act (Public censure) or imposing financial penalties under section 206(1) of the Act (Financial penalties); and

(2) the power to require firms to make restitution under section 384 of the Act (Power of the FSA to require restitution).

21/06/2001

SUP 6.4.25

Consequently, the FSA considers that it will have good reason not to grant a firm's application for cancellation of permission where:

(1) it proposes to exercise any of the powers described in SUP 6.4.24 G; or

(2) it has already begun disciplinary and restitution proceedings against the firm by exercising either or both of these powers against the firm.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.4.26

The FSA's use of those powers is outlined in DEPP 6 (Penalties).

28/08/2007

How long will an application take?

SUP 6.4.27

(1) Under section 52(1)of the Act (Determination of applications), the FSA has six months to consider a completed application.

(2) If the FSA receives an application which is incomplete, that is, where information or a document required as part of the application is not provided, section 52(2) of the Act requires the FSA to determine the incomplete application within 12 months of the initial receipt of the application.

(3) Within these time limits, however, the length of the process will relate directly to the complexity of variation requested and whether the firm has fully wound down (run off) its activities at the time it applies. The FSA publishes standard response times on its website setting out how long the application process is expected to take in practice. From time to time, the FSA also publishes its performance against these times.

21/06/2001

How will FSA make the decision?

SUP 6.4.28

A decision to grant an application for cancellation of permission will be taken by appropriately experienced FSA staff. Where, however, the FSA staff dealing with the application recommend that a firm's application for cancellation of Part IV permission be refused, the decision will be taken by the RDC if the applicant makes representations to the FSA. If there are no representations, the decision will be made under executive procedures.

20/10/2005

SUP 6.4.29

See DEPP for guidance on the FSA's decision making procedures, including the procedures it will follow if it proposes to refuse an application for cancellation of Part IV permission.

28/08/2007

SUP 6.5

Ending authorisation

01/12/2004

SUP 6.5.1

Under section 33(2) of the Act (Withdrawal of authorisation by the FSA), if the FSA cancels a firm's Part IV permission, and as a result there is no regulated activity for which the firm has permission, the FSA is required to give a direction withdrawing the firm's status as an authorised person.

21/06/2001

SUP 6.5.2

If the FSA concludes that it should grant a firm's application for cancellation of permission and end its authorisation, the FSA will:

(1) cancel the firm's Part IV permission under section 44(2) of the Act;

(2) withdraw the firm's authorised status under section 33(2) of the Act by giving the firm a direction in writing; and

(3) update the firm's entry in the FSA register to show it has ceased to be authorised.

21/06/2001

SUP 6 Annex 1

Applications for variation and cancellation of Part IV permission

01/12/2004

21/06/2001

SUP 6 Annex 2

Summary of procedures on application for variation of Part IV permission

01/12/2004

21/06/2001

SUP 6 Annex 3

Summary of procedures on application for cancellation of Part IV permission

01/12/2004

SUP 6 Annex 3.

21/06/2001

SUP 6 Annex 4

Additional guidance for a firm winding down (running off) its business

01/12/2004

SUP 6 Annex 4.1

If a firm has Part IV permission which enables it to hold client money or to carry on regulated activities including:

(a)

carrying out contracts of insurance and effecting contracts of insurance; or

(b)

accepting deposits;

(c)

safeguarding and administration of assets; or

(d)

meeting of repayment claims or managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds);

it may require a long period (usually in excess of six months) in which to wind down (run off) its business. In these circumstances, it will usually be appropriate for the firm to apply for a variation of Part IV permission before commencing the wind down.

A firm that believes that it may need to apply for a variation of Part IV permission as a first step towards cancellation of its permission should discuss its plans with its usual supervisory contact at the FSA.

If appropriate, in the interests of its regulatory objectives, the FSA will require details of the firm's plans and will discuss them with the firm and monitor the winding down or transfer of the firm's business. During the period in which it is winding down, a firm will also be required to notify the FSA of any material changes to the information provided such as, for example, receipt of new complaints and changes to plans.

If, after its Part IV permission has been varied, a firm has wound down its business, complied with any requirements imposed by the FSA and ceased to carry on regulated activities (or expects to do so within the next six months), it should then make an application for cancellation of its Part IV permission (see SUP 6.4 (Applications for cancellation of permission)).

Use of own-initiative powers

If, for example, the FSA has concerns relating to any of the regulatory objectives, it may, however, use its own-initiative power under section 45 of the Act (Variation etc. on the Authority's own initiative) (see SUP 7 (Individual requirements) and EG 8 (Variation and cancellation of permission on the FSA's own initiative and intervention against incoming firms)), to vary the Part IV permission of a firm which is winding down or transferring its regulated activities.

Reporting requirements: general

If a firm is winding down (running-off) its business, the routine reporting requirements in SUP 16 (Reporting requirements) will apply unless the firm is granted a waiver. In addition, a firm may be asked to submit additional reports, for example, to enable the FSA to monitor the wind down.

06/08/2010

SUP 6 Annex 4.2

If a firm makes an application to vary its Part IV permission to effect the winding down of regulated activities which it is carrying on including the repayment of client money, or the return of client deposits, custody assets or any other property belonging to clients, the FSA will expect it to have formal plans to ensure that:

(1)

the regulated activities are wound down in an orderly manner;

(2)

the regulated activities are properly completed and all client deposits, client money, custody assets or any other property belonging to clients are repaid, returned or transferred to another Authorised person; and

(3)

the interests of customers are not adversely affected.

A firm must comply with CASS 4.3.99 R, CASS 5.5.80 R and CASS 7.2.15 R(Client money: discharge of fiduciary duty) and CASS 4.3.104 Rand CASS 7.2.19 R(Allocated but unclaimed client money) if it is ceasing to hold client money. A firm must also cease to hold or control custody assets in accordance with instructions received from clients (including instructions set out in an agreement entered into in accordance with CASS 2.3.2 R (Custody: client agreement) and COBS 6.1.7 R (Information concerning safeguarding of designated investments belonging to clients and client money). These rules apply to both repayment and transfer to a third party.

01/11/2007

SUP 6 Annex 4.3

A firm carrying on insurance business which, ultimately, intends to cease insurance business completely, will first need to apply for a variation of its Part IV permission while it is running off its business. The firm should apply for a variation of Part IV permission to remove the activity of effecting contracts of insurance from its permission, thus restricting its activities to carrying out insurance contracts to enable it to run off its remaining insurance liabilities (see SUP 6.2.9 G ).

Examples of variations of Part IV permission which may be appropriate in the context of winding down insurance business include:

(1)

removing one or more regulated activities (for example, when a firm which has Part IV permission to carry on insurance business enters into run-off, its Part IV permission will need to be varied to remove the activity of effecting contracts of insurance in relation to new contracts of insurance); a new contract of insurance excludes contracts effected under a term of a subsisting contract of insurance. Thus the firm's permission will be restricted to carrying out contracts of insurance to enable it to run off its existing liabilities; or

(2)

imposing a limitation on regulated activities in a firm's Part IV permission or imposing a requirement on the type of investments a firm holds to support its insurance liabilities.

An insurer ceasing to effect contracts of insurance is required to submit a scheme of operations in accordance with SUP App 2 (Insurers: scheme of operations). The FSA may require other information depending on the circumstances, for example an actuarial assessment of the firm's run-off.

A firm that is ceasing effecting newcontracts of insurance in all categories of specified investment should refer to SUP App 2 for details of the specific reporting requirements that apply.

An insurer should note that the FSA will not cancel a firm's permission until all the firm's insurance liabilities have been discharged, including any potential insurance liabilities. A firm is, therefore, advised to submit an application for cancellation of its Part IV permission when its run-off is completed.

21/06/2001

SUP 6 Annex 4.4

A firm making an application to vary or cancel its Part IV permission which requires any approval from the Society of Lloyd's should apply to the Society for this in addition to applying to the FSA for the variation or cancellation.

Where a firm has Part IV permission to manage the underwriting capacity of a Lloyd's syndicate as a managing agent at Lloyd's then, if it wishes to vary its Part IV permission to remove this regulated activity or to cancel its Part IV permission completely, special procedures will apply.

(1)

As a first step, the firm should apply to the FSA for a variation of its Part IV permission to limit the regulated activity, after the Lloyd's syndicates have been closed, to permit no new business. Once the syndicates have been closed, the firm's consent from the Society to manage syndicates will also lapse

(2)

After a period of one year from the date of closure of the Lloyd's syndicates the firm may apply to the FSA to vary its Part IV permission, to remove the regulated activity or to cancel its Part IV permission entirely, as appropriate. At this time, a firm's approval from the Society of Lloyd's as a managing agent will cease.

Firms which wish to discuss these procedures in more detail should contact their usual supervisory contactat the FSA and the Society of Lloyd's, as appropriate.

21/06/2001

SUP 6 Annex 4.5

1. As stated in SUP 6.2.9 G, where a bank, or other firm with permission that includes accepting deposits, wishes to cancel its Part IV permission, it will generally need to apply for a variation of that permission while it winds down its business.

2. When a firm is winding down its business activities, it may be appropriate to vary its Part IV permission by imposing:
(1) a limitation that no new deposits will be accepted; or
(2) a limitation on the purchasing of investments for its own account; or
(3) requirements concerning solvency.

3. After a bank has discussed with the FSA the type of variation of Part IV permission the bank requires to wind down its business, it should make an application for variation of Part IV permission as directed in SUP 6.3.15 D and follow the guidance and procedures in SUP 6 as well as the additional procedures set out in this annex.

4. The FSA may vary the firm's Part IV permission to impose one or more of:
(1) a requirement that the firm takes certain steps or refrains from adopting or pursuing a particular course of action or to restrict the scope of its business in a particular way;
(2) a limitation on accepting deposits, for example a limitation that no new deposits will be accepted;
(3) a requirement restricting the granting of credit or the making of investments;
(4) a requirement prohibiting the firm from soliciting deposits either generally or from persons who are not already depositors.

5. The information concerning the circumstances of the application for variation of Part IV permission and the confirmations a firm is required to give to the FSA will differ according to the nature of the bank and its Part IV permission. If appropriate, it may include, but will not necessarily be limited to:
(1) a plan containing the arrangements made in respect of the business of any current depositors, for example how and when the firm intends to repay or novate arrangements with depositors; or
(2) confirmation that the bank will not take any new deposits, will not roll over or renew any existing deposits at maturity and will repay all remaining deposits (including accrued interest) as they fall due for repayment

Dealing with residual deposits: general
6. Where a firm has residual deposits which, for whatever reason, cannot be repaid, they may be protected by a number of different methods. The precise applicability of the courses to be followed depends upon the particular circumstances of the individual firm. The FSA's supervisory approach will be determined by the course of action taken.

Holding funds on trust
7. In some circumstances, it may be appropriate for the firm to make an irrevocable transfer of funds, at least equal to the total of its deposits, to an independent trustee to be held on trust for the benefit of the depositors. Any such proposal should be discussed in advance with the FSA. The amount of funds held on trust should at all times exceed the total of all deposits, in order to provide for contingencies. Trust account arrangements are appropriate only in respect of solvent institutions. The guidance in paragraph 13 of this section applies in most cases.

8. (1) A plan containing the arrangements should be made by the firm in respect of the business of any current depositors, for example how and when the firm intends to repay or novate arrangements with depositors.
(2) The trustee should be an independent and appropriately qualified third party, nominated by the institution and acceptable to the FSA.
(a) The trustee should usually be a major UK bank. If appropriate, an additional trustee from within the institution may be appointed, preferably in an advisory role. An internal trustee may help to ensure continuity if the firm and the trust are likely to remain in existence for the foreseeable future.
(b) The FSA should be consulted about, or pre-notified of, a potential change of trustee.
(c) Trustees are responsible for fulfilling their obligations under the trust deed. In practice, the FSA may wish to point out that certain factors need to be given consideration by the trustees and the institution (for example, the procedures for paying out to depositors).

9. The FSA would require to see an opinion by the firm's legal advisers, confirming the validity and enforceability of the trust and in particular specifying the extent (if any) to which the trust arrangements may be set aside in future. The FSA reserves the right to request sight of the proposed trust documentation itself.

10. The trustee has the right (and probably the obligation) to invest the funds, and in doing so should normally seek to "match" the maturity profile of the firm's deposit base. However, the following could result in deposit liabilities exceeding trust funds at any time:
(a) maturity mismatches, that is, whether there are insufficient liquid funds across the maturity bands to repay depositors; or
(b) changes in interest rates; or
(c) the trustee's fees and disbursements.

11. The trustee should not deposit, or otherwise invest, trust funds except in segregated accounts with third-party authorised institutions.

(1) An auditor's report, similar to that used to determine whether all the deposits have been repaid by a firm, should be provided to confirm that all depositors have been repaid before the discharge of a trust is allowed.
(2) Auditors' reports, from the trust's auditors, should subsequently be obtained at intervals to demonstrate that funds in the trust continue to be at least equal to the remaining liabilities to depositors and that repayments have been properly made. The firm retains the ultimate responsibility to provide information to the FSA.
(3) The FSA may, however, require the inclusion of a clause in the trust deed requiring the trustee to provide such information as may be requested.

12. Entering into a trust arrangement does not "transfer" deposits or discharge the firm's contractual obligations to its depositors.

Holding the funds in segregated accounts
13. The firm may place and retain an amount at all times at least equal to its deposit liabilities in a segregated account with its usual bankers. The advantage of this course of action is that if all deposit liabilities are matched by funds in such an account, then the firm is not carrying on the regulated activity of accepting deposits in contravention of the Act.

14. Placing funds in a segregated account does not discharge a firm's contractual obligations to its depositors.

21/06/2001

SUP 6 Annex 5

Variation of permission application form

01/12/2004

This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:

Supervision forms - FSA/form_links.jsp#supAnc

01/11/2004

SUP 6 Annex 6

Cancellation of permission application form

01/12/2004

This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:

Cancellation of permission application form - sup/cancellation_form.doc

30/11/2009

SUP 7

Individual requirements

SUP 7.1

Application and purpose

01/12/2004

Application

SUP 7.1.1

This chapter applies to every firm which has a Part IV permission.

21/06/2001

SUP 7.1.2

The application of this chapter to an incoming EEA firm, incoming Treaty firm or UCITS qualifier with a Part IV permission (a "top-up permission") is limited as explained in SUP 7.2.4 G.

21/06/2001

Purpose

SUP 7.1.3

The Handbook primarily contains provisions which apply to all firms or to certain categories of firm. However, a firm may apply for a waiver or modification of rules in certain circumstances as set out in SUP 8; or it may receive individual guidance on the application of the rules, as set out in SUP 9.

21/06/2001

SUP 7.1.4

The FSA , in the course of its supervision of a firm, may sometimes judge it necessary or desirable to impose additional requirements on a firm or in some way amend or restrict the activities which the firm has permission to undertake. The guidance in this chapter describes when and how the FSA will seek to do this.

21/06/2001

SUP 7.1.5

By waiving or modifying the requirements of a rule or imposing an additional requirement or limitation, the FSA can ensure that the rules, and any other requirements or limitations imposed on a firm, take full account of the firm's individual circumstances, and so assist the FSA in meeting the regulatory objectives (for example, to protect consumers, maintain market confidence and contribute to financial stability).

06/08/2010

SUP 7.2

The FSA's powers to set individual requirements on its own initiative

01/12/2004

SUP 7.2.1

The FSA has the power under section 45of the Act(Variation on the Authority's own initiative) to vary a firm's Part IV permission.This includes imposing a statutory requirement or limitation on that Part IV permission.

06/10/2007

SUP 7.2.2

The circumstances in which the FSA may vary a firm's Part IV permission on its own initiative under section 45 of the Act include where it appears to the FSA that:

(1) one or more of the threshold conditions is or is likely to be no longer satisfied; or

(2) it is desirable to vary a firm's permission in order to meet any of the FSA's regulatory objectives.

06/08/2010

SUP 7.2.3

The FSA may also use its powers under section 45 for enforcement purposes. EG 8 sets out in detail the FSA's powers under section 45 and the circumstances under which the FSA may vary a firm's permission in this way, whether for enforcement purposes or as part of its day to day supervision of firms. This chapter provides additional guidance on when the FSA will use these powers for supervision purposes.

06/02/2008

SUP 7.2.4

The FSA may use its powers under section 45 of the Act only in respect of a Part IV permission ; that is, a permission granted to a firm under section 42 of the Act (Giving permission) or having effect as if so given. In respect of an incoming EEA firm, an incoming Treaty firm, or a UCITS qualifier, this power applies only in relation to any top-up permission that it has. There are similar but more limited powers under Part XIII of the Act in relation to the permission of an incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm under Schedules 3 or 4 to the Act (see EG 8.26 to EG 8.27 ).

06/02/2008

SUP 7.2.5

If the FSA exercises its powers under section 45 of the Act, it will do so by issuing a supervisory notice. The procedure that will be followed is set out in DEPP 2 .

06/02/2008

SUP 7.2.6

A firm has a right of referral to the Financial Services and Markets Tribunal in respect of the exercise by the FSA of its powers to vary, on its own initiative, the firm's Part IV permission.

06/02/2008

SUP 7.3

Criteria for varying a firm's permission

01/12/2004

SUP 7.3.1

The FSA expects to maintain a close working relationship with certain types of firm and expects that routine supervisory matters arising can be resolved during the normal course of this relationship by, for example, issuing individual guidance where appropriate (see SUP 9.3). However, the FSA may seek to vary a firm's Part IV permission:

(1) in circumstances where it considers it appropriate for the firm to be subject to a formal requirement, breach of which could attract enforcement action; or

(2) if a variation is needed to enable the firm to comply with the requirement, due to agreements the firm may have with third parties. (For example a firm may be under a contractual obligation to do something, but only if it can do so lawfully. In this case, if the FSA considers the firm must not do it, then the FSA would need to prevent it doing so through a variation in its Part IV permission to enable the firm to avoid breaching the contractual obligation.)

21/06/2001

SUP 7.3.2

The FSA may seek to vary a firm's Part IV permission on its own initiative in certain situations including the following:

(1) If the FSA determines that a firm's management, business or internal controls give rise to material risks that are not fully addressed by its rules, the FSA may seek to vary the firm's Part IV permission and impose an additional requirement or limitation on the firm.
(2) If a firm becomes or is to become involved with new products or selling practices which present risks not adequately addressed by existing requirements, the FSA may seek to vary the firm's Part IV permission in respect of those risks.
(3) If there has been a change in a firm's structure, controllers, activities or strategy which generate material uncertainty or create unusual or exceptional risks, then the FSA may seek to vary the firm's Part IV permission. (See also SUP 11.7.14 G to SUP 11.7.18 G for a description of the FSA's ability to vary a firm's Part IV permission on a change in control under section 46 of the Act.)
(4) If a firm is a member of a financial conglomerate and the FSA is implementing supplementary supervision under the Financial Groups Directive with respect to that financial conglomerate by imposing obligations on the firm. Further material on this can be found in GENPRU 3.1 (Cross sector groups) and SUP 16.7.82 R to SUP 16.7.83 R (reporting requirements with respect to financial conglomerates).

01/01/2007

SUP 7.3.3

The FSA may seek to impose requirementsor limitations which include but are not restricted to:

(1) requiring a firm to submit regular reports covering, for example, trading results, management accounts, customer complaints, connected party transactions;

(2) requiring a firm to maintain prudential limits, for example on large exposures, foreign currency exposures or liquidity gaps;

(3) requiring a firm to submit a business plan (or for an insurer, a scheme of operations (see SUP App 2 ));

(4) limiting the firm's activities;

(5) requiringa firm to maintain a particular amount or type of financial resources.

21/06/2001

SUP 7.3.4

The FSA will seek to give a firm reasonable notice of an intent to vary its permission and to agree with the firm an appropriate timescale. However, if the FSA considers that a delay may create a risk to any of the FSA's regulatory objectives , the FSA may need to act immediately using its powers under section 45 of the Actto vary a firm's Part IV permissionwith immediate effect.

06/08/2010

SUP 8

Waiver and modification of rules

SUP 8.1

Application and purpose

01/12/2004

SUP 8.1.1

This chapter applies to every:

(1) firm or person who is subject to FSA rulesthat wishes to apply for, consent to, or has been given a modification of or waiver of the FSA's rules;

(2) person, as respects a particular AUT or ICVC, who wishes to apply for, consent to, or has been given a modification of or waiver of the rules in COLL.

06/02/2008

SUP 8.1.1A

This chapter is relevant to an applicant for a Part IV permission , as if that applicant were a firm. Where the chapter refers to usualsupervisory contact, the applicant should read this as being the usual contact in the Permissions Department. Further, this chapter is relevant to a person who is subject to rules made by the FSA and where the chapter refers to a firm, this includes that person.

06/02/2008

SUP 8.1.2

A recognised body should see REC 3.3 for information on waivers of rules in REC under section 294 of the Act.

21/06/2001

SUP 8.1.3

This chapter is not relevant to the functions of the FSA acting in its capacity as the competent authority for the purposes of Part VI of the Act (Official Listing).

01/07/2005

Purpose

SUP 8.1.4

This chapter explains how the regime for the waiver of rules works.

01/11/2007

SUP 8.2

Introduction

01/12/2004

Waivers under section 148 of the Act

SUP 8.2.1

Under section 148of the Act (Modification or waiver of rules), the FSA may, on the application or with the consent of a firm, direct that its rules :

(1) are not to apply to the firm; or

(2) are to apply to the firm with such modifications as may be specified.

06/02/2008

SUP 8.2.2

The directions referred to in SUP 8.2.1 G (1) and SUP 8.2.1 G (2) are collectively referred to in the Handbook as waivers.

21/06/2001

Waivers of rules in COLL

SUP 8.2.3

Section 250 of the Act and regulation 7 of the OEIC Regulations allow the FSA to waive the application of certain rules in COLL to:

(1) a person, as respects a particular AUT or ICVC, on the application or with the consent of that person; and

(2) an AUT or ICVC on the application or with the consent of the manager and trustee (in the case of an AUT) or the ICVC and its depositary (in the case of an ICVC).

01/04/2009

SUP 8.2.4

Those persons to whom section 250 and regulation 7 of the OEIC Regulations are relevant, but who are not firms, should follow SUP 8 as if they were firms.

21/06/2001

SUP 8.2.5

Section 250 of the Act and regulation 7 of the OEIC Regulations work by giving effect to section 148of the Act in respect of waivers given under section 250(2) and (3) and regulation 7(1) and (2) of the OEIC Regulations.

21/06/2001

Rules which can be waived

SUP 8.3

Applying for a waiver

01/12/2004

Conditions for giving a waiver

SUP 8.3.1

Under section 148(4) of the Act, the FSA may not give a waiver unless it is satisfied that:

(1) compliance by the firm with the rules, or with the rules as unmodified, would be unduly burdensome, or would not achieve the purpose for which the rules were made; and

(2) the waiver would not result in undue risk to persons whose interests the rules are intended to protect.

21/06/2001

SUP 8.3.1A

Even if the conditions in section 148(4) of the Act are satisfied, the FSA will consider other relevant factors before giving a waiver, such as whether the waiver would be compatible with European law, including relevant EC Directives.

01/10/2003

Publication of waivers

SUP 8.3.2

The FSA is required by section 148(6) of the Act to publish a waiver unless it is satisfied that it is inappropriate or unnecessary to do so (see SUP 8.6).

21/06/2001

Form and method of application

SUP 8.3.3

(1) A firm other than a credit union wishing to apply for a waiver must apply online at www.fsa.gov.uk using the form specified on the FSA's ONA system.

(2) A credit union wishing to apply for a waiver must complete the application form in SUP 8 Annex 2 D and submit it in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4R to SUP 15.7.9G (Form and method of notification).

(3) Where a firm is obliged to submit an application online under (1), if the FSA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, until such time as facilities for online submission are restored a firm must use the form in SUP 8 Annex 2 D and submit it in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4R to SUP 15.7.9G (Form and method of notification).

(4) [Deleted]

(5) [Deleted]

(6) [Deleted]

(7) [Deleted]

(a) [Deleted]

(b) [Deleted]

04/10/2010

SUP 8.3.3A

(1) If the FSA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FSA will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that online submission is unavailable and that the alternative methods of submission set out in SUP 8.3.3D (3) and SUP 15.7.4R to SUP 15.7.9G (Form and method of notification) should be used.

(2) Where SUP 8.3.3 D (3) applies to a firm, GEN 1.3.2R (Emergency) does not apply.

04/10/2010

SUP 8.3.4

Before sending in a waiver application, a firm may find it helpful to discuss the application with its usual supervisory contact at the FSA. However, the firm should still ensure that all relevant information is included in the application.

21/06/2001

Procedure on receipt of an application

SUP 8.3.5

The FSA will acknowledge an application promptly and if necessary will seek further information from the firm. The time taken to determine an application will depend on the issues it raises. However, the FSA will aim to give waiver decisions within 20 business days of receiving an application which includes sufficient information. If the FSA expects to take longer, it will tell the firm and give an estimated decision date.A firm should make it clear in the application if it needs a decision within a specific time.

21/06/2001

SUP 8.3.5A

The FSA will treat a firm's application for a waiver as withdrawn if it does not hear from the firm within 20 business days of sending a communication which requests or requires a response from the firm. The FSA will not do this if the firm has made it clear to the FSA in some other way that it intends to pursue the application.

01/03/2003

SUP 8.3.6

In some cases, the FSA may give a modification of a rule rather than direct that the rule is not to apply. The FSA may also impose conditions on a waiver, for example additional reporting requirements. A waiver may be given for a specified period of time only, after which time it will cease to apply. A firm wishing to extend the duration of a waiver should follow the procedure in SUP 8.3.3 D. A waiver will not apply retrospectively.

21/06/2001

SUP 8.3.7

If the FSA decides not to give a waiver, it will give reasons for the decision.

21/06/2001

SUP 8.3.8

A firm may withdraw its application at any time up to the giving of the waiver. In doing so, a firm should give the FSA its reasons for withdrawing the application.

21/06/2001

SUP 8.3.9

If the FSA believes that a particular waiver given to a firm may have relevance to other firms, it may publish general details about the possible availability of the waiver. For example, IPRU(INV) 3-80(10)G explains that a firm that wishes to use its own internal model to calculate its position risk requirement (PRR) will need to apply for a waiver of the relevant rules.

21/06/2001

Giving a waiver with consent rather than on an application

SUP 8.3.10

Under section 148(2) of the Act the FSA may give a waiver with the consent of a firm. This power may be used by the FSA in exceptional circumstances where the FSA considers that a waiver should apply to a number of firms (for example, where a rule unmodified may not meet the particular circumstances of a particular category of firm). In such cases the FSA will inform the firms concerned that the waiver is available, either by contacting firms individually or by publishing details of the availability of the waiver on the FSA's website The firms concerned will not have to make a formal application but will have to give their written consent for the waiver to apply.

21/06/2001

Waiver of an evidential provision

SUP 8.3.11

An application for a waiver of an evidential provision will normally be granted only if a breach of the underlying binding rule is actionable under section 150 of the Act. Individual guidance would normally be a more appropriate response (see SUP 9 (Individual Guidance)) if there is no right of action.

01/03/2003

SUP 8.3.12

An application for a waiver of the presumption of compliance created by an evidential provision would not normally be granted.

01/03/2003

SUP 8.3.13

For an application for a waiver of the presumption of contravention of a binding rule, which is actionable under section 150 of the Act, the FSA would normally wish to be satisfied that the evidential rule is itself unduly burdensome or does not achieve the purpose of the rule.

01/03/2003

Waiver of a two-way evidential provision

SUP 8.3.14

In the case of an application for a waiver of a two-way evidential provision relating to an actionable binding rule, the policy in SUP 8.3.12 G would apply to the presumption of compliance and the policy in SUP 8.3.13 G would apply to the presumption of contravention. In other words, any modification is likely to be in relation to the second presumption only.

01/03/2003

SUP 8.4

Reliance on waivers

01/12/2004

Application of waived rules

SUP 8.4.1

If the FSA gives a firm a waiver, then the relevant rule no longer applies to the firm. But:

(1) if a waiver directs that a rule is to apply to a firm with modifications, then contravention of the modified rule could lead to FSA enforcement action and (if applicable) a right of action under section 150 of the Act (Actions for damages); and

(2) if a waiver is given subject to a condition, it will not apply to activities conducted in breach of the condition, and those activities, if in breach of the original rule, could lead to FSA enforcement action or such a right of action.

21/06/2001

The effect of rule changes on waivers

SUP 8.4.2

Substantive changes to the rules (this would not include simple editorial changes) in the Handbook may affect existing waivers, changing their practical effect and creating a need for a change to the original waiver. The FSA will consult on proposed rule changes. A firm should note proposed rule changes and discuss the impact on a waiver with its usual supervisory contact at the FSA.

21/06/2001

SUP 8.5

Notification of altered circumstances relating to waivers

01/12/2004

SUP 8.5.1

A firm which has applied for or has been granted a waiver must notify the FSA immediately if it becomes aware of any matter which could affect the continuing relevance or appropriateness of the application or the waiver.

21/06/2001

SUP 8.5.2

Firms are also referred to SUP 15.6 (Inaccurate, false or misleading information). This requires, in SUP 15.6.4 R, a firm to notify the FSA if false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate information has been provided. This would apply in relation to information provided in an application for a waiver.

21/06/2001

SUP 8.6

Publication of waivers

01/12/2004

Requirement to publish

SUP 8.6.1

The FSA is required by section 148(6) of the Act to publish a waiver unless it is satisfied that it is inappropriate or unnecessary to do so. If the FSA publishes a waiver, it will not publish details of why a waiver was required or any of the supporting information given in a waiver application.

21/06/2001

Matters for consideration

SUP 8.6.2

When considering whether it is satisfied under section 148(6), the FSA is required by section 148(7) of the Act:

(1) to take into account whether the waiver relates to a rule contravention of which is actionable under section 150 of the Act (Actions for damages); Schedule 5 identifies such rules;

(2) to consider whether its publication would prejudice, to an unreasonable degree, the commercial interests of the firm concerned, or any other member of its immediate group; and

(3) to consider whether its publication would be contrary to an international obligation of the United Kingdom (for example, the confidentiality obligations in the Single Market Directives)

21/06/2001

SUP 8.6.3

Waivers can affect the legal rights of third parties, including consumers. In the FSA's view it is important that the fact and effect of such waivers should be transparent. So the fact that a waiver relates to a rule that is actionable under section 150 of the Act (see SUP 8.6.2 G (1)) will tend to argue in favour of publication.

21/06/2001

SUP 8.6.4

In making waiver applications under section 250 of the Act or regulation 7 of the OEIC Regulations, SUP 8.6.2 G (2) should be read in application to rules in COLL as if the word "commercial" were omitted.

01/04/2009

SUP 8.6.5

In considering whether commercial interests would be prejudiced to an unreasonable degree (see SUP 8.6.2 G (2)), the FSA will weigh the prejudice to firms' commercial interests against the interests of consumers, markets and other third parties in disclosure. In doing so the FSA will consider factors such as the extent to which publication of the waiver would involve the premature release of proprietary information to commercial rivals, for example relating to a product innovation, or reveal information which could reasonably be regarded as the firm's own intellectual property. In line with section 148(8) of the Act, the FSA will also consider whether prejudice to a firm's commercial interests could be avoided or mitigated by publication of the waiver without disclosing the identity of the firm.

21/06/2001

SUP 8.6.6

The FSA may consider publication unnecessary where, for example, the waiver relates to a minor matter that does not affect any third party and is unlikely to be of relevance or interest to other firms.

21/06/2001

Firm's objection to publication

SUP 8.6.7

If, after taking into account the matters in SUP 8.3.3 D to SUP 8.6.6 G, a firm believes there are good grounds for the FSA either to withhold publication or to publish the waiver without disclosing the identity of the firm, it should make this clear in its application (see SUP 8.3.3 D (7)). If the FSA proposes to publish a waiver against the wishes of the firm, the FSA will give the firm the opportunity to withdraw its application before the waiver is given.

21/06/2001

Withholding publication for a limited period

SUP 8.6.8

A decision to withhold a waiver or identity of a firm from publication may be for a limited period only, usually as long as the duration of the relevant grounds for non-publication. If the FSA proposes to publish information about a waiver that had previously been withheld, it will first give the firm an opportunity to make representations.

21/06/2001

Means of publication

SUP 8.6.9

The principal means of publication of waiver information will be the FSA's website (www.fsa.gov.uk).

21/06/2001

SUP 8.7

Varying waivers

01/12/2004

SUP 8.7.1

Once the FSA has given a waiver, it may vary it with the firm's consent, or on the firm's application. If a firm wishes the FSA to vary a waiver, it should follow the procedures in SUP 8.3.3 D, giving reasons for the application. In a case where a waiver has been given to a number of firms (see SUP 8.3.10 G), if the FSA wishes to vary such waivers with the consent of those firms, it will follow the procedures in SUP 8.3.10 G.

21/06/2001

SUP 8.7.2

If the waiver that has been varied has previously been published, the FSA will publish the variation unless it is satisfied that it is inappropriate or unnecessary to do so, having regard to any representation made by the firm.

21/06/2001

SUP 8.8

Revoking waivers

01/12/2004

SUP 8.8.1

The FSA may revoke a waiver at any time. In deciding whether to revoke a waiver, the FSA will consider whether the conditions in section 148(4) of the Act are no longer satisfied (see SUP 8.3.1 G), and whether the waiver is otherwise no longer appropriate. The FSA may revoke a waiver with immediate effect, if it considers that this is necessary, for example, in order to prevent undue risk to consumers.

21/06/2001

SUP 8.8.2

If the FSA proposes to revoke a waiver, or revokes a waiver with immediate effect, it will:

(1) give the firm written notice either of its proposal, or of its action, giving reasons;

(2) state in the notice a reasonable period (usually 28 days) within which the firm can make representations about the proposal or action; if a firm wants to make oral representations, it should inform the FSA as quickly as possible , specify who will make the representations and which matters will be covered; the FSA will inform the firm of the time and place for hearing the representations and may request a written summary;

(3) after considering any representations, in the case of a proposed revocation, give the firm written confirmation of its decision to revoke the waiver or not; or, in the case of a revocation that has already taken effect, either confirm the revocation or seek the firm's consent to a new waiver.

21/06/2001

SUP 8.8.3

If the waiver that has been revoked has previously been published, the FSA will publish the revocation unless it is satisfied that it is inappropriate or unnecessary to do so, having regard to any representations made by the firm.

21/06/2001

SUP 8.9

Decision making

01/12/2004

SUP 8.9.1

The waivers regime is overseen by a staff committee. Its responsibility is to ensure that the giving of waivers is in accordance with the requirements of the Act, of the guidance in SUP 8 and of other relevant guidance. Decisions on individual applications are made under arrangements designed to result in rapid, responsive and well-informed decision making. The arrangements include arrangements for collective decision making to set general policies, and, as necessary, determine cases for applications with substantially common characteristics (for example, waivers in relation to the same rule or related rules or by firms in a similar position). It also includes arrangements for decision making by individuals within established precedents and policies.

21/06/2001

SUP 8.9.2

If the FSA , in the course of carrying on supplementary supervision of a financial conglomerate, is considering exercising its powers under section 148 of the Act (Modification or waiver of rules), regulation 4 of the Financial Groups Directive Regulations contains special provisions. The FSA must, in broad terms, do two things. Where required by those regulations, it must obtain the consent of the relevant competent authorities of the group. And, where required by those Regulations, it must consult those competent authorities.

01/01/2005

SUP 8 Annex 1

SUP 8: Waiver and modification of rules

01/12/2004

21/06/2001

SUP 8 Annex 2

Application form for a waiver or modification of rules

01/12/2004

This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:

Waiver Application form - Forms/sup/w_form.doc

13/10/2003

SUP 9

Individual guidance

SUP 9.1

Application and purpose

01/12/2004

Application

SUP 9.1.1

(1) This chapter applies to:

(a) every firm;

(b) persons that are subject to the requirements of the Part 6 rules; and

(2) SUP 9.3 (Giving individual guidance to a firm on the FSA's own initiative) is, however, only relevant to a firm.

01/07/2005

Purpose

SUP 9.1.2

Individual guidance is guidance that is not given to persons or regulated persons generally or to a class of regulated person. It will normally be given to one particular person, which relates to its own particular circumstances or plans. It may be oral or written. Individual guidance will not be published but may at the FSA's discretion be converted to general guidance and published in the Handbook. Written individual guidance will often be labelled as such

15/11/2001

SUP 9.1.3

A person may need to ask the FSA for individual guidance on how the rules and general guidance in the Handbook, the Act or other regulatory requirements apply in their particular circumstances. This chapter describes how a person may do this. Section 157 of the Act gives the FSA the power to give guidance consisting of such information and advice as it considers appropriate.

21/06/2001

SUP 9.1.4

The FSA may at times also consider it appropriate to give a firm individual guidance on its own initiative, for example on how it considers a firm should comply with a rule. SUP 9.3 describes when and how the FSA will seek to do this.

21/06/2001

SUP 9.2

Making a request for individual guidance

01/12/2004

How to make a request

SUP 9.2.1

Requests for individual guidance may be made in writing or orally. If oral queries raise complex or significant issues, the FSA will normally expect the details of the request to be confirmed in writing. Simple requests for guidance may often be dealt with orally, although it is open to a person to seek a written confirmation from the FSA of oral guidance given by the FSA .

21/06/2001

Who to address a request to

SUP 9.2.2

A firm and its professional advisers should address requests for individual guidance to the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FSA , with the exception of requests for guidance on the Code of Market Conduct (MAR 1) which should be addressed to the specialist team within the Markets and ExchangesDivision. A firm may wish to discuss a request for guidance with the relevant contact before making a written request.

21/06/2001

SUP 9.2.3

A person who is not a firm should address his request for individual guidance to the appropriate department within the FSA . A person who is unsure of where to address his request may address his enquiry to the FSA , making clear the nature of the request.

21/06/2001

Discussions on a no-names basis

SUP 9.2.4

The FSA does not expect to enter into discussions on a 'no-name' basis about the affairs of an individual person except in relation to SUP 9.2.4A G.

01/07/2005

SUP 9.2.4A

The FSA may enter into discussions with a person on a 'no-names' basis about how a particular requirement in the Part 6 rules should be interpreted, but:

(1) the FSA will not be bound by any guidance given in response to the request; and

(2) the person receiving the guidance will not be able to rely upon it.

01/07/2005

The FSA's response to a reasonable request

SUP 9.2.5

The FSA will aim to respond quickly and fully to reasonable requests. The FSA will give high priority to enquiries about areas of genuine uncertainty or about difficulties in relating established requirements to innovative practices or products. What constitutes a 'reasonable request' is a matter for the FSA . It will depend on the nature of the request and on the resources of the firm or other person making it. The FSA will expect the person to have taken reasonable steps to research and analyse a topic before approaching the FSA for individual guidance. The FSA should not be viewed as a first port of call for guidance, except where it is only the FSA that can give the guidance, for example in confirming non-standard reports that it wishes to receive from a firm.

21/06/2001

Information required by the FSA

SUP 9.2.6

The FSA will always need sufficient information and time before it can properly evaluate the situation and respond to a request. If a request is time-critical, the person or its professional adviser should make this clear. The more notice a person can give the FSA , the more likely it is that the FSA will be able to meet the person's timetable. However, the time taken to respond will necessarily depend upon the complexity and novelty of the issues involved. In making a request, a person should identify the rule, general guidance, or other matter on which individual guidance is sought, and provide a description of the circumstances relating to the request. The FSA may request further information if it considers that it does not have sufficient information.

21/06/2001

SUP 9.3

Giving individual guidance to a firm on the FSA's own initiative

01/12/2004

SUP 9.3.1

Business and internal control risks vary from firm to firm, according to the nature and complexity of the business. The FSA's assessment of these risks is reflected in how its rules apply to different categories of firm as well as in the use of its other regulatory tools. One of the tools the FSA has available is to give a firm individual guidance on the application of the requirements or standards under the regulatory system in the firm's particular circumstances.

21/06/2001

SUP 9.3.2

The FSA may give individual guidance to a firm on its own initiative if it considers it appropriate to do so. For example:

(1) the FSA may consider that general guidance in the Handbook does not appropriately fit a firm's particular circumstances (which may be permanent or temporary) and therefore decide to give additional individual guidance to the firm;
(2) some of the FSA's requirements are expressed in general terms; however, there may be times when the FSA will wish to respond to a firm's particular circumstances by giving individual guidance on the application of the general requirement in these circumstances;
(3) the FSA may consider that a firm should be given more detailed guidance than that contained in the Handbook; for example, where a firm holds positions in instruments of a non-standard form it may be appropriate to give the firm additional or more detailed guidance on how the FSA considers that it should calculate its financial resources requirement;
(4) in some instances a rule allows a firm to select which requirement, within a range of alternative requirements, a firm should comply with; in many instances, the Handbook gives guidance setting out the circumstances in which compliance with a particular requirement is appropriate; the FSA may sometimes consider it necessary to give additional individual guidance to tell a firm which requirement it considers appropriate;
(5) in relation to the maintenance of adequate financial resources, the FSA may give a firm individual guidance on the amount or type of financial resources the FSA considers appropriate, for example individual capital guidance for BIPRU firms and insurers; further guidance on how and when the FSA may give individual capital guidance on financial resources is contained in the Prudential Standards part of the Handbook:

(a) for a BIPRU firm: GENPRU 1.2 and BIPRU 2.2;
(b) for an insurer: GENPRU 1.2 and INSPRU 7.1;
(c) for a securities and futures firm (or other firm required to comply with IPRU(INV) 3 ): IPRU(INV)3-79R; and
(d) for an insurer: INSPRU 7

01/11/2007

SUP 9.3.3

If the FSA intends to give a firm individual guidance on its own initiative, it will normally seek to discuss the issue with the firm and agree suitable individual guidance.

21/06/2001

SUP 9.3.4

Individual guidance given to a firm on the FSA's own initiative will normally be given in writing.

21/06/2001

SUP 9.4

Reliance on individual guidance

01/12/2004

Reliance by recipient of individual guidance

SUP 9.4.1

If a person acts in accordance with current individual written guidance given to him by the FSA in the circumstances contemplated by that guidance, then the FSA will proceed on the footing that the person has complied with the aspects of the rule or other requirement to which the guidance relates.

21/06/2001

SUP 9.4.2

The extent to which a person can rely on individual guidance given to him will depend on many factors. These could include, for example, the degree of formality of the original query and the guidance given, and whether all relevant information was submitted with the request. Individual guidance is usually given in relation to a set of particular circumstances which exist when the guidance is given. If the circumstances later change, for example, because of a change in the circumstances of the person or a change in the underlying rule or other requirement, and the premises upon which individual guidance was given no longer apply, the guidance will cease to be effective.

21/06/2001

SUP 9.4.3

If the circumstances relating to individual guidance change it will be open to a person to ask for further guidance.

21/06/2001

Effect on rights of third parties

SUP 9.4.4

Rights conferred on third parties (such as a firm's clients) cannot be affected by guidance given by the FSA . Guidance on rules, the Act or other legislation represents the FSA's view, and does not bind the courts, for example in relation to an action for damages brought by a private person for breach of a rule (section 150 of the Act (Actions for damages)) or in relation to enforceability of a contract if the general prohibition is breached (sections 26 and 27 of the Act (Enforceability of agreements)). A person may need to seek his own legal advice.

21/06/2001

SUP 9.5

Disputes as to the interpretation of the Part 6 rules

01/07/2005

SUP 9.5.1

Where a person that is subject to any requirement of the Part 6 rules disagrees with the individual guidance given by the FSA , he can request that the guidance be reviewed at a meeting of senior FSA staff.

01/07/2005

SUP 9.5.2

Upon receiving a request under SUP 9.5.1 G senior FSA staff will review:

(1) the initial request for guidance;

(2) the individual circumstances of the person seeking the review; and

(3) the reasons why the person does not agree with the individual guidance.

01/07/2005

SUP 9.5.3

The outcome of the senior FSA staff meeting will be communicated to the person.

01/07/2005

SUP 9.5.4

A person that does not agree with the individual guidance that results from a senior FSA staff meeting, or a third party that is directly affected by that individual guidance may request that the guidance be reviewed by the Listing Authority Review Committee.

01/07/2005

SUP 9.5.5

The Listing Authority Review Committee has powers, delegated by the FSA Board, to resolve disputes on the application and interpretation of the requirements set out in LR, DTR and PR. A managing director of the FSA sits as chairman of the Listing Authority Review Committee.

01/07/2005

SUP 9.5.6

The person requesting the review can make representations to the Listing Authority Review Committee either orally or in writing.

01/07/2005

SUP 9.5.7

All decisions of the Listing Authority Review Committee are final and are determinative of the FSA's opinion as to the interpretation or application of the requirement in question.

01/07/2005

SUP 10

Approved
persons

SUP 10.1

Application

01/12/2004

General

SUP 10.1.1

This chapter applies to every firm.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.1.2

This chapter is also relevant to every approved person.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.1.3

The rules in this chapter specify descriptions of controlled functions under section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements).

01/11/2007

SUP 10.1.4

The directions in this chapter relate to the manner in which a firm must apply for the FSA's approval under section 59 of the Act and other procedures.

21/06/2001

Overseas firms: UK services

SUP 10.1.6

This chapter does not apply to an overseas firm in relation to regulated activities which are carried on in the United Kingdom other than from an establishment maintained by it or its appointed representative in the United Kingdom.

21/06/2001

Overseas firms: UK establishments

SUP 10.1.7

Only the following controlled functions apply to an overseas firm which maintains an establishment in the United Kingdom from which regulated activities are carried on:

(1) the director function where the person performing that function:

(a) has responsibility for the regulated activities of a UK branch which are likely to enable him to exercise significant influence over that branch; or

(b) is someone whose decisions or actions are regularly taken into account by the governing body of that branch.

(2) the non-executive director function where the person performing that function:

(a) has responsibility for the regulated activities of a UK branch which is likely to enable him to exercise significant influence over that branch; or

(b) is someone whose decisions or actions are regularly taken into account by the governing body of that branch.

(3) the chief executive function;

(4) the required functions;

(5) the systems and controls function;

(6) the significant management function in so far as the function relates to:

(a) designated investment business other than dealing in investments as principal, disregarding article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order; or

(b) processing confirmations, payments, settlements, insurance claims, client money and similar matters in so far as this relates to designated investment business; and

(7) the customer function.

06/08/2009

Incoming EEA firms, incoming Treaty firms and UCITS qualifiers

SUP 10.1.9

This chapter does not apply to:

(1) an incoming EEA firm; or

(2) an incoming Treaty firm; or

(3) a UCITS qualifier;

if and in so far as the question of whether a person is fit and proper to perform a particular function in relation to that firm is reserved, under any of the Single Market Directives, the Treaty or the UCITS Directive to an authority in a country or territory outside the United Kingdom.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.1.10

SUP 10.1.9 R reflects the provisions of section 59(8) of the Act and, in relation to an incoming Treaty firm and a UCITS qualifier, the Treaty and the UCITS Directive. It preserves the principle of Home State prudential regulation. In relation to an incoming EEA firm exercising an EEA right, or an incoming Treaty firm exercising a Treaty right, the effect is to reserve to the Home State regulator the assessment of the fitness and propriety of a person performing a function in the exercise of that right. A member of the governing body, or the notified UK branch manager, of an incoming EEA firm, acting in that capacity, will not therefore have to be approved by the FSA under the Act.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.1.11

But an incoming EEA firm (other than an EEA pure reinsurer), or incoming Treaty firm, will have had to consider the impact of the Host State rules with which it is required to comply when carrying on a passported activity or Treaty activity through a branch in the United Kingdom. An incoming EEA firm (other than an EEA pure reinsurer) will have been notified of those provisions under Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act in the course of satisfying the conditions for authorisation in the United Kingdom.

06/03/2009

SUP 10.1.12

An incoming EEA firm will have to consider, for example, the position of a branch manager based in the United Kingdom who may also be performing a function in relation to the carrying on of a regulated activity not covered by the EEA right of the firm. In so far as the function is within the description of a controlled function, the firm will need to seek approval for that person to perform that controlled function.

21/06/2001

Incoming EEA firms: passported activities from a branch

SUP 10.1.13

Only the following controlled functions apply to an incoming EEA firm with respect to its passported activities carried on from a branch in the United Kingdom:

(1) [deleted]

(2) [deleted]

(3) the money laundering reporting function;

(4) the significant management function in so far as the function relates to:

(a) designated investment business other than dealing in investments as principal, disregarding article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order; or

(b) processing confirmations, payments, settlements, insurance claims, client money and similar matters in so far as this relates to designated investment business; and

(5) [deleted]

(6) the customer function other than where this relates to the function in SUP 10.10.7A R (4).

06/08/2008

SUP 10.1.13D

If an incoming EEA firm is an EEA pure reinsurer then SUP 10.1.13 R does not apply.

06/03/2009

Incoming EEA firms etc with top-up permission activities from a UK branch

SUP 10.1.14

In relation to the activities of a firm for which it has a top-up permission, only the following controlled functions apply:

(1) the required functions, other than the apportionment and oversight function and the compliance oversight function;

(2) the significant management function in so far as it relates to:

(a) designated investment business other than dealing in investments as principal, disregarding article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order; or

(b) processing confirmations, payments, settlements, insurance claims, client money and similar matters in so far as this relates to designated investment business; and

(3) [deleted]

(4) the customer function.

06/08/2008

Appointed representatives

SUP 10.1.16

The descriptions of the following controlled functions apply to an appointed representative of a firm, except an introducer appointed representative, as they apply to a firm:

(1) the governing functions, subject to SUP 10.1.16A R and except for a tied agent of an EEA MiFID investment firm; and

(2) the customer function other than in relation to acting in the capacity of an investment manager (see SUP 10.10.7A R (6)).

01/11/2007

SUP 10.1.16A

(1) SUP 10.1.16 R is modified in relation to an appointed representative meeting the conditions in (2) so that only one of the following governing functions:

(a) director function; or

(b) chief executive function; or

(d) director of unincorporated association function;

applies, as appropriate, to an individual within that appointed representative who will be required to be an approved person.

(2) The conditions are that:

(a) the scope of appointment of the appointed representative includes insurance mediation activity in relation to non-investment insurance contracts but no other regulated activity, and

(b) the principal purpose of the appointed representative is to carry on activities other than regulated activities.

21/06/2001

Members of a profession

SUP 10.1.18

(1) This chapter, except in respect of the required functions, does not apply to an authorised professional firm respect of its non-mainstream regulated activities, subject to (2).

(2) Where the authorised professional firm has appointed approved persons to perform the governing functions with equivalent responsibilities for the firm's non-mainstream regulated activities and other regulated activities, for the firm's non-mainstream regulated activities this chapter applies with respect to the governing functions and the required functions (other than the apportionment and oversight function) only.

01/04/2009

Oil market participants, service companies, energy market participants, subsidiaries of local authorities or registered social landlords and insurance intermediaries.

SUP 10.1.21

The descriptions of significant influence functions, other than the required functions, and if the firm is a MiFID investment firm, the governing functions, do not extend to activities carried on by a firm whose principal purpose is to carry on activities other than regulated activities and which is:

(1) an oil market participant; or

(2) a service company; or

(3) an energy market participant; or

(4) a wholly owned subsidiary of:

(a) a local authority; or

(b) a registered social landlord; or

(5) a firm with permission to carry on insurance mediation activity in relation to non-investment insurance contracts but no other regulated activity.

01/11/2007

SUP 10.1.22

It will be a matter of fact in each case whether, having regard to all the circumstances, including in particular where the balance of the business lies, a firm's principal purpose is to carry on activities other than regulated activities. If a firm wishes to rely on SUP 10.1.21 R, it should be in a position to demonstrate that its principal purpose is to carry on activities other than regulated activities.

20/09/2001

Committees of the Society of Lloyd's

SUP 10.1.23

(1) For the purpose of SUP 10.6.4 R (the director function), "director" includes an executive member of a committee to which the Council of the Society of Lloyd's directly delegates authority to carry out the Society's regulatory functions.

(2) For the purpose of SUP 10.6.8 R (the non-executive director function), "non-executive director" includes a non-executive member of a committee to which the Council of the Society of Lloyd's directly delegates authority to carry out the Society's regulatory functions.

21/06/2001

Insolvency practitioners

SUP 10.1.26

This chapter does not apply to a function performed by:

(1) a person acting as an insolvency practitioner within the meaning of section 388 of the Insolvency Act 1986; or

(2) a person acting as a nominee in relation to a voluntary arrangement under Parts I (Company Voluntary Arrangements) and VIII (Individual Voluntary Arrangements) of the Insolvency Act 1986; or

(3) a person acting as an insolvency practitioner within the meaning of Article 3 of the Insolvency (Northern Ireland) Order 1989; or

(4) a person acting as a nominee in relation to a voluntary arrangement under Parts II (Company Voluntary Arrangements) and VIII (Individual Voluntary Arrangements) of the Insolvency (Northern Ireland) Order 1989.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.2

Purpose

01/12/2004

SUP 10.2.1

The immediate purpose of SUP 10.3 to SUP 10.10 is to specify, under section 59 of the Act, descriptions of the 16 controlled functions which are listed in SUP 10.4.5 R. The underlying purpose is to establish, and mark the boundaries of, the "approved persons regime".

06/02/2008

SUP 10.3

Provisions related to the act

01/12/2004

Arrangements and regulated activities

SUP 10.3.1

A function is a controlled function only to the extent that it is performed under an arrangement entered into by:

(1) a firm; or

(2) a contractor of the firm;

in relation to the carrying on by the firm of a regulated activity.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.3.2

Sections 59(1) and (2) of the Act provide that approval is necessary in respect of a controlled function which is performed under an arrangement entered into by a firm, or its contractor (typically an appointed representative), in relation to a regulated activity.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.3.3

Arrangement is defined in section 59(10) of the Act as any kind of arrangement for the performance of a function which is entered into by a firm or any of its contractors with another person and includes the appointment of a person to an office, his becoming a partner, or his employment (whether under a contract of service or otherwise). For the provisions in this chapter relating to outsourcing, see SUP 10.12.3 G and SUP 10.12.4 G.

01/12/2002

SUP 10.3.4

If, however, a firm is a member of a group, and the arrangements for the performance of a controlled function of the firm are made by, say, the holding company, the person performing the function will only require approval if there is an arrangement (under section 59(1)) or a contract (under section 59(2)) between the firm and holding company permitting this. This need not be a written contract but could arise, for example, by conduct, custom and practice.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.3.5

The arrangement must be "in relation to" the carrying on of a regulated activity. Regulated activities are defined in the Glossary by reference to the Regulated Activities Order. This order prescribes the activities which are regulated activities for the purposes of the Act.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.4

Specification of functions

01/12/2004

SUP 10.4.1

Each of the functions described in SUP 10.4.5 R (the table of controlled functions) is a controlled function.

01/12/2002

SUP 10.4.3

The fact that a person may be approved for one purpose does not have the effect of bringing all his activities within that controlled function.

01/12/2002

SUP 10.4.5

Controlled functions

Type

Description of controlled function

Governing functions *

Director function

Non-executive director function

Chief executive function

Partner function

Director of unincorporated association function

Small friendly society function

[deleted]

Required functions*

Apportionment and oversight function

[deleted]

Compliance oversight function

Money laundering reporting function

Actuarial function

12A

With-profits actuary function

12B

Lloyd's actuary function

Systems and controls function*

Systems and controls function

[deleted]

Significant management function*

Significant management function

[deleted]

Customer functions

[deleted]

Customer function

*significant influence functions

06/08/2009

SUP 10.5

Significant influence functions

01/12/2004

What are the significant influence functions?

SUP 10.5.1

The significant influence functions, which are specified in SUP 10.4.1 R, comprise the governing functions (see SUP 10.6), the required functions (see SUP 10.7), the systems and controls function (see SUP 10.8) and the significant management functions (see SUP 10.9). SUP 10.5 applies to each of the significant influence functions.

01/11/2007

The first condition

SUP 10.5.2

Each significant influence function is one which is likely to result in the person responsible for its performance exercising a significant influence on the conduct of a firm's affairs, so far as relating to a regulated activity of the firm.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.5.3

SUP 10.5.2 R gives effect to section 59(5) of the Act (where this provision is referred to as the first condition).

21/06/2001

SUP 10.5.4

Whether a controlled function is likely to result in the person responsible for its performance exercising significant influence on the conduct of the firm's affairs is a question of fact in each case. The FSA has identified the significant influence functions as satisfying this condition.

01/11/2007

Periods of less than 12 weeks

SUP 10.5.5

If:

(1) a firm appoints an individual to perform a function which, but for this rule, would be a significant influence function;

(2) the appointment is to provide cover for an approved person whose absence is:

(a) temporary; or

(b) reasonably unforeseen; and

(3) the appointment is for less than 12 weeks in a consecutive 12 month period;

the description of the relevant significant influence function does not relate to those activities of that individual.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.5.6

SUP 10.5.5 R enables cover to be given for, say, holidays and emergencies and avoids the need for the precautionary approval of, for example, a deputy. However, as soon as it becomes apparent that a person will be performing a controlled function for more than 12 weeks, the firm should apply for approval.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.6

Governing functions

01/12/2004

Introduction

SUP 10.6.1

Every firm will have one or more persons responsible for directing its affairs. These persons will be performing the governing functions and will be required to be approved persons unless the application provisions in SUP 10.1, or the particular description of a controlled function, provide otherwise. For example, each director of a company incorporated under the Companies Acts will perform the governing function in relation to that company.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.6.1A

A sole trader does not fall within the description of the governing functions.

01/02/2007

What the governing functions include

SUP 10.6.2

Each of the governing functions (other than the non-executive director function and the function described in SUP 10.6.4 R (2)) includes where apportioned under SYSC 2.1.1 R or SYSC 4.3.1 R and SYSC 4.4.3 R:

(1) the systems and controls function; and

(2) the significant management function.

06/08/2009

SUP 10.6.3

The effect of SUP 10.6.2 R is that a person who is approved to perform a governing function (other than the non-executive function and the function described in SUP 10.6.4 R (2)) will not have to be specifically approved to perform the systems and controls function or the significant management function. A person who is approved to perform a governing function will have to be additionally approved before he can perform any of the required functions or the customer function.

06/08/2009

SUP 10.6.3A

A firm carrying on insurance mediation activity, other than a sole trader, must allocate to a director or senior manager the responsibility for the firm's insurance mediation activity (MIPRU 2.2.1 R). MIPRU 2.2.2 R (1) provides that the firm may allocate this responsibility to one or more of the persons performing a governing function (other than the non-executive director function).

06/01/2008

SUP 10.6.3B

Where a person performing a governing function is also responsible for the firm's insurance mediation activity, the words "(insurance mediation)" will be inserted after the relevant controlled function (see MIPRU 2.2.5 G ).

01/11/2007

Director function (CF1)

SUP 10.6.4

If a firm is a body corporate (other than a limited liability partnership), the director function is the function of acting in the capacity of either a:

(1) director (other than non-executive director) of that firm; or

(2) a person:

(a) who is a director, partner, officer, member (if the parent undertaking or holding company is a limited liability partnership), senior manager, or employee (other than a non-executive director) of a parent undertaking or holding company (except where that parent undertaking or holding companyhas a Part IV permission or is regulated by an EEA regulator); and

(b) whose decisions or actions are regularly taken into account by the governing body of the firm.

06/10/2009

SUP 10.6.5

Examples of where SUP 10.6.4 R (2) would apply include (but are not limited to):

(1) a chairman of an audit committee of a parent undertaking or holding company of a UK firm where that audit committee is working for that UK firm (that is, functioning as the audit committee for the group); or

(2) a director (other than a non-executive director) of a parent undertaking or holding company of a UK firm exercising significant influence by way of his involvement in taking decisions for that UK firm; or

(3) an individual (such as a senior manager) of a parent undertaking or holding company of a UK firm who is responsible for and/or has significant influence in setting the objectives for and the remuneration of executive directors of that UK firm; or

(4) an individual who is a director (other than a non-executive director) or a senior manager of a parent undertaking or holding company of a UK firm who is accustomed to influencing the operations of that UK firm, and acts in a manner in which it can reasonably be expected that an executive director or senior manager of that UK firm would act; or

(5) an individual of an overseas firm which maintains an establishment in the United Kingdom from which regulated activities are carried on where that individual has responsibilities for those regulated activities which are likely to enable him to exercise significant influence over the UK branch.

06/08/2009

SUP 10.6.7

A director can be a body corporate and may accordingly require approval as an approved person in the same way as a natural person may require approval.

21/06/2001

Non-executive director function (CF2)

SUP 10.6.8

(1) If a firm is a body corporate, the non-executive director function is the function of acting in the capacity ofeither a:

(a) non-executive director of that firm ; or

(b) non-executive director of a parent undertaking or holding company (except where that parent undertaking or holding companyhas a Part IV permission or is regulated by an EEA regulator) whose decisions, or actions are regularly taken into account by the governing body of the firm.

(2) If a firm is a long-term insurer, the non-executive director function is also the function of acting in the capacity of an individual (other than an individual performing the director function or the non-executive director function under (1)) who, as a member of a committee having the purpose of a with-profits committee, has responsibility in relation to governance arrangements for with-profits business under COBS 20.3 (Principles and Practices of Financial Management).

06/10/2009

SUP 10.6.9

Examples of where SUP 10.6.8 R (1)(b) would apply include (but are not limited to):

(1) an individual who is a non-executive director of a parent undertaking or holding company who takes an active role in the running of the business of a UK firm, for example, as a member of a board or committee (on audit or remuneration) of that firm; or

(2) an individual who is a non-executive director of a parent undertaking or holding company having significant influence in setting and monitoring the business strategy of the UK firm; or

(3) an individual who is a non-executive director of a parent undertaking or holding company of a UK firm involved in carrying out responsibilities such as scrutinising the approach of executive management, performance, or standards of conduct of the UK firm; or

(4) an individual who is a non-executive director of a parent undertaking or holding company of a UK firm who is accustomed to influence the operations of the UK firm, and acts in a way in which it can reasonably be expected that a non-executive director of the UK firm would act; or

(5) an individual who is a non-executive director of an overseas firm which maintains a branch in the United Kingdom from which regulated activities are carried on where that individual has responsibilities for those regulated activities which are likely to enable him to exercise significant influence over the UK branch.

06/08/2009

Guidance on CF1 and CF2

SUP 10.6.10

(1) This paragraph explains the basis on which the director function and non-executive director function are applied to persons who have a position with the firm's parent undertaking or holding company under SUP 10.6.4 R (2) or SUP 10.6.8 R (1)(b) .

(2) The basic position is set out in SUP 10.3.4 G. As is the case with all controlled functions, SUP 10.6.4 R (2) and SUP 10.6.8 R (1)(b) are subject to the overriding provisions in SUP 10.3.1 R, which sets out the requirements of sections 59(1) and (2) of the Act. This means that unless the firm has an arrangement or a contract permitting the performance of these roles by the persons concerned, these persons will not be performing these controlled functions. Therefore, the FSA accepts that there will be cases in which a person performing these roles will not require approval.

(3) However the FSA expects that in general a person who performs these roles will perform the director function or the non-executive director function. This is because the FSA would expect that a firm that allows major decisions to be taken by a group decision-making body will do so on the basis of a formal delegation from the firm's governing body. This delegation will amount to an arrangement for the purposes of section 59 of the Act.

06/08/2009

Chief executive function (CF3)

SUP 10.6.11

The chief executive function is the function of acting in the capacity of a chief executive of a firm.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.6.13

This function is having the responsibility, alone or jointly with one or more others, under the immediate authority of the governing body, for the conduct of the whole of the business (or relevant activities); or, in the case of a branch in the United Kingdom of an overseas firm, for all of the activities subject to the UK regulatory system.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.6.14

For a branch in the United Kingdom of an overseas firm, the FSA would not normally expect the overseas chief executive of the firm as a whole to be approved for this function where there is a senior manager under him with specific responsibility for those activities of the branch which are subject to the UK regulatory system. In some circumstances, the person within the firm responsible for UK operations may, if the function is likely to enable him to exercise significant influence over the branch, also perform the chief executive function (see SUP 10.7.4 G).

01/11/2007

SUP 10.6.15

A person performing the chief executive function may be a member of the governing body but need not be. If the chairman of the governing body is also the chief executive, he will be discharging this function. If the responsibility is divided between more than one person but not shared, there is no person exercising the chief executive function. But if that responsibility is discharged jointly by more than one person, each of those persons will be performing the chief executive function.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.6.16

Note that a body corporate may be a chief executive. If so, it will need to be approved to perform the chief executive function.

21/06/2001

Partner function (CF4)

SUP 10.6.17

(1) If a firm is a partnership, the partner function is the function of acting in the capacity of a partner in that firm.

(2) If the principal purpose of the firm is to carry on one or more regulated activities, each partner performs the partner function.

(3) If the principal purpose of the firm is other than to carry on regulated activities:

(a) a partner performs the partner function to the extent only that he has responsibility for a regulated activity; and

(b) a partner in a firm will be taken to have responsibility for each regulated activity except where the partnership has apportioned responsibility to another partner or group of partners.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.6.19

Any apportionment referred to in SUP 10.6.17 R (3)(b) will have taken place under SYSC 2.1.1 R or SYSC 4.3.1 R and SYSC 4.4.3 R. The FSA may ask to see details of the apportionment but will not require, as a matter of course, a copy of the material which records this (see SYSC 2.2).

01/04/2009

SUP 10.6.20

The effect of SUP 10.1.18 R is that regulated activity in SUP 10.6.17 R (and elsewhere) is to be taken as not including an activity that is a non-mainstream exempt regulated activity. Therefore, a partner whose only regulated activities are incidental to his professional services, in a partnership whose principal purpose is to carry on other than regulated activities, need not be an approved person. What amounts to the principal purpose of the firm is a matter of fact in each case having regard to all the circumstances, including the activities of the firm as a whole. Any regulated activities which such a partner carries on are not within the description of the partner function.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.6.21

If a firm is a limited liability partnership, the partner function extends to the firm as if the firm were a partnership and a member of the firm were a partner.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.6.23

If a partnership is registered under the Limited Partnership Act 1907, the partnerfunction does not extend to any function performed by a limited partner.

21/06/2001

Director of unincorporated association function (CF5)

SUP 10.6.24

If a firm is an unincorporated association, the director of unincorporated association function is the function of acting in the capacity of a director of the unincorporated association.

21/06/2001

Small friendly society function (CF6)

SUP 10.6.26

(1) If a firm is a non-directive friendly society, the small friendly society function is the function of directing its affairs, either alone or jointly with others.

(2) If the principal purpose of the firm is to carry on regulated activities, each person with responsibility for directing its affairs performs the controlled function.

(3) If the principal purpose of the firm is other than to carry on regulated activities, a person performs the small friendly society function only to the extent that he has responsibility for a regulated activity.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.6.28

(1) Each person on the non-directive friendly society's governing body will be taken to have responsibility for its regulated activities, unless the firm has apportioned this responsibility to one particular individual to whom it is reasonable to give this responsibility.

(2) The individual need not be a member of the governing body.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.6.29

(1) Typically a non-directive friendly Society will appoint a "committee of management" to direct its affairs. However, the governing arrangements may be informal and flexible. If this is the case, the FSA would expect the society to resolve to give responsibility for the carrying on of regulated activities to one individual who is appropriate in all the circumstances. That individual may, for example, have the title of chief executive or similar. The individual would have to be an approved person under SUP 10.6.26 R.

(2) Any apportionment of responsibilities will have taken place under SYSC 2.1.1 R. The FSA may ask to see details of the apportionment but will not require, as a matter of course, a copy of the material which records this (seeSYSC 2.2).

21/06/2001

SUP 10.6.30

(1) [deleted]

(2) [deleted]

01/02/2007

SUP 10.7

Required functions

01/12/2004

Apportionment and oversight function (CF8)

SUP 10.7.1

The apportionment and oversight function is the function of acting in the capacity of a director or senior manager responsible for either or both of the apportionment function and the oversight function set out in SYSC 2.1.3 R or SYSC 4.4.5 R.

01/04/2009

SUP 10.7.2A

In requiring someone to apportion responsibility, a common platform firm should not apply for that person or persons to be approved to perform the apportionment and oversight function (see SUP 10.7.1 R, SYSC 2.1.3 R and SYSC 1.1.3 R (5)).

01/11/2007

SUP 10.7.3

The fact that there is a person performing the apportionment and oversight function, and who has responsibility for activities subject to regulation by the FSA, may have a bearing on whether a manager who is based overseas will be performing a controlled function. It is a factor to take into account when assessing the likely influence of the overseas manager.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.7.4

Generally, in relation to a UK establishment of an overseas firm or a firm which is part of an overseas group, where an overseas manager's responsibilities in relation to the United Kingdom are strategic only, he will not need to be an approved person. However, where, in accordance with SYSC 3 or SYSC 4 to SYSC 10, he is responsible for implementing that strategy in the United Kingdom, and has not delegated that responsibility to a senior manager in the United Kingdom, he is likely to be performing a controlled function, such as, for example, the chief executive function. This is subject to SUP 10.1.13A R, which applies where the firm is a MiFID investment firm and the only regulated activities carried out by it in the United Kingdom are MiFID business.

01/11/2007

SUP 10.7.4A

A firm carrying on insurance mediation activity, other than a sole trader, must allocate to a director or senior manager the responsibility for the firm's insurance mediation activity (MIPRU 2.2.1 R). MIPRU 2.2.2 R (2) provides that the firm may allocate this responsibility to the person performing the apportionment and oversight function.

06/01/2008

SUP 10.7.4B

Where the person performing the apportionment and oversight function is also responsible for the firm's insurance mediation activity, the words "(insurance mediation)" will be inserted after this controlled function (see MIPRU 2.2.5 G ).

01/11/2007

EEA investment business oversight function (CF9)

Compliance oversight function (CF10)

SUP 10.7.8

The compliance oversight function is the function of acting in the capacity of a director or senior manager who is allocated the function set out in SYSC 3.2.8 R or SYSC 6.1.4 R (2).

01/11/2007

Money laundering reporting function (CF11)

SUP 10.7.13

The money laundering reporting function is the function of acting in the capacity of the money laundering reporting officer of a firm.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.7.13A

A firm's obligations in respect of its money laundering reporting officer are set out elsewhere in the Handbook (see SYSC 3.2.6I R and SYSC 6.3.9 R and for their scope, see the application provisions in SYSC 1 Annex 1).

01/04/2009

Actuarial function (CF12) and with-profits actuary function (CF12A)

SUP 10.7.17

The actuarial function is the function of acting in the capacity of an actuary appointed by a firm under SUP 4.3.1 R to perform the duties set out in SUP 4.3.13 R.

31/12/2004

SUP 10.7.17A

The with-profits actuary function is the function of acting in capacity of an actuary appointed by a firm under SUP 4.3.1 R to perform the duties set out in SUP 4.3.16A R.

31/12/2004

Lloyd's actuary function (CF12B)

SUP 10.7.22

The Lloyd's actuary function is the function of acting in the capacity of the actuary appointed under SUP 4.6.1 R to perform the duties set out in SUP 4.6.7 R.

01/11/2007

SUP 10.8

Systems and control functions

01/12/2004

Systems and controls function (CF28)

SUP 10.8.1

The systems and controls function is the function of acting in the capacity of an employee of the firm with responsibility for reporting to the governing body of a firm, or the audit committee (or its equivalent) in relation to:

(1) its financial affairs;

(2) setting and controlling its risk exposure (see SYSC 3.2.10 G and SYSC 7.1.6 R);

(3) adherence to internal systems and controls, procedures and policies (see SYSC 3.2.16 G and SYSC 6.2).

01/11/2007

SUP 10.8.2A

Where an employee performs the systems and controls function the FSA would expect the firm to ensure that the employee had sufficient expertise and authority to perform that function effectively. A director or senior manager would meet this expectation.

01/11/2007

SUP 10.9

Significant management functions

01/12/2004

Application

SUP 10.9.1

SUP 10.9 applies only to a firm which:

(1) under SYSC 2.1.1 R or SYSC 4.4.4 G, apportions a significant responsibility, within the description of the significant management function, to a senior manager of a significant business unit; or

(2) undertakes proprietary trading.

06/08/2009

SUP 10.9.2

The FSA anticipates that there will be only a few firms needing to seek approval for an individual to perform the significant management function set out in SUP 10.9.1 R (1). In most firms, those approved for the governing functions, required functions and, where appropriate, the systems and controls function, are likely to exercise all the significant influence at senior management level.

06/08/2009

SUP 10.9.2A

A proprietary trader undertakes activities with the firm's money and has the ability to commit the firm. By virtue of this role, all proprietary traders have potential to be able to exercise significant influence on the firm for the purposes of section 59(4) and (5) of the Act. It is therefore the FSA's expectation that all firms will assess all their proprietary traders to ascertain the ones for whom approval is required.

06/08/2009

SUP 10.9.3

The scale, nature and complexity of the firm's business may be such that a firm apportions under SUP 10.9.1 R (1) a significant responsibility to an individual who is not approved to perform the governing functions, required functions or, where appropriate, the systems and controls function. If so,v the firm should consider whether the functions of that individual fall within the significant management function. For the purposes of the description of the significant management functions, the following additional factors about the firm should be considered:

(1) the size and significance of the firm's business in the United Kingdom; for example, a firm carrying on designated investment business may have a large number of approved persons (for example, in excess of 100 individuals); or a firm carrying on general insurance business may have gross written premiums in excess of £100mn;

(2) the number of regulated activities carried on, or proposed to be carried on, by the firm and (if relevant) other members of the group;

(3) its group structure (if it is a member of a group);

(4) its management structure (for example matrix management); and

(5) the size and significance of its international operations, if any.

06/08/2009

SUP 10.9.4

When considering whether a business unit is significant, the firm should take into account all relevant factors in the light of the firm's current circumstances and its plans for the future, including:

(1) the risk profile of the unit; or

(2) its use or commitment of a firm's capital; or

(3) its contribution to the profit and loss account; or

(4) the number of employees or approved persons in the unit; or

(5) the number of customers of the unit; or

(6) any other factor which makes the unit significant to the conduct of the firm's affairs so far as relating to the regulated activity.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.9.5

The question may arise whether a manager who is based overseas will be performing the significant management function under SUP 10.9.10 R (1) and should therefore be an approved person. This is especially true where the firm operates matrix management. The fact there is a person performing the apportionment and oversight function, and who has responsibility for activities subject to regulation by the FSA, may have a bearing on this. It is a factor to take into account when assessing the likely influence of the overseas manager.

06/08/2009

SUP 10.9.6

Generally, in relation to a branch of a firm, or a firm which is part of an overseas group, where an overseas manager is responsible for strategy, he will not need to be an approved person under SUP 10.9.10 R. However, where he is responsible for implementing that strategy in the United Kingdom, and has not delegated that responsibility to a senior manager in the United Kingdom, he is likely to be performing that controlled function.

06/08/2009

SUP 10.9.7

See also SUP 10.7.3 G to SUP 10.7.4B G in relation to matrix management.

01/11/2007

Significant management function (CF29)

SUP 10.9.10

(1) The significant management function is the function of acting as a senior manager with significant responsibility for a significant business unit that:

(a) carries on designated investment business or other activities not falling within (b) to (d);

(b) effects contracts of insurance (other than contractually based investments);

(c) makes material decisions on the commitment of a firm's financial resources, its financial commitments, its assets acquisitions, its liability management and its overall cash and capital planning;

(d) processes confirmations, payments, settlements, insurance claims, client money and similar matters.

(1A) The significant management function also includes the function of acting as a proprietary trader.

(2) This controlled function does not include any of the activities described in any other controlled function.

06/08/2009

SUP 10.9.10A

A senior managercarrying on the significant management function under SUP 10.9.10 R (1)with significant responsibility for a significant business unit that carries on activities other than designated investment business for the purposes of SUP 10.9.10 R (1)(a) could, for example, be the head of a unit carrying on the activities of: retail banking, personal lending, corporate lending, salvage or loan recovery, or proprietary trading, or a member of a committee (that is, a person who, together with others, has authority to commit the firm) making decisions in these functions.

06/08/2009

SUP 10.9.10B

A proprietary trader also undertakes activities which may have a significant influence on the firm. Such activities may require approval for CF29 under SUP 10.9.10 R (1A).

06/08/2009

SUP 10.9.13A

A firm carrying on insurance mediation activity, other than a sole trader, must allocate to a director or senior manager the responsibility for the firm's insurance mediation activity (MIPRU 2.2.1 R). MIPRU 2.2.2 R (3)) provides that the firm may allocate this responsibility to the person performing the significant management function.

06/01/2008

SUP 10.9.13B

Where the person performing the significant management function is also responsible for the firm's insurance mediation activity, the words "(insurance mediation)" will be inserted after this controlled function (see MIPRU 2.2.5 G ).

01/11/2007

SUP 10.10

Customer functions

01/12/2004

SUP 10.10.1

SUP 10.10 ( Customer function) applies with respect to activities carried on from an establishment maintained by the firm (or by its appointed representative) in the United Kingdom.

01/11/2007

SUP 10.10.2

Without SUP 10.10.1 R the description of the customer function would extend to this function wherever it was performed. The effect of SUP 10.10.1 R is that the description islimited, in relation to regulated activities with an overseas element, in a manner which is broadly consistent with the scope of conduct of business regulation.

01/11/2007

SUP 10.10.3

The customer functions has to do with giving advice on, dealing and arranging deals in and managing investments; it has no application to banking business such as deposit taking and lending, nor to general insurance business.

01/11/2007

The customer conditions (the second and third conditions)

SUP 10.10.4

The customer function is one which will involve the person performing it in dealing with clients , or dealing with property of clients , of a firm in a manner substantially connected with the carrying on of a regulated activity of the firm.

01/11/2007

SUP 10.10.5

SUP 10.10.4 R gives effect to sub-sections (6) and (7) of section 59 of the Act (referred to in that section as the second and third conditions).

01/11/2007

SUP 10.10.6

The FSA interprets the phrase "dealing with" as including having contact with customers and extending beyond "dealing" as used in the phrase "dealing in investments". "Dealing in" is used in Schedule 2 to the Act to describe in general terms the regulated activities which are specified in Part II of the Regulated Activities Order.

21/06/2001

Customer function (CF 30)

SUP 10.10.7A

The customer function is the function of:

(1) advising on investments other than a non-investment insurance contract (but not where this is advising on investments in the course of carrying on the activity of giving basic advice on a stakeholder product) and performing other functions related to this such as dealing and arranging;

(2) giving advice to clients solely in connection with corporate finance business and performing other functions related to this;

(3) giving advice or performing related activities in connection with pension transfers or opt-outs for retail clients;

(4) giving advice to a person to become, or continue or cease to be, a member of a particular Lloyd's syndicate;

(5) dealing, as principal or as agent, and arranging (bringing about) deals in investments other than a non-investment insurance contract with or for, or in connection with customers where the dealing or arranging deals is governed by COBS 11 (Dealing and managing);

(6) acting in the capacity of an investment manager and carrying on functions connected to this.

01/11/2007

SUP 10.10.7B

The customer function does not extend to an individual who is performing the functions in SUP 10.10.7A R (1) to (2) or SUP 10.10.7A R (5) to (6) and who is based overseas and who, in a 12 month period, spends no more than 30 days in the United Kingdom to the extent that he is appropriately supervised by a person approved for this function.

01/11/2007

SUP 10.10.7C

The FSA would expect an individual from overseas to be accompanied on a visit to a customer. TC 2.1.9 R (2) provides that the firm will have to be satisfied that the individual has at least three years' up-to-date relevant experience obtained outside the United Kingdom. However, the remaining provisions of TC 2.1.9 R (2) are disapplied in these circumstances (except for an individual who gives advice to retail clients on packaged products or is a broker fund adviser). The effect of this is that such individuals need not attain the relevant regulatory module of an appropriate qualification (see TC 2.1.9 R (2)).

01/01/2011

SUP 10.10.7D

The customer function in SUP 10.10.7A R (5) does not extend to the individual who, on the instructions of the customer, simply inputs the customer's instructions into an automatic execution system where no discretion is or may be exercised by the individual performing the activity. Nor does it extend to merely introducing a customer to a firm or distributing advertisements.

01/11/2007

SUP 10.10.7E

An individual may advise on investments prior to being assessed as competent in accordance with the rules in the Senior Management Arrangements, Systems and Controls sourcebook (SYSC) and, where relevant, the Training and Competence sourcebook (TC). The firm shall record when that person subsequently becomes competent.

01/11/2007

SUP 10.11

Procedures relating to approved persons

01/12/2004

Forms

SUP 10.11.1

The forms listed in SUP 10.11.2 G are referred to in SUP 10.11 (Procedures relating to approved persons) to SUP 10.14 (Further questions).

21/06/2001

SUP 10.11.2

Approved persons forms

Form

Purpose

Handbook requirement

the relevant Form A

The relevant online form on the FSA's ONA system or the form in SUP 10 Annex 4D (See Note)

Application to perform controlled functions under the approved persons regime

SUP 10.12.2D

Form B

SUP 10 Annex 5R

Notice to withdraw an application to perform controlled functions under the approved persons regime

SUP 10.12.13R

Form C

SUP 10 Annex 6R

Notice of ceasing to perform controlled functions

SUP 10.13.6R

Form D

SUP 10 Annex 7R

Notification of changes in personal information or application details

SUP 10.13.14R

Form E

The relevant online form on the FSA's ONA system or the form in SUP 10 Annex 8D (See Note)

Internal transfer of an approved person

SUP 10.13.3 D

Note: The form in the SUP annex shown is to be used by credit unions, and by other firms only in the event of a failure of the FSA's information technology systems. See the relevant "Handbook requirement".

04/10/2010

SUP 10.11.3

A summary of the forms and their purposes is in SUP 10 Annex 2 G.

04/10/2010

SUP 10.11.4

Unless the context otherwise requires, in SUP 10.11 (Procedures relating to approved persons) to SUP 10.14 (Further questions) where reference is made to a firm, this also includes an applicant for Part IV permission, and other persons seeking to carry on regulated activities as an authorised person.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.11.5

Forms B, C, D and E can only be submitted in respect of an approved person by the firm that submitted an approved person's original application (that is, the relevant Form A).

01/11/2007

SUP 10.11.6

Copies of Forms A, B, C, D and E may be obtained from the FSA website.Credit unions can obtain copies from the Individuals, Mutuals and Policy Departmentby email at iva@fsa.gov.uk or from the FSA's Firm Contact Centre. To contact the Individuals, Mutuals and Policy Department for general enquiries:

(1) telephone 020 7066 0019; or

(2) fax 020 7066 0017; or

(3) write to:

Individuals, Mutuals and Policy Department

The Financial Services Authority

25 The North Colonnade

Canary Wharf

LONDON E14 5HS; or

(4) e-mail iva@fsa.gov.uk

04/10/2010

SUP 10.12

Application for approval and withdrawing an application for approval

01/12/2004

When to apply for approval

SUP 10.12.1

In accordance with section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements), where a candidate will be performing one or more controlled functions, a firm must take reasonable care to ensure that the candidate does not perform these functions unless he has prior approval from the FSA.

21/06/2001

How to apply for approval

SUP 10.12.2

An application by a firm for the FSA's approval under section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements) must be made by completing Form A.

(1) An application by a firm other than a credit union must be made by submitting Form A online at www.fsa.gov.uk using the form specified on the FSA's ONA system.

(2) An application by a credit union must be made using the form in SUP 10 Annex 4D and must be submitted in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).

(3) Where a firm is obliged to submit an application online under (1), if the FSA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, until such time as facilities for online submission are restored a firm must use the form in SUP 10 Annex 4 D and submit it in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).

[Note: See SUP 10.13.5G for the circumstances in which a shortened Form A may be used.]

04/10/2010

SUP 10.12.2A

(1) If the FSA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FSA will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that online submission is unavailable and that the alternative methods of submission set out in SUP 10.12.2D (3) and SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification) should be used.

(2) Where SUP 10.12.2D (3)) applies to a firm, GEN 1.3.2 R (Emergency) does not apply.

04/10/2010

Who should make the application?

SUP 10.12.3

(1) In accordance with section 60 of the Act (Applications for approval), applications must be submitted by, or on behalf of, the firm itself, not by:

(a) the candidate; or

(b) (where the candidate works for the firm's parent undertaking or holding company) by the firm's parent undertaking or holding company

(2) Usually this will be the firm that is employing the candidate to perform the controlled function. Where a firm has outsourced the performance of a controlled function, the details of the outsourcing determine where responsibility lies and whom the FSA anticipates will submit approved persons application forms. SUP 10.12.4 G describes some common situations. The firm which is outsourcing is referred to as "A" and the person to whom the performance of the controlled function has been outsourced, or which makes the arrangement for the controlled function to be performed, is referred to as "B". In each situation, A must take reasonable care to ensure that, in accordance with section 59(2) of the Act, no person performs a controlled function under an arrangement entered into by its contractor in relation to the carrying on by A of a regulated activity, without approval from the FSA. See also SYSC 3.2.4 G and SYSC 8.1.1 R, and for insurers SYSC 13.9.

06/10/2009

SUP 10.12.4

Outsourcing arrangements

Submitting form

Firm A to firm B

The FSA will consider A to have taken reasonable care if it enters into a contract with B under which B is responsible for ensuring that the relevant controlled functions are performed by approved persons, and that it is reasonable for A to rely on this

Firm B submits approved persons forms on behalf of firm A

Outsourcing by A to B (both being a member of the same United Kingdom group and each having its registered office in the United Kingdom)

See SUP 10.3.4 G

See SUP 15.7.8 G

(i) A to B, where B is a non-authorised person not part of the samegroup as A
(ii) A to B, where A is a branch of an overseas firm in the United Kingdom, and B is an overseas undertaking of the samegroup
(iii) A to B, where A is a UK authorised subsidiary of an overseas firm, and B is an overseas undertaking of the same group

Responsibility for (as opposed to the performance of) any activity outsourced to B will remain with A. See SYSC 3.2.4 G and SYSC 8

A ensures that an individual approved under one of the significant influence functions has responsibility for the outsourced arrangement and A submits a form in relation to that individual

01/01/2007

SUP 10.12.4A

Where the notification of an appointed representative (SUP 12.7.1 R) is linked to an application for approval (SUP 10.12 (Applications for approval and withdrawing an application for approval)), any delay in receiving the notification under SUP 12.7.1 R may delay the FSA's approval of the individuals employed by that appointed representative who will be performing controlled functions for the firm.

01/12/2002

Processing an application

SUP 10.12.5

The Act allows the FSA three months from the time it receives a properly completed application to consider it and come to a decision. The FSA must either grant the application or, if it proposes not to grant an application, issue a warning notice (see DEPP 2 ). The FSA will deal with cases more quickly than this whenever circumstances allow and will try to meet the standard response times published on the website and in its Annual Report. However, if an application is incomplete when received, or the FSA has knowledge that, or reason to believe that, the information is incomplete, then the processing time will be longer than the published standard response times.

28/08/2008

SUP 10.12.6

Application forms must always be completed fully and honestly. Further notes on how to complete the form are contained in each form. If forms are not completed fully and honestly, applications will be subject to investigation and the candidate's suitability to be approved to undertake a controlled function will be called into question.A person who provides information to the FSA that is false or misleading may commit a criminal offence, and could face prosecution under section 398 of the Act regardless of the status of their application.

06/12/2009

SUP 10.12.7

If there is a delay in processing the application within the standard response time, the FSA will tell the firm making the application as soon as this becomes apparent.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.12.8

Before making a decision to grant the application or give a warning notice, the FSA may ask the firm for more information about the candidate. If it does this, the three month period in which the FSA must determine a completed application:

(1) will stop on the day the FSA requests the information; and

(2) will start running again on the day on which the FSA finally receives all the requested information.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.12.9

The FSA may grant an application only if it is satisfied that the candidate is a fit and proper person to perform the controlled function stated in the application form. Responsibility lies with the firm making the application to satisfy the FSA that the candidate is fit and proper to perform the controlled function applied for.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.12.10

For further guidance on criteria for assessing whether a candidate is fit and proper, see FIT.

21/06/2001

Decisions on applications

SUP 10.12.11

Whenever it grants an application, the FSA will confirm this in writing to all interested parties.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.12.12

If the FSA proposes to refuse an application in relation to one or more controlled functions, it must follow the procedures for issuing warning and decision notices to all interested parties. The requirements relating to warning and decision notices are in DEPP 2.

28/08/2007

Withdrawing an application for approval

SUP 10.12.13

A firm applying to withdraw an application for approvalmust notify the FSA, using Form B, in the form set out in SUP 10 Annex 5 R.

04/10/2010

SUP 10.12.14

Under section 61(5) of the Act (Determination of applications), the firm may withdraw an application only if it also has the consent of the candidate and the person by whom the candidate is or would have been employed, if this is not the firm making the application.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.13

Changes to an approved person's details

01/12/2004

Moving within a firm

SUP 10.13.1

An approved person's job may change from time to time as a result, for instance, of a change in personal job responsibilities or a firm's regulated activities. Where the changes will involve the person performing one or more different controlled functions from those for which approval has already been granted, then an application must be made to the FSA for approval for the person to perform those controlled functions. The firm must take reasonable care to ensure that an individual does not begin performing a controlled function until the FSA has granted approved person status to that individual in respect of that controlled function. This applies to individuals seeking approval in respect of a controlled function within the firm for which they already perform controlled functions. If the approved person is ceasing to perform controlled functions, as well as applying for approval in respect of additional controlled functions, then refer to SUP 10.13.3 D.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.13.2

SUP 10.12.2 D applies where an individual is to perform further controlled functions for a firm for which he already performs a controlled function as an approved person (see SUP 10.12.2 D). It is not mandatory to complete all parts of the form. See the notes relevantto eachform for full details.

04/10/2010

SUP 10.13.3

A firm must use Form E where an approved person is both ceasing to perform one or more controlled functions and needs to be approved in relation to one or more new controlled functions within the same firm or group.

(1) A firm other than a credit union must submit Form E online at www.fsa.gov.uk using the form specified on the FSA's ONA system.

(2) A credit union must submit Form E using the form in SUP 10 Annex 8 G and in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).

(3) Where a firm is obliged to submit an application online under (1), if the FSA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, until such time as facilities for online submission are restored, a firm must submit Form E using the form in SUP 10 Annex 8 G and in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).

[Note: See SUP 10.13.21 G to SUP 10.13.22 G regarding notification in the event of online failure.]

04/10/2010

Moving between firms

SUP 10.13.4

If it is proposed that an approved person will no longer be performing a controlled function under an arrangement entered into by one firm or one of its contractors, but will be performing the same or a different controlled function under an arrangement entered into by a new firm or one of its contractors (whether or not the new firm is in the same group as the old firm), the new firm will be required to make a fresh application for the performance of the controlled function by that person.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.13.5

In certain circumstances, when the FSA already has the information it would usually require, a shortened version of the relevant Form A may be completed. See the notes relevant to each form for full details; see also SUP 10.12.2 D for the method of submission of this form.

04/10/2010

Ceasing to perform a controlled function

SUP 10.13.6

A firm must submit to the FSA a completed Form C, in the form set out in SUP 10 Annex 6R, no later than seven business days after an approved person ceases to perform a controlled function.

(1) A firm other than a credit union must submit Form C online at www.fsa.gov.uk using the FSA's ONA system.

(2) A credit union must submit Form C in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).

(3) Where a firm is obliged to submit an application online under (1), if the FSA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, until such time as facilities for online submission are restored, a firm must submit Form C in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).

[Note: See SUP 10.13.21 G to SUP 10.13.22 G regarding notification in the event of online failure.]

04/10/2010

SUP 10.13.7

(1) A firm must notify the FSA as soon as practicable after it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that it will submit a qualified Form C in respect of an approved person.

(2) Form C is qualified if the information it contains:

(a) relates to the fact that the firm has dismissed, or suspended, the approved person from its employment; or

(b) relates to the resignation by the approved person while under investigation by the firm, the FSA or any other regulatory body; or

(c) otherwise reasonably suggests that it may affect the FSA's assessment of the approved person's fitness and propriety.

01/12/2002

SUP 10.13.8

Notification under SUP 10.13.7 R may be made by telephone, fax or email and should be made, where possible, within one business day of the firm becoming aware of the information. If the firm does not submit Form C, it should inform the FSA in due course of the reason. This could be done using Form D, if appropriate.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.13.9

A firm is responsible for notifying the FSA if any approved person has ceased to perform a controlled function under an arrangement entered into by its appointed representative or former appointed representative

21/06/2001

SUP 10.13.10

A firm can submit Form C or Form E to the FSA in advance of the cessation date. When a person ceases the arrangement under which he performs a controlled function, he will automatically cease to be an approved person in relation to that controlled function. A person can only be an approved person in relation to a specific controlled function. Therefore, a person is not an approved person during any period between ceasing to perform one controlled function (when he is performing no other controlled function) and being approved in respect of another controlled function.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.13.11

Sending forms promptly will help to ensure that any fresh application can be processed within the standard response times.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.13.12

(1) If a firm (A):

(a) is considering appointing a person to perform any of the controlled functions ;

(b) requests another firm (B), as a current orformer employer of that person, for a reference or other information in connection with that appointment; and

B must, as soon as reasonably practicable, give to A all relevant information of which it is aware.

(2) When giving the information to A under (1), B must have regard to the purpose of the request and in particular to:

(a) any outstanding liabilities of that person from commission payments;

(b) any relevant outstanding or upheld complaint from an eligible complainant against that person;

(c) section 5 of the relevant Form A in SUP 10 Annex 4 (Application to perform controlled functions under approved persons regime);

(d) FIT 2 (Main assessment criteria); and

(e) if SUP 16.8.1 G (1) (Persistency reports from insurers) applies to B, the persistency of any life policies sold by that person.

06/08/2009

SUP 10.13.12A

The requirement in SUP 10.13.12 R (1) for firm (B) to give to firm (A) all relevant information of which it is aware concerning a person firm A is considering appointing to perform any of the controlled functions, also applies where firm A has outsourced the collection of that information to another (unregulated) third party, where firm B has been made aware that the unregulated third party is acting on behalf of firm A.

06/08/2009

SUP 10.13.13

A firm supplying a reference in accordance with SUP 10.13.12 R owes a duty to its former employee and the recipient firm to exercise due skill and care in the preparation of the reference. The reference should be accurate and based on documented fact. The firm may give frank and honest views, but only after taking reasonable care both as to factual content, and as to the opinions expressed, and verifying the information upon which they are based.

21/06/2001

Changes to an approved person's personal details

SUP 10.13.14

If an approved person's title, name or national insurance number changes, the firm for which the person performs a controlled function must notify the FSA on Form D, in the form set out in SUP 10 Annex 7 R, of that change within seven business days of the firm becoming aware of the matter.

(1) A firm other than a credit union must submit Form D online at www.fsa.gov.uk using the FSA's ONA system.

(2) A credit union must submit Form D in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).

(3) Where a firm is obliged to submit an application online under (1), if the FSA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, until such time as facilities for online submission are restored, a firm must submit Form D in the form set out in SUP 10 Annex 7 R and in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).

[Note: See SUP 10.13.21 G to SUP 10.13.22 G regarding notification in the event of online failure.]

04/10/2010

SUP 10.13.15

The duty to notify in SUP 10.13.14 R does not apply to changes to an approved person's private address.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.13.16

(1) If a firm becomes aware of information which would reasonably be material to the assessment of an approved person's, or a candidate's, fitness and propriety (see FIT), it must inform the FSA on Form D, or (if it is more practical to do so and with the prior agreement of the FSA) by fax or e-mail, as soon as practicable.

(2) SUP 10.13.14 R applies to the submission of Form D.

04/10/2010

SUP 10.13.17

The duty to notify in SUP 10.13.16 R extends to any circumstances that would normally be declared when giving the information required for section 5 of Form A or matters considered in FIT 2.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.13.18

(1) If, in relation to a firm which has completed the relevant Form A (SUP 10 Annex 4 D), any of the details relating to arrangementsand controlled functions are to change, the firm must notify the FSA on Form D (SUP 10 Annex 7 R).

(2) The notification under (1) must be made as soon as reasonably practicable after the firm becomes aware of the proposed change.

(3) Paragraphs (1) and (2) also apply to a firm in respect of an approved person, to whom the grandfathering arrangements applied as if the firm had completed the relevant Form A for that person.

(4) SUP 10.13.14 R applies to the submission of Form D.

04/10/2010

SUP 10.13.19

An example of where a firm should use Form D is when an individual who is appointed by one appointed representative becomes employed by another appointed representative but continues to perform the investment adviser function for the firm. The firm should notify the FSA by completing Section 1.07 of Form D.

01/12/2002

SUP 10.13.20

The grandfathering arrangements applying to an approved person referred to in SUP 10.13.18 R are contained in Part VI (Approved persons) of the Financial Services and Markets Act (Transitional Provisions) (Authorised Persons etc.) Order 2001 (SI 2001/2636). Article 72 of that Order provides, in general terms, that, where a person was performing a function at the beginning of 1 December 2001 which became a controlled function under the Act, the continued performance of that function by that person was taken to be approved by the FSA. That person therefore became an approved person without the need for a Form A.

01/12/2002

Submission in the event of failure of FSA information technology systems

SUP 10.13.21

If the FSA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FSA will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that online submission is unavailable and that the alternative methods of submission set out in SUP 10.13.3D (3), SUP 10.13.6R (3) and SUP 10.13.14R (3) (as appropriate), and SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification) should be used.

04/10/2010

SUP 10.13.22

Where SUP 10.13.3D (3), SUP 10.13.6R (3) or SUP 10.13.14R (3) applies to a firm, GEN 1.3.2 R (Emergency) does not apply.

04/10/2010

SUP 10.14

Further questions

01/12/2004

SUP 10.14.1

A list of frequently asked questions and answers is at SUP 10 Annex 1.

21/06/2001

SUP 10.14.2

If the firm or its advisers have further questions, they should contact the FSA'sIndividuals, Mutuals and PolicyDepartment(see SUP 10.11.6 G).

01/11/2007

SUP 10 Annex 1

Frequently asked questions

01/12/2004

Question

Answer

Requirements of the regime

Does pre-approval apply to individuals taking up a new controlled function within the same firm?

Yes. Pre-approval applies in all circumstances (see section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements)) except under the temporary ('12 weeks') provision. See SUP 10.5.5 R and question 2.

What are the procedures for 'emergency situations'?

Individuals may perform the significant influence function for up to 12 weeks in any consecutive 12 month period without requiring approval. When it becomes clear that a person will be performing the function on a permanent basis, then an application for approval should be made. However, there is no provision for individuals to perform the customer function on a continuing basis without approval. See SUP 10.5.5 R.

Can a person be approved for more than one controlled function?

Yes. A firm will need to seek approval in respect of each controlled function a person is to perform.

Do the controlled functions apply to an incoming EEA firm that is providing cross border services into the United Kingdom?

No. The approved persons regime does not apply to cross border services. See SUP 10.1.6 R.

May any activity be outsourced by a firm?

Yes. But if that activity constitutes a regulated activity, the person to whom it is outsourced will itself need permission.

Can a significant influence function be outsourced?

It is a question of fact in each case who is performing a significant influence function. These functions are mostly described at a high level of responsibility, that is, for example, the director of a company or a partner in a partnership. The persons performing these functions cannot avoid their ultimate responsibility and therefore the need for approval. However, some of the significant influence functions may be performed by a person who is specifically brought in to do the job, for example the chief executive function (where it is to be performed by a body corporate) and the actuarial and with-profits actuary functions.

Do Lloyd's underwriting agents still require registration with Lloyd's?

Yes. Approval for a controlled function is not sufficient.

What should a firm do if it is unsure whether an individual needs approval?

The firm should contact the Individuals, Mutuals and Policy Department. See SUP 10.11.6 G.

Submitting an application

Who applies for approval?

The firm. See section 60 of the Act (Applications for approval).

What is the role of the candidate in the application process?

Before the firm submits the relevant Form A, it must verify the information contained in it. As part of this verification, the Form provides for the candidate to confirm the accuracy of the information given by the firm so far as it relates to him.

What checks shoulda firm make on a candidate before submitting an application for approval from the FSA?

The FSA expects firms to perform due and diligent enquiries into their candidatesbefore they submit an application to us for approval. Our approval process is not a substitute for the checks that a firm should be carrying out on its prospective recruits. It is for the firm to determine what checks are appropriate but in making its decision, a firm should have regard to the controlled function to which the application relates Firms' enquiries should include checks to verify relevant qualifications and previous employment. Note also the provisions of EG 6 .

11A

Should these checks include a check of criminal records?

It is for senior management to decide what checks should be made. In deciding if it is necessary to carry out a check of criminal records, the firm should consider that the FSA does not routinely carry out these checks during the approval process. By virtue of the Rehabilitation of Offenders Act 1974 (Exceptions) Order 1975 (see Articles 3 and 4 of the Order), the FSA and the industry also have a right to ask about spent, as well as unspent, criminal convictions for employment purposes about candidates for approved person status (see section 5 of the relevant Form A (Application to perform controlled functions under the approved persons regime)). Note also the provisions of EG 6 (Publicity).

What is the "fit and proper" test for approval?

Section 61(1) of the Act (Determination of applications) provides that the FSA may grant an application only if it is satisfied that the candidate is a fit and proper person to perform the relevant function. In determining this question, the Act sets out the matters to which the FSA may have regard (section 61(2)) and the FSA has given guidance on this in FIT.

If a firm is unsure whether or not something may have an impact upon an individual's fitness and propriety, should it be disclosed?

Yes, always. The deliberate non-disclosure of material facts is taken very seriously by the FSA as it is seen as possible evidence of current dishonesty. Therefore, if in doubt, disclose.

What happens if adverse information comes to light after the application form has been submitted or after the individual has been approved?

The firm must inform the FSA at the earliest opportunity. See SUP 10.13.16 R.

Will the FSA consider an application in respect of a candidate who has not yet signed a contract with the firm?

Yes, as the FSA will consider the arrangement under which the candidate will perform the function. However, the FSA will not consider speculative or provisional applications - such as for the candidates in an election to a mutual society Board.The FSA must be informed immediately of any material changes to the information provided on the application form which arises before the application has been determined. All changes must be communicated to the FSA by the firm making the application (seeSUP 15.6.4 R). Failure to notify the FSA may result in a delay in processing or rejection or both.

How can credit unions get a supply of application forms (Forms A to F)?

These can either be ordered through the Individuals, Mutuals and Policy Departmentby email to iva@fsa.gov.uk or from the FSA's Firm Contact Centre. There is no charge for an application form.

Is there a separate fee for making an application for approved person status?

No.

Must all gaps in previous employment be explained?

Yes.

FSA procedures

Does the FSA verify the information provided to it?

Yes, as far as possible, information is verified.

Will the FSA handle information confidentially?

Yes. The FSA is obliged to handle all information confidentially and is subject to the provisions of the Data Protection Act 1998.

How long will the FSA take to process an application for approved person status?

The length of time taken to process the application will vary as it is dependent upon the application under consideration. The FSA publishes standard response times on its website at www.fsa.gov.uk setting out how long the application process is expected to take in practice. From time to time, the FSA also publishes its performance against these times. However, if, for example, information is missing from the application, or the information provided gives the FSA cause for concern, or the FSA already has in its possession relevant information which gives rise to concerns, processing time will almost always be longer. In each case, the FSA will notify the firm of any extension to the processing times.

Will the firm and individual be notified if there is a delay in processing the application form?

Yes. The FSA will contact the firm explaining the position and, where appropriate, giving the reasons for delay. It will then be the responsibility of the firm to keep the candidate and any other interested party informed.

How are non-routine cases handled?

Refer to DEPP 2 .

Can the FSA apply conditions to an approved person?

No. The application can either be granted or refused. The Act provides no equivalent to the limitations or requirements which may be included in permissions. If the application is refused, the firm may re-apply in respect of the same individual but a different controlled function. If it is considering doing this, the firm is encouraged to discuss the matter with the FSA.Where there are reasonable grounds for doing so, the FSA may require a firm to provide information about an approved person (see section 165 of the Act (Power to require information)).

Will the firm be issued with confirmation of approval?

Yes. The firm will be sent a letter setting out the effective date of approval together with the controlled function for which the individual has been approved. It will then be the firm's responsibility to inform the individual and any other interested party, for example any appointed representative.

Withdrawing an application

Can a firm withdraw its application?

Yes, but only with the consent of the candidate. See section 61(5) of the Act (Determination of applications).

What happens if the individual refuses to consent to the withdrawal of the application?

The FSA will consider with all interested parties what to do. If it proposes to refuse the application, it will give a warning notice to all interested parties. See section 62 of the Act (Applications for approval: procedure and right to refer to the Tribunal).

Can the firm withdraw only part of an application - say, in relation to a specific controlled function?

The FSA will allow the firm to amend its application at any time before determination with the consent of all other interested parties. Whether the amendment will have the effect of amounting to a fresh application will be considered on a case by case basis.

Conduct of approved persons

How and when must the firm report to the FSA potentially adverse information about an approved person's fitness and propriety?

Normally, the firm should report such matters to the FSA on Form D once it is reasonably satisfied as to the information's validity. See SUP 10.13.16 R. See also, Principle for Businesses 11 (PRIN) and Statements of Principle 4 (APER). However, if an approved person is dismissed, is suspended, or resigns while under investigation by the firm, the FSA or another regulatory body, or there are any other matters that might affect the individual's fitness and propriety to perform a controlled function, the firm should inform the FSA (SUP 10.13.7 R) that it will be submitting a Form C containing adverse information. Full details must then be provided within seven business days, on the Form C. See SUP 10.13.6 R.

For how long are individuals accountable to the FSA after ceasing to be an approved person?

A person is guilty of misconduct if, while an approved person, he fails to comply with a Statement of Principle or is knowingly concerned in the contravention by a firm of a requirement in the Act or the Handbook. But the FSA may not bring proceedings after two years from when it first knew of the misconduct.

How does the customer function relate to the training and competence requirements?

Activity

Products/sectors in TC Appendix 1

Controlled Function

SUP

Advising only,
Undertaking an activity,
Advising and dealing
Managing investments

2-9,
10-11,
12-13,
14

customer function (CF 30)

10.10.4R

04/10/2010

SUP 10 Annex 2

Approved person regime: summary of forms and their use

01/12/2004

Approved person regime: summary of forms and their use

21/06/2001

SUP 10 Annex 4

Form A: Application to perform controlled functions under the approved person regime

01/12/2004

This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:

Supervision forms - Notes from direction in SUP 10.12

06/05/2006

SUP 10 Annex 5

Form B: Notice to withdraw an application to perform controlled functions under the approved persons regime

01/12/2004

This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:

Supervision forms - SUP 10 Annex 5

01/07/2004

SUP 10 Annex 6

Form C: Notice of ceasing to perform controlled functions

01/12/2004

This annex consists of only one or more forms. Forms can be completed online now by visiting: http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/doing/index.shtml

The forms are also to be found through the following address: Supervision forms - SUP 10 Annex 6

04/10/2010

SUP 10 Annex 7

Form D: Notification of changes in personal information or application details

01/12/2004

04/10/2010

SUP 10 Annex 8

Form E: Internal transfer of an approved person

01/12/2004

This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:

Supervision forms - SUP 10 Annex 8

01/12/2002

SUP 11

Controllers and close links

SUP 11.1

Application

01/12/2004

Application to firms

SUP 11.1.1

This chapter applies to every firm except:

(1) an ICVC;

(2) an incoming EEA firm;

(3) an incoming Treaty firm;

(4) [deleted]

(5) a sole trader;

(6) a UCITS qualifier;

as set out in the table in SUP 11.1.2 R.

01/01/2003

SUP 11.1.2

Applicable sections (see SUP 11.1.1 R)

Category of firm

Applicable sections

(1)

A UK domestic firm other than a building society, a non-directive friendly society or a non-directive firm

All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2A R and SUP 11.4.4 R

(1A)

A building society

(a) In the case of an exempt change in control (see Note), SUP 11.1, SUP 11.2 and SUP 11.9
(b) In any other case, all except SUP 11.3, R and SUP 11.4.4 R

(2)

A non-directive friendly society

SUP 11.1, SUP 11.2, and SUP 11.9

(2A)

A non-directive firm

all except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R, and SUP 11.4.4 R

(3)

An overseas firm

All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R, SUP 11.4.2A R, SUP 11.4.9 G, SUP 11.5.8 G to SUP 11.5.10 G, SUP 11.6.2 R, SUP 11.6.3 R, SUP 11.7

Note

In row (1A), a change in control is exempt if the controller or proposed controller is exempt from any obligation to notify the FSA under Part XII of the Act (Notices of acquisitions of control overUK authorised persons) because of The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Controllers) (Exemption) Order 2009 (SI 2009/774). (See SUP 11.3.2A G).

28/03/2009

SUP 11.1.3

This chapter may apply to directive friendly societies in the circumstances described in SUP 16.4.2 G (1) to (3).

21/06/2001

Application to controllers

SUP 11.1.4

SUP 11.1, SUP 11.2.1 G, SUP 11.3 and SUP 11.7 apply to a controller or a proposed controller of a UK domestic firm not listed in SUP 11.1.1 R (1) to SUP 11.1.1 R (6).

28/03/2009

SUP 11.1.5

This chapter may apply to controllers and proposed controllers of directive friendly societies in the circumstances described in SUP 16.4.2G (1) to (3).

21/06/2001

SUP 11.2

Purpose

01/12/2004

SUP 11.2.1

Part XII of the Act (Notices of acquisitions of control over UKauthorised persons) places an obligation on the controllers and proposed controllers of those UK domestic firms not listed in SUP 11.1.1 R (1) to SUP 11.1.1 R (6) to notify the FSA of changes in control, including acquiring, increasing or reducing control or ceasing to have control over a firm. Furthermore, those persons are required to obtain the FSA's approval before becoming a controller or increasing their control over a firm. SUP 11.3 is intended to assist those persons in complying with their obligations under Part XII of the Act.

28/03/2009

SUP 11.2.2

The rules in SUP 11.4 to SUP 11.6 are aimed at ensuring that the FSA receives information it needs to assist the FSA with its responsibility to monitor and, in some cases, give prior approval to firms' controllers.

28/03/2009

SUP 11.2.3

As the approval of the FSA is not required under the Act for a new controller of an overseas firm, the notification rules on such firms are less prescriptive than they are for UK domestic firms. Nevertheless, the FSA still needs to monitor such an overseas firm's continuing satisfaction of the threshold conditions, which normally includes consideration of a firm's connection with any person, including its controllers and parent undertakings (see COND ). The FSA therefore needs to be notified of controllers and parent undertakings of overseas firms.

21/06/2001

SUP 11.2.4

As part of the FSA's function of monitoring a firm's continuing satisfaction of the threshold conditions, the FSA needs to consider the impact of any significant change in the circumstances of one or more of its controllers, for example, in their financial standing and, in respect of corporate controllers, in their governing bodies. Consequently, the FSA needs to know if there are any such changes. SUP 11.8 therefore requires a firm to tell the FSA if it becomes aware of particular matters relating to a controller.

21/06/2001

SUP 11.2.5

Similarly, the FSA needs to monitor a firm's continuing satisfaction of threshold condition 3 (Close links) (see COND 2.3), which requires that a firm's close links are not likely to prevent the FSA's effective supervision of that firm. Accordingly the FSA needs to be notified of any changes in a firm's close links. This requirement is contained in SUP 11.9.

01/12/2004

SUP 11.2.6

Every firm, other than a firm listed in SUP 11.1.1 R (1) to SUP 11.1.1 R (6)or a firm excluded from the operation of SUP 16.4 or SUP 16.5 by SUP 16.1.3 R, is required to submit an annual report on its controllers and close links as set out in SUP 16.4 and SUP 16.5.

01/12/2004

SUP 11.2.7

The requirements in SUP 11 implement certain provisions relating to changes in control and close links required under the Single Market Directives.

01/12/2004

SUP 11.2.8

An event described in SUP 11.4.2R, SUP 11.4.2A R and SUP 11.4.4Ris referred to in this chapter as a "change in control".

28/03/2009

SUP 11.3

Requirements on controllers or proposed controllers under the Act

01/12/2004

SUP 11.3.1

The notification requirements are set out in sections 178, 179, 191D and 191E of the Act and holdings which may be disregarded are set out in section 184 of the Act.A summary of the notification requirements described in this section is given in SUP 11 Annex 1.

28/03/2009

Requirement to notify a proposed change in control

SUP 11.3.2

Sections 178(1) and 191D(1)of the Act require a person (whether or not he is an authorised person) to notify the FSA in writing if he decides toacquire, increase or reduce control or to cease to have controlover a UK domestic firm. Failure to notify is an offence under section 191F of the Act (Offences under this Part).

28/03/2009

SUP 11.3.2A

The Treasury have made the following exemptions from the obligations under section 178 of the Act:

(1) controllers and potential controllers of non-directive friendly societiesare exempt from the obligation to notify a change in control (The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Controllers) (Exemption) Order 2009 (SI 2009/774));
(2) controllers and potential controllers of building societies are exempt from the obligation to notify a change in control unless the change involves the acquisition of a holding of a specified percentage of a building society's capital or the increase or reduction by a specified percentage of a holding of a building society's capital (The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Controllers) (Exemption) Order 2009 (SI 2009/774.)). The "capital" of a building society for these purposes consists of:

(a) any shares of a class defined as deferred shares for the purposes of section 119 of the Building Societies Act 1986 which have been issued by the society (in practice, likely to be permanent interest bearing shares (PIBS)); and
(b) the general reserves of that building society:

(3) potential controllers of non-directive firms("A") are exempt from the obligation to notify a change in control unless the change results in the potential controller holding:

(a) 20% or more of the shares in A or in a parent undertaking of A ("P");
(b) 20% or more of the voting power in A or P; or
(c) shares or voting power in A or P as a result of which the controller is able to exercise significant influence over the management of A;

or where the change in control over A would lead to the controller ceasing to fall into any of the cases (a), (b) or (c) above (The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Controllers) (Exemption) Order 2009 (SI 2009/774)).

28/03/2009

Approval required before acquiring or increasing control

SUP 11.3.4

If a persondecidesto acquire control or increase control over a UK domestic firm in a way described in SUP 11.4.2 Ror acquire control in a way described in SUP 11.4.2AR (1), he must obtain the FSA's approval before doing so. Making an acquisition before the FSA has approved of itis an offence under section 191F of the Act (Offences under this Part).

28/03/2009

SUP 11.3.5

The FSA's approval is not required before a controller reduces control or ceases to have controlover a UK domestic firm.

28/03/2009

Pre-notification and approval for fund managers

SUP 11.3.5A

The FSA recognises that firms acting as investment managers may have difficulties in complying with the prior notification requirements in sections 178 and 191D of the Act as a result of acquiring or disposing of listed shares in the course of that fund management activity. To ameliorate these difficulties, the FSA may accept pre-notification of proposed changes in control, made in accordance with SUP D, and may grant approval of such changes for a period lasting up to a year.

28/03/2009

SUP 11.3.5B

The FSA may treat as notice given in accordance with sections 178 and 190(1)of the Act a written notification from a firm which contains the following statements:

(1) that the firm proposes to acquire and/or dispose of control, on one or more occasions, of any UK domestic firm whose shares or those of its ultimate parent undertaking are, at the time of the acquisition or disposal of control, listed or which are admitted to listing on a designated investment exchange;;

(2) that any such acquisitions and/or disposals of control will occur only in the course of the firm's business as an investment manager;

(3) that the level of control the firm so acquires in the pre-approval period will at all times remain less than 20%; and

(4) that the firm will not exercise any influence over the UK domestic firm in which the shares are held, other than by exercising its voting rights as a shareholder or by exercising influence intended to promote generally accepted principles of good corporate governance.

28/03/2009

SUP 11.3.5C

Where the FSA approves changes in control proposed in a notice given under SUP 11.3.5B D:

(1) the controller remains subject to the requirement to notify the FSA when a change in control actually occurs; and

(2) the notification of change in control should be made no later than five business days after the end of each month and set out all changes in the controller's control position for each UK domestic firm for the month in question.

At that stage, the FSA may seek from the controller further information.

28/03/2009

Forms of notifications when acquiring or increasing control

SUP 11.3.7

A section 178 notice given to the FSA by a person who is acquiring control or increasing his control over a UK domestic firm, in a way described in SUP 11.4.2 R (1) to (4), or acquiring control in a way described in SUP 11.4.2A R, mustcontain the information and be accompanied by such documents as are required by the controllers form approved by the FSA for the relevant application.

28/03/2009

SUP 11.3.7A

The controllers forms approved by the FSA may be found at the FSA's website (www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/Regulated/Notify/Control/index.shtml)

28/03/2009

SUP 11.3.10

(1) A person who has submitted a section 178 notice under SUP 11.3.7 D must notify the FSA immediately if he becomes aware, or has information that reasonably suggests, that he has or may have provided the FSA with information which was or may have been false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate, or has or may have changed, in a material particular. The notification must include:

(a) details of the information which is or may be false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate, or has or may have changed;

(b) an explanation why such information was or may have been provided; and

(2) If the information in (1) (c) cannot be submitted with the section 178 notice (because it is not immediately available), it must instead be submitted as soon as possible afterwards.

(3) The requirement in (1) ceases if the change in control occurs or will not take place.

28/03/2009

SUP 11.3.11

The FSA will inform a section 178 notice giver as soon as reasonably practicable if it considers the section 178 notice to be incomplete.

28/03/2009

SUP 11.3.12

The FSA has power, under section 179(3) of the Act (Requirements for section 178 notices ), to vary or waive these requirements in relation to a section 178 notice in particular cases if it considers it appropriate to do so.

28/03/2009

SUP 11.3.13

A controller or proposed controller which is an authorised person is required to submit less information under SUP 11.3.7 D than other persons and consequently the FSA may ask for confirmation of details already held or any additional information required under SUP 11.5.1R.

28/03/2009

SUP 11.3.14

Pursuant to section 188 of the Act (Assessment: consultation with EU competent authorities), the FSA is obliged to consult any appropriate Home State regulatorbefore making a determination under section 185 of the Act (Assessment: general).

01/12/2009

Notification when reducing control

SUP 11.3.15A

A notice given to the FSA by a person who is reducing or ceasing to have control over a UK domestic firm, as set out in SUP 11.4.2Ror SUP 11.4.2A R must:

(1) be in writing; and

(2) provide details of the extent of control (if any) which the controller will have following the change in control.

28/03/2009

Joint notifications

SUP 11.3.17

Notifications to the FSA by proposed controllers and controllers under Part XII of the Act may be made on a joint basis outlined in SUP 11.5.8 G to SUP 11.5.10 G.

28/03/2009

SUP 11.4

Requirements on firms

01/12/2004

SUP 11.4.1

A summary of the notification requirements in this section is given in SUP 11 Annex 1.

21/06/2001

Requirement to notify a change in control

SUP 11.4.2

A UK domestic firm, other than a non-directive firm, must notify the FSA of any of the following events concerning the firm:

(1) a person acquiring control;

(2) an existing controllerincreasing control;

(3) an existing controllerreducing control;

(4) an existing controllerceasing to have control.

28/03/2009

SUP 11.4.2A

A non-directive firm must notify the FSA of any of the following events concerning the firm:

(1) a person becoming controller of the firm; or
(2) an existing controller ceasing to be controller of the firm.

28/03/2009

SUP 11.4.4

An overseas firm must notify the FSA if a person becomes a controller of the firm, increases or reduces control over the firm or ceases to have control over the firm

28/03/2009

SUP 11.4.6

If a firm is required to obtain approval from the Society of Lloyd's for any changes in its controllers, it should apply for this approval as well as notifying the FSA.

21/06/2001

Content and timing of the notification

SUP 11.4.7

The notification by a firm under SUP 11.4.2 R, R or SUP 11.4.4 R must:

(1) be in writing;

(2) contain the information set out in:

(a) in the case of acquiring or increasing control, SUP 11.5.1 R (subject to SUP 11.5); or

(b) in the case of reducing control, SUP 11.5.7 R; and

(3) be made:

(a) as soon as the firm becomes aware that a person, whether alone or acting in concert, has decided to acquire control or to increase or reduce control; or

(b) if the change in controltakes place without the knowledge of the firm, within 14 days of the firm becoming aware of the change in control concerned.

28/03/2009

SUP 11.4.8

Principle 11 requires firms to be open and cooperative with the FSA . A firm should discuss with the FSA , at the earliest opportunity, any prospective changes of which it is aware, in a controller'sor proposed controller's shareholdings or voting power (if the change is material). These discussions may take place before the formal notification requirement in SUP 11.4.2 R, R or SUP 11.4.4 R arises. (See also SUP 11.3.2 G). As a minimum, the FSA considers that such discussions should take place before a person:

(1) enters into any formal agreement in respect of the purchase of shares or a proposed acquisition or merger which would result in a change in control (whether or not the agreement is conditional upon any matter, including the FSA's approval); or

(2) purchases any share options, warrants or other financial instruments, the exercise of which would result in the person acquiring control or any other change in control.

28/03/2009

SUP 11.4.9

The obligationsin SUP 11.4.2 R and SUP 11.4.2A R apply whether or not the controller himself has given or intends to give a notification, in accordance with his obligations under the Act.

28/03/2009

Identity of controllers

SUP 11.4.10

A firm must take reasonable steps to keep itself informed about the identity of its controllers.

21/06/2001

SUP 11.4.11

The steps that the FSA expects a firm to take to comply with SUP 11.4.10 R include, if applicable:

(1) monitoring its register of shareholders (or equivalent);

(2) monitoring notifications to the firm in accordance with Part 22 of the Companies Act 2006;

(3) monitoring public announcements made under the relevant disclosure provisions of the Takeover Code or other rules made by the Takeover Panel;

(4) monitoring the entitlement of delegates, or persons with voting rights in respect of group insurance contracts, to exercise or control voting power at general meetings.

06/10/2007

SUP 11.5

Notifications by firms

28/03/2009

SUP 11.5.1

Information to be submitted by the firm (see SUP 11.4.7 R (2)(a))

(1)

The name of the firm;

(2)

the name of the controller or proposed controller and, if it is a body corporate and is not an authorised person, the names of its directors and its controllers;

(3)

a description of the proposed event including the shareholding and voting power of the person concerned, both before and after the change in control; and

(4)

any other information of which the FSA would reasonably expect notice.

28/03/2009

SUP 11.5.2

The notification from a firm under SUP 11.4.7 R (2)(a) need only contain as much of the information set out in SUP 11.5.1 R as the firm is able to provide, having made reasonable enquiries from persons and other sources as appropriate.

21/06/2001

SUP 11.5.4

Firms are reminded that a change in control may give rise to a change in the group companies to which the FSA's consolidated financial supervision requirements apply. Also, the firm may for the first time become subject to the FSA's requirements on consolidated financial supervision (or equivalent requirements imposed by another EEA State). This may apply, for example, if the controller is itself an authorised undertaking. The FSA may therefore request such a firm, controller or proposed controller to provide evidence that, following the change in control, the firm will meet the requirements of these rules, if appropriate.

21/06/2001

SUP 11.5.4A

Firms are also reminded that a change in control may give rise to a notification as a financial conglomerate or a change in the supplementary supervision of a financial conglomerate (see GENPRU 3.1 (Cross sector groups) and GENPRU 3.2 (Third country groups)).

01/01/2007

Form of notification when a person reduces control

SUP 11.5.7

A notification of a proposed reduction in control must:

(1) give the name of the controller; and

(2) provide details of the extent of control (if any) which the controller will have following the change in control.

21/06/2001

Joint notifications

SUP 11.5.8

A firm and its controller or proposed controller may discharge an obligation to notify the FSA by submitting a single joint section 178 notice containing the information required from the firm and the controller or proposed controller. In this case, the section 178 notice may be used on behalf of both the firm and the controller or proposed controller.

28/03/2009

SUP 11.5.9

If a person is proposing a change in control over more than one firm within a group, then the controller or proposed controller may submit a single section 178 notice in respect of all those firms. The section 178 notice should contain all the required information as if separate notifications had been made, but information and documentation need not be duplicated.

28/03/2009

SUP 11.5.10

When an event occurs (for example, a group restructuring or a merger) as a result of which:

(1) more than one firm in a group would undergo a change in control; or

(2) a single firm would experience more than one change in control;

then, to avoid duplication of documentation, all the firms and their controllers or proposed controllers may discharge their respective obligations to notify the FSA by submitting a single section 178 notice containing one set of information.

28/03/2009

SUP 11.6

Subsequent notification requirements by firms

01/12/2004

Changes in the information provided to the FSA

SUP 11.6.1

Firms are reminded that SUP 15.6.4 R requires them to notify the FSA if information notified under SUP 11.4.2 R, R or SUP 11.4.4 R was false, misleading, inaccurate, incomplete, or changes, in a material particular. This would include a firm becoming aware of information that it would have been required to provide under SUP 11.5.1 R if it had been aware of it.

21/06/2001

SUP 11.6.2

After submitting a section 178 notice under SUP 11.4.2 R or SUP 11.4.2A R and until the change in control occurs (or is no longer to take place), SUP 15.6.4 R and SUP 15.6.5 R apply to a UK domestic firm in relation to any information its controller or proposed controller provided to the FSA under SUP 11.5.1 R or SUP 11.3.7 D.

28/03/2009

SUP 11.6.3

During the period in SUP 11.6.2 R, a UK domestic firm must take reasonable steps to keep itself informed about the circumstances of the controller or the proposed controller to which the notification related.

21/06/2001

Notification that the change in control has taken place

SUP 11.6.4

A firm must notify the FSA :

(1) when a change in control which was previously notified under SUP 11.4.2 R, SUP 11.4.2A Ror SUP 11.4.4 R has taken place; or

(2) if the firm has grounds for reasonably believing that the event will not now take place.

21/06/2001

SUP 11.6.5

The notification under SUP 11.6.4 R must be given within 14 days of the change in control or of having the grounds (as applicable).

21/06/2001

SUP 11.7

Acquisition or increase of control: assessment process and criteria

28/03/2009

SUP 11.7.1

The assessment process and the assessment criteria are set out in sections 185 to 191 of the Act.

28/03/2009

SUP 11.7.2

Section 191A deals with the procedure the FSA must follow where there has been a failure to notify or a default.

28/03/2009

SUP 11.7.3

The FSA may serve restriction notices in certain circumstances in accordance with section 191B of the Act.

28/03/2009

SUP 11.7.4

The FSA may apply to the court for an order for the sale of shares in accordance with section 191C of the Act.

28/03/2009

SUP 11.7.9

.[deleted]

28/03/2009

SUP 11.7.13

Before making a determination under section 185 orgiving a warning notice under section 191A, the FSA must comply with the requirements as to consultation with EC competent authorities set out in section 188 of the Act.

28/03/2009

SUP 11.8

Changes in the circumstances of existing controllers

01/12/2004

SUP 11.8.1

A firm must notify the FSA immediately it becomes aware of any of the following matters in respect of one or more of its controllers:

(1) if a controller, or any entity subject to his control, is or has been the subject of any legal action or investigation which might put into question the integrity of the controller;

(2) if there is a significant deterioration in the financial position of a controller;

(3) if a corporate controller undergoes a substantial change or series of changes in its governing body;

(4) if a controller, who is authorised in another EEA State as an MiFID investment firm or BCD credit institution or under the Insurance Directives or the Insurance Mediation Directive, ceases to be so authorised (registered in the case on an IMD insurance intermediary).

01/11/2007

SUP 11.8.2

In assessing whether a matter should be notified to the FSA under SUP 11.8.1 R (1), SUP 11.8.1 R (2) or SUP 11.8.1 R (3), a firm should have regard to the guidance on satisfying threshold condition 5 (Suitability) contained in COND 2.5.

21/06/2001

SUP 11.8.3

In respect of SUP 11.8.1 R (3), the FSA considers that, in particular, the removal or replacement of a majority of the members of a governing body (in a single event or a series of connected events) is a substantial change and should be notified.

21/06/2001

SUP 11.8.4

If a matter has already been notified to the FSA (for example, as part of the firm's application for a Part IV permission ), the firm need only inform the FSA of any significant developments.

21/06/2001

SUP 11.8.5

The level of a firm's awareness of its controller's circumstances will depend on its relationship with that controller. The FSA does not expect firms to implement systems or procedures so as to be certain of any changes in its controllers' circumstances. However, the FSA does expect firms to notify it of such matters if the firm becomes aware of them, and it expects firms to make enquiries of its controllers if it becomes aware that one of the events in SUP 11.8.1 R may occur or has occurred.

21/06/2001

SUP 11.8.6

The FSA may ask the firm for additional information following a notification under SUP 11.8.1 R in order to satisfy itself that the controller continues to be suitable (see SUP 2: Information gathering by the FSA on its own initiative).

21/06/2001

SUP 11.9

Changes in close links

01/12/2004

Requirement to notify changes in close links

SUP 11.9.1

(1) A firm must notify the FSA that it has become or ceased to be closely linked with any person. The notification must be made by completing the Close Links Notification Form (see SUP 11.9.3A G) and must include the information set out in SUP 16.5.4 R (4).

(2) If a group includes more than one firm, a single close links notification may be made by completing the Close Links Notification Form and so satisfy the notification requirement for all firms in the group. Nevertheless, the requirement to notify, and the responsibility for notifying, remains with each firm in the group.

01/06/2010

SUP 11.9.2

Guidance on what constitutes a close link is provided in COND 2.3.

21/06/2001

SUP 11.9.2A

A firm may elect not to include the following close links in the notification submitted under SUP 11.9.1 R, SUP 11.9.5 R or SUP 16.5:

(1) shares held in its capacity as custodian provided it can only exercise any voting rights attached to such shares under instructions given in writing or by electronic means;

(2) shares held in its capacity as collateral taker under a collateral transaction which involves the outright transfer of securities provided it does not declare any intention of exercising (and does not exercise) the voting rights attaching to such shares.

01/06/2010

SUP 11.9.3

The FSA may ask the firm for additional information following a notification under SUP 11.9.1 R in order to satisfy itself that the firm continues to satisfy the threshold conditions (see SUP 2: Information gathering by the FSA on its own initiative).

21/06/2001

Form of notification

SUP 11.9.3A

The Close Links Notification Form approved by the FSA for notifications under SUP 11.9.1 R, SUP 11.9.5 R and SUP 16.5.4 R (1), may be found at the FSA's website www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/Regulated/Notify/index.shtml.

01/06/2010

Timing of notification requirement

SUP 11.9.4

The firm must make a notification to the FSA under SUP 11.9.1 R:

(1) as soon as reasonably practicable and no later than one month after it becomes aware that it has become or ceased to be closely linked with any person; or

(2) where a firm has elected to report on a monthly basis, within fifteen business days of the end of each monthby completing the Close Links Notification Form, including the information set out in SUP 16.5.4 R (4) for that month and must submit the group organisation chart on a quarterly basis unless there have been no changes since the submission of the previous organisation chart to the FSA, in which case the group organisation chart is not required.

01/06/2010

Electing to notify changes in close links monthly

SUP 11.9.5

(1) A firm elects to report changes in close links on a monthly basis by sending a written notice of election to the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FSA.

(2) An election to report changes in close links on a monthly basis will stand until such time as the firm gives its usual supervisory contact at the FSA at least one month's written notice of its intention to cease reporting changes in close links on a monthly basis.

01/12/2004

SUP 11.9.6

The FSA considers that monthly reporting of changes in close links will ordinarily only be appropriate for firms forming part of large groups.

01/12/2004

SUP 11 Annex 1

Summary of notification requirements

01/12/2004

SUP 11 Annex 1G

28/03/2009

SUP 12

Appointed representatives

SUP 12.1

Application and purpose

01/12/2004

Application

SUP 12.1.1

(1) This chapter applies to a firm which is considering appointing, has decided to appoint or has appointed an appointed representative.

(1A) This chapter applies to a UK MiFID investment firm which is considering appointing, has decided to appoint or has appointed an EEA tied agent.

(2) This chapter does not apply to a UCITS qualifier.

(3) This chapter does not apply in relation to a tied agent acting on behalf of an EEA MiFID investment firm unless that tied agent is established in the UK.

01/11/2007

Purpose

SUP 12.1.2

This chapter gives guidance to a firm, which is considering appointing an appointed representative, on how the provisions of section 39 of the Act (Exemption of appointed representatives) work. For example, it gives guidance on the conditions that must be satisfied for a person to be appointed as an appointed representative. It also gives guidance to a firm on the implications, for the firm itself, of appointing an appointed representative.

21/06/2001

SUP 12.1.3

The chapter also sets out the FSA's rules, and guidance on these rules, that apply to a firm before it appoints, when it appoints and when it has appointed an appointed representative. The main purpose of these rules is to place responsibility on a firm for seeking to ensure that:

(1) its appointed representatives are fit and proper to deal with clients in its name; and

(2) clients dealing with its appointed representatives are afforded the same level of protection as if they had dealt with the firm itself.

21/06/2001

SUP 12.1.4

The FSA has produced a leaflet entitled "Becoming an appointed representative" which provides a comprehensive summary of some of the main features of the appointed representative regime. You may download a copy of this leaflet from our website at http://www.fsa.gov.uk/pubs/other/factsheet_appointed.pdf .

21/06/2001

SUP 12.1.5

This chapter also sets out guidance about section 39A of the Act, which is relevant to a UK MiFID investment firm that is considering appointing an FSA registered tied agent . It also sets out the FSA's rules, and guidance on those rules, in relation to the appointment of an EEA tied agent by a UK MiFID investment firm.

01/11/2007

SUP 12.2

Introduction

01/12/2004

What is an appointed representative?

SUP 12.2.1

(1) Under section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition), no person may carry on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom, or purport to do so, unless he is an authorised person, or he is an exempt person in relation to that activity.

(2) A person will be an exempt person if he satisfies the conditions in section 39(1) of the Act, guidance on which is given in SUP 12.2.2 G. A person who is exempt as a result of satisfying these conditions is referred to in the Act as an appointed representative.

(3) If an appointed representative is also a tied agent he must also satisfy the condition in section 39(1A) of the Act in order to be an exempt person. See SUP 12.4.12 G for guidance on that condition and SUP 12.2.16 G for more general guidance about tied agents.

01/11/2007

SUP 12.2.2

(1) A personmust satisfy the conditions in section 39(1) of the Act to become an appointed representative. These are that:

(a) the person must not be an authorised person, that is, he must not have permission under the Act to carry on any regulated activity in his own right (section 39(1) of the Act);

(b) the person must have entered into a contract with an authorised person, referred to in the Act as the 'principal', which:

(i) permits or requires him to carry on business of a description prescribed in the Appointed Representatives Regulations (section 39(1)(a)(i) of the Act) (see SUP 12.2.7 G); and

(ii) complies with any requirements that may be prescribed in the Appointed Representatives Regulations (section 39(1)(a)(ii) of the Act) (see SUP 12.5.2 G (1)); and

(c) the principal must have accepted responsibility, in writing, for the authorised activities of the person in carrying on the whole, or part, of the business specified in the contract.

(2) The appointed representative is an exempt person in relation to any regulated activity comprised in the carrying on of the business for which his principal has accepted responsibility.

30/06/2004

Who can be an appointed representative?

SUP 12.2.3

As long as the conditions in section 39 of the Act are satisfied, any person, other than an authorised person, may become an appointed representative, including a body corporate, a partnership or an individual in business on his own account. However, an appointed representative cannot be an authorised person under the Act; that is, it cannot be exempt for some regulated activities and authorised for others.

30/06/2004

Can an appointed representative have more than one principal?

SUP 12.2.4

The Act and the Appointed Representative Regulations do not prevent an appointed representative from acting for more than one principal. However, SUP 12.5.6A R (Prohibition of multiple principals for certain activities) prevents this for particular kinds of business.

30/06/2004

What is a "network"?

SUP 12.2.6

A firm is referred to as a 'network' if it appoints five or more appointed representatives (not counting introducer appointed representatives) or if it appoints fewer than five appointed representatives (again, not counting introducer appointed representatives) which have, between them, twenty-six or more representatives. However, a network does not include:
(a) a product provider;
(b) a firm which markets the packaged products of a product provider in the same group as the firm and which does so other than by selecting products from the whole market;
(c) an insurer in relation to a non-investment insurance contract; or
(d) a home finance provider.

06/04/2007

Business for which an appointed representative is exempt

SUP 12.2.7

(1) The Appointed Representatives Regulations are made by the Treasury under section 39(1) of the Act. These regulations describe, among other things, the business for which an appointed representative may be exempt, which is business which comprises any of:

(a) dealing in investments as agent (article 21 of the Regulated Activities Order) where the transaction relates to a pure protection contract (but only where the contract is not a long-term care insurance contract) or general insurance contract;

(b) arranging (bringing about) deals in investments (article 25(1) of the Regulated Activities Order) (that is in summary, deals in a designated investment, funeral plan contract, pure protection contract, general insurance contract or right to or interest in a funeral plan);

(c) making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments (article 25(2) of the Regulated Activities Order) (that is in summary, transactions in a designated investment, funeral plan contract, pure protection contract, general insurance contract or right to or interest in a funeral plan);

(d) arranging (bringing about) a home finance transaction (articles 25A(1), 25B(1) and 25C(1) of the Regulated Activities Order);

(e) making arrangements with a view to a home finance transaction (articles 25A(2), 25B(2) and 25C(2) of the Regulated Activities Order);

(f) assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance (article 39A of the Regulated Activities Order);

(g) arranging safeguarding and administration of assets (part of article 40 of the Regulated Activities Order);

(h) giving basic advice on a stakeholder product(article 52B of the Regulated Activities Order);

(i) advising on investments (article 53 of the Regulated Activities Order) (that is in summary, on any designated investment, funeral plan contract, pure protection contract, general insurance contract or right to or interest in a funeral plan);

(j) advising on a home finance transaction (articles 53A, 53B and 53C of the Regulated Activities Order); and

(k) agreeing to carry on a regulated activity (article 64 of the Regulated Activities Order) where the regulated activity is one of those in (a) to (h).

(2) If the appointed representative is a tied agent of an EEA firm, the business for which the appointed representative may be exempt includes the following additional activities:

(a) placing financial instruments;

(b) providing advice to clients or potential clients in relation to the placing of financial instruments.

(3) [deleted]

01/11/2007

What is an introducer appointed representative?

SUP 12.2.8

(1) An introducer appointed representative is an appointed representative appointed by a firm whose scope of appointment must, under SUP 12.5.7 R, be limited to:

(a) effecting introductions to the firm or other members of the firm's group; and

(b) distributing non-real time financial promotions which relate to products or services available from or through the firm or other members of the firm's group.

(2) The permitted scope of appointment of an introducer appointed representative does not include in particular:

(a) dealing in investments as agent; or

(b) arranging (bringing about) deals in investments or arranging (bringing about) regulated mortgage contracts; or

(d) advising on investments, giving basic advice on a stakeholder product advising on a home finance transaction or other activity that might reasonably lead a customer to believe that he had received basic advice or advice on investments or on home finance transactions or that the introducer appointed representative is permitted to give basic adviceor give personal recommendations on investments or on home finance transactions.

(3) An introducer appointed representative may have more than one principal, but will need a contract with each principal.

(4) The approved persons regime does not apply to an introducer appointed representative (see SUP 10.1.16 R ).

01/11/2007

SUP 12.2.9

To become an introducer appointed representative, a person must meet the conditions in the Act to become an appointed representative (see SUP 12.2.2 G).

30/06/2004

SUP 12.2.10

All rules in SUP 12 apply in relation to introducer appointed representatives except for:

(1) SUP 12.4.2 R, SUP 12.4.5B R and SUP 12.4.5C, on the appointment of appointed representatives, which are replaced by SUP 12.4.6 R;

(2) SUP 12.5.6A R on required contract terms, which is replaced by SUP 12.5.7 R; and

(3) SUP 12.9.1 R (4) (Record keeping).

30/06/2004

SUP 12.2.11

If an introducer appointed representative is an individual in business on his own, then he will also be an introducer (see SUP 12.2.13 G). This has certain implications in COBS.

01/11/2007

Introducers and representatives: what do these terms mean and what is the relationship with an appointed representative?

SUP 12.2.12

A firm or its appointed representative may appoint or employ individuals to act as introducers or representatives in respect of designated investment business.

01/12/2004

SUP 12.2.13

(1) An introducer is an individual appointed by a firm or by an appointed representative of such a firm to carry out, in the course of designated investment business, either or both of the following activities:

(a) effecting introductions;

(b) distributing non-real time financial promotions.

(2) An introducer is not an exempt person under section 39 of the Act (unless he is also an introducer appointed representative) and hence cannot benefit from the exemption to carry on regulated activities in his own right. As a result, an introducer that is not an introducer appointed representative works in the name of his firm or the firm's appointed representative but he does not fall within the scope of the approved persons regime as he does not, as such, perform a controlled function.

01/12/2004

SUP 12.2.14

(1) A representative is an individual who is appointed by a firm or an appointed representative, to carry on any of the activities in (1)(a) to (c):

(a) advising on investments;

(b) arranging (bringing about) deals in investments;

(2) If a firm appoints an appointed representative who is an individual in (1), that appointed representative will also be a representative. The individual may need to be approved to perform the customer function , (see SUP 12.6.8 G and SUP 12.6.9 G). In these circumstances, in addition to complying with the requirements of SUP 12 and other regulatory requirements, the firm should ensure that the rules for representatives in COBS 6 (Information about the firm, its services and remuneration) are complied with.

06/02/2008

What is a tied agent?

SUP 12.2.16

(1) A tied agent is a person who acts for and under the responsibility of a MiFID investment firm (or a third country investment firm) in respect of MiFID business (or the equivalent business of the third country investment firm). Most tied agents appointed by firms are also appointed representatives.

(2) Unless otherwise provided, this chapter applies to a firm that appoints a tied agent that is an appointed representative in the same way as it applies to the appointment of any other appointed representative.

(3) This chapter sets out the provisions which apply to tied agents:

(a) established in the UK; or

(b) established in another EEA State and appointed by a UK MiFID investment firm.

(4) A tied agent appointed by a firm to carry on investment services and activities or ancillary services on its behalf may not provide cross border services or establish a branch in another EEA State in its own right. This is because tied agents do not have passporting rights. The tied agent of a MiFID investment firm may, however, provide cross border services or establish a branch in another EEA State by availing itself of the appointing firm's passport. MiFID investment firms may also appoint tied agents established in different EEA States.

(5) A tied agent will not be an appointed representative if it does not and is not likely to conduct any business as a tied agent in the UK. If such a tied agent is appointed by a UK MiFID investment firm it will be an EEA tied agent. EEA tied agents are either FSA registered tied agent or EEA registered tied agents.

(6) This chapter only applies to a firm that appoints a tied agent that is not an appointed representative where it expressly refers to tied agents.

(7) Under MiFID, an EEA State may prohibit the appointment of tied agents by MiFID investment firms for which it is the Home State. If a UK MiFID investment firm appoints a tied agent established in such an EEA State, the tied agent must be registered with the FSA. Such an EEA tied agent is referred to in the Handbook as an FSA registered tied agent .

(8) If a UK MiFID investment firm appoints a tied agent established in an EEA State that allows MiFID investment firms for which it is the Home State to appoint tied agents, the tied agent must be registered with the competent authority of the EEA State in which it is established. Such an EEA tied agent is referred to in the Handbook as an EEA registered tied agent.

01/11/2007

SUP 12.3

What responsibility does a firm have for its appointed representatives or EEA tied agent?

01/11/2007

Responsibility for appointed representatives

SUP 12.3.1

In determining whether a firm has complied with any provision in or under the Act such as any Principle or other rule, anything that an appointed representative has done or omitted to do as respects the business for which the firm has accepted responsibility will be treated as having been done or omitted to be done by the firm (section 39(4) of the Act).

21/06/2001

SUP 12.3.2

The firm is responsible, to the same extent as if it had expressly permitted it, for anything the appointed representative does or omits to do, in carrying on the business for which the firm has accepted responsibility (section 39(3) of the Act).

21/06/2001

SUP 12.3.3

In determining whether the firm has committed any offence, however, the knowledge or intentions of an appointed representative are not attributable to thefirm, unless in all the circumstances it is reasonable for them to be attributed to it (section 39(6) of the Act).

21/06/2001

SUP 12.3.4

SYSC 6.1.1 R requires a MiFID investment firmto ensure the compliance of its appointed representative with obligations under the regulatory system. The concept of a relevant person in SYSC includes an officer or employee of a tied agent.

01/11/2007

Responsibility for EEA tied agents

SUP 12.3.5

A UK MiFID investment firm must not appoint an EEA registered tied agent or allow such an agent to continue to act for it unless it accepts or has accepted responsibility in writing for the agent's activities in acting as its EEA registered tied agent.
[Note: paragraph 1 of article 23(2) of MiFID]

01/11/2007

SUP 12.3.6

The effect of section 39A(6)(b) of the Act is to prohibit a UK MiFID investment firm from appointing an FSA registered tied agent unless it has accepted responsibility in writing for the agent's activities in acting as a tied agent.

01/11/2007

SUP 12.4

What must a firm do when it appoints an appointed representative or an EEA tied agent?

01/12/2004

The permission that the firm needs

SUP 12.4.1A

The effect of sections 20 (Authorised persons acting without permission) and 39(4) (Exemption of appointed representatives) of the Act is that the regulated activities covered by an appointed representative's appointment need to:

(1) fall within the scope of the principal's permission; or

(2) be excluded from being regulated activities when carried on by the principal, for example because they fall within article 28 of the Regulated Activities Order (Arranging transactions to which the arranger is a party).

30/06/2004

Appointment of an appointed representative (other than an introducer appointed representative)

SUP 12.4.2

Before a firm appoints a person as an appointed representative (other than an introducer appointed representative) and on a continuing basis, it must establish on reasonable grounds that:

(1) the appointment does not prevent the firm from satisfying and continuing to satisfy the threshold conditions;

(2) the person:

(a) is solvent;

(b) is otherwise suitable to act for the firm in that capacity;and

(3) the firm has adequate:

(a) controls over the person's regulated activities for which the firm has responsibility (see SYSC 3.1or SYSC 4.1); and

(b) resources to monitor and enforce compliance by the person with the relevant requirements applying to the regulated activities for which the firm is responsible and with which the person is required to comply under its contract with the firm (see SUP 12.5.3 G (2)); and

(4) the firm is ready and organised to comply with the other applicable requirements contained or referred to in this chapter.

01/04/2009

SUP 12.4.2A

A firm must ensure that a tied agent that is an appointed representative is of sufficiently good repute and that it possesses appropriate general, commercial and professional knowledge so as to be able to communicate accurately all relevant information regarding the proposed service to the client or potential client. This does not limit a firm's obligations under SUP 12.4.2 R.
[Note: paragraphs 3 and 4 of article 23(3) of MiFID]

01/11/2007

SUP 12.4.3

In assessing, under SUP 12.4.2 R(2)(a) and (b), whether an appointed representative or prospective appointed representative is solvent and otherwise suitable, a firm should determine, among other matters, whether the person is likely to be adversely influenced by its financial position in the conduct of the business for which the firm is responsible. This might arise, for example, if the person has cashflow problems and is not able to service its debts. Guidance for firms on assessing the financial position of an appointed representative or prospective appointed representative is given in SUP 12 Annex 1.

14/01/2005

SUP 12.4.4

In assessing, under SUP 12.4.2 R (2)(b), whether an appointed representative or prospective appointed representative is otherwise suitable to act for the firm in that capacity, a firm should consider:

(1) whether the person is fit and proper; guidance on the information that firms should take reasonable steps to obtain and verify is given in SUP 12 Annex 2; and

(2) the fitness and propriety (including good character and competence) and financial standing of the controllers, directors, partners, proprietors and managers of the person; firms seeking guidance on the information which they should take reasonable steps to obtain and verify should refer to FIT and the questions in the relevant Form A (Application to perform controlled functions under the approved person regime) in SUP 10 Annex 4.

01/11/2007

SUP 12.4.5

In determining, under SUP 12.4.2 R (2)(c), whether an appointed representative or prospective appointed representative has any close links which would be likely to prevent the firm's effective supervision, a firm should consider the guidance to threshold condition 3 (Close links) in COND 2.3.

21/06/2001

Appointment representative who may be appointed by other principals

SUP 12.4.5A

If a firm proposes to appoint an appointed representative, but not to prohibit its appointment by any other principals (see SUP 12.5.2 G (3)), the firm should, in particular:

(1) require, in the contract, that the appointed representative notifies the firm about other principals (see SUP 12.5.5 R (3)) and

(2) unless the appointed representative is an introducer appointed representative:

(a) take reasonable steps to check whether the appointed representative is already appointed by one or more other principals and, if it is, contact those other principals; such steps should include asking the appointed representative and checking the Register ;

(b) if there are any other principals, agree arrangements with the other principals (see SUP 12.4.5B R) ; and

(c) establish effective systems and controls for ensuring that the appointed representative complies with all contractual restrictions imposed, including those relating to multiple principals under the Appointed Representatives Regulations and under SUP 12.5.6A R (see SUP 12.6.11A R).

30/06/2004

Multiple principals

SUP 12.4.5B

(1) A firm must not appoint a person as its appointed representative until it has entered into a written agreement (a "multiple principal agreement") with every other principal the person may have; but this does not apply to the appointment of an introducer appointed representative nor does it require an agreement with another principal which has appointed a person as an introducer appointed representative.

(2) A firm must not unreasonably decline to enter into a multiple principal agreement with any principal of his appointed representative unless the firm is relying on a prohibition on the appointed representative from representing any other firms (or is seeking to impose such a prohibition) as permitted by article 3 of the Appointed Representative Regulations.

(3) A multiple principal agreement must contain all the provisions which are necessary or desirable to:

(a) set out the relationship between the principals of that appointed representative; and

(b) protect the interests of clients;

including the matters set out in SUP 12.4.5C.

30/06/2004

SUP 12.4.5C

Multiple principal agreement

Matter

Explanation

Scope of appointment

The scope of appointment given by each principal to the appointed representative.

Complaints handling

The identity of the principal which will be the point of contact for a complaint from a client (referred to as the "lead-principal" in SUP 12.4.5D G to SUP 12.4.5E G).

An agreement that each principal will co-operate with each other principal in resolving a complaint from a client in relation to the appointed representative's conduct.

The arrangements for complaints handling, including arrangements for resolving disputes between the principals in relation to their liability to a client in respect of a complaint and arrangements for dealing with referrals to the Financial Ombudsman Service.

Financial promotions

The arrangements for approving financial promotion.

Control and monitoring

The arrangements for the control and monitoring of the activities of the appointed representative (see in particular SUP 12.6.6 R (Regulated activities and investment services outside the scope of appointment) and SUP 12.6.7 G (Senior management responsibility for appointed representatives)).

Approved person status

The arrangements for making applications for approved person status (see SUP 10 (Approved persons)).

Training and competence

The arrangements for training and competence (see TC).

Co-operation

The arrangements for co-operation over any other issues which may arise from the multiple appointments, including issues which may damage the interests of clients dealing with the appointed representative and administrative issues.

An agreement by each principal to take reasonable steps to ensure that it does not cause the appointed representative or any of its other principals to be in breach of their obligations to each other or under the regulatory system.

Sharing information

The arrangements for sharing information on matters relevant to the matters covered under the multiple principal agreement and each principal's obligations under SUP 12.6 (Continuing obligations of firms with appointed representatives).

An agreement that each principal will notify each other principal of any information which is materially relevant to the multiple principal agreement.

30/06/2004

SUP 12.4.5D

One effect of the multiple principal agreement is to introduce a 'lead-principal' concept in relation to complaints handling for the benefit of the client. For example, where the client has been given advice by an appointed representative who has two principals, and the advice could have led to a transaction being arranged with either principal, the client will know that he may pursue his complaint with (but not necessarily against) one of the principals. Whether he later decides to refer his complaint to the Financial Ombudsman Service, and if so, against which principal, will depend on the circumstances.

30/06/2004

SUP 12.4.5E

(1) Under the relevant provisions in COBS, ICOBS and MCOB, the customer will receive details of how to complain to the appointed representative and, when a product is purchased, details of the complaints procedure for the product provider, insurer or home finance provider.
(2) Under DISP 1.2.1 R, a firm must among other things, supply summary details of its internal process for dealing promptly and fairly with complaints to the customer when it receives a complaint. In complying with DISP 1.2.1 R, a firm should ensure that the "lead-principal" is clearly identified in the procedures.
(3) The complaints procedure should also explain that the customer has a choice of whether to contact the appointed representative, the "lead-principal" or the product provider, insurer or home finance provider and that the "lead-principal" will be the appropriate point of contact where the customer does not wish to complain about a specific product or is unsure who to contact.
(4) In other words, where the customer, has a doubt who to complain to the "lead-principal" is to be the point of contact for all complaints arising out of the activities of the appointed representative.

06/01/2008

SUP 12.4.5F

When considering the provisions for complaints handling (see SUP 12.4.5C(2)) firms should consider the use of a mediation clause. If a complaint is made by a client, principals which are unable to resolve a dispute about liability to the client should consider all quick and effective ways of resolving the dispute, including referring the matter to the Financial Ombudsman Service and mediation.

30/06/2004

SUP 12.4.5G

It is for the principals to consider in each case whether it would be appropriate to show the multiple principal agreement to their appointed representative, or in some circumstances make their appointed representative a party to it.

30/06/2004

Appointment of an introducer appointed representative

SUP 12.4.6

Before a firm appoints a person as an introducer appointed representative, and on a continuing basis, it must take reasonable care to ensure that:

(1) the person is suitable to act for the firm in that capacity (having regard, in particular, to other persons connected with the person who will be, or who are, directly responsible for its activities); and

(2) the firm is ready and organised to comply with the other applicable requirements contained or referred to in this chapter.

30/06/2004

SUP 12.4.7

In assessing, under SUP 12.4.6 R(1), whether an introducer appointed representative or prospective introducer appointed representative is otherwise suitable to act for the firm in that capacity, the firm should determine whether the introducer appointed representative and those persons who will be, or who are, directly responsible for its activities are of sufficiently good reputation and otherwise fit and proper for that appointment. The firm should, as a minimum, verify the identity of a prospective introducer appointed representative and relevant persons but need not carry out the more extensive due diligence required for the appointment of an appointed representative under SUP 12.4.2 R.

14/01/2005

SUP 12.4.8

If a firm has doubts that a prospective introducer appointed representative or other person is of sufficiently good reputation and otherwise fit and proper, the FSA will expect it to resolve those doubts before appointing the prospective introducer appointed representative. For example, if a firm is aware that a person's previous appointment as an introducer appointed representative or representative was terminated, it should take reasonable steps to find out the reasons for the termination and the extent to which those reasons reflect on the person concerned.

21/06/2001

Appointed representative carrying on insurance mediation

SUP 12.4.8A

Before a firm appoints a person as an appointed representative to carry on insurance mediation activity, it must in relation to insurance mediation activity ensure that the person will comply on appointment, and will continue to comply with, the provisions of MIPRU 2.3.1 R and MIPRU 2.3.3 R (Knowledge and ability, and good repute) as if the appointed representative were a firm.

01/01/2007

SUP 12.4.8B

In assessing, under SUP 12.4.8A R, whether an appointed representative, or prospective appointed representative, has established the knowledge and ability requirements for persons within its management structure and for those directly involved in its insurance mediation activity, a firm should refer to TC.

14/01/2005

SUP 12.4.9

(1) An appointed representative must not commence an insurance mediation activity until he is included on the Register as carrying on such activities (see SUP 12.5.2 G (3)).

(2) If an appointed representative's scope of appointment is to include an insurance mediation activity, the principal must notify the FSA of the appointment before the appointed representative commences that activity (see SUP 12.7.1 R (1)).

(3) As an exception, pre-notification is not required if the appointed representative is already included on the Register as carrying on insurance mediation activities in another capacity (for example, as the appointed representative of another principal).

14/01/2005

SUP 12.4.10

(1) The FSA has the power to decide not to include on the Register (or to remove from the Register) an appointed representative whose scope of appointment includes an insurance mediation activity, if it appears to the FSA that he is not a fit and proper person to carry on those activities (article 95 of the Regulated Activities Order).

(2) If the FSA proposes to use the power in (1), it must give the appointed representative a warning notice. If the FSA decides to proceed with its proposal, it must give the appointed representative a decision notice. The procedures followed by the FSA in relation to the giving of warning notices and decision notices are set out in DEPP 2.

(3) An appointed representative may apply to the FSA for a determination of the kind referred to in (1) to be revoked. If the FSA proposes to refuse the application, it must give the appointed representative a warning notice, and if the FSA decides to proceed with the refusal, it must give the appointed representative a decision notice.

28/08/2007

Appointment of an FSA registered tied agent

SUP 12.4.11

If a UK MiFID investment firm appoints an FSA registered tied agent , SUP 12.4.2 R and SUP 12.4.2A R apply to that firm as though the FSA registered tied agent were an appointed representative.
[Note: paragraphs 3 and 4 of article 23(3) of MiFID]

01/11/2007

Tied agents

SUP 12.4.12

(1) A tied agent that is an appointed representative may not start to act as a tied agent until it is included on the applicable register (section 39(1A) of the Act). If the tied agent is established in the UK, the register maintained by the FSA is the applicable register for these purposes. If the tied agent is established in another EEA State, it should consult section 39(1B) of the Act to determine the applicable register.

(2) A UK MiFID investment firm that appoints an FSA registered tied agent who is not registered with the FSA will, subject to certain conditions, be taken to have contravened a requirement imposed on it by or under the Act (see section 39A(6)(c) and (d) of the Act).

(3) A UK MiFID investment firm that appoints an EEA registered tied agent will be required to register that agent with the competent authority of the EEA State in which it is established. This requirement will be imposed by the rules of that EEA State.

(4) If the tied agent is not established in the UK and is appointed by an EEA MiFID investment firm, it cannot commence acting as a tied agent until it is included on the public register of tied agents in the EEA State in which it is established (or in certain cases, of the Home State of the firm).

(5) If an appointed representative's scope of appointment is to include acting as a tied agent, the principal must notify the FSA of the appointment before the appointed representative starts acting as such (see SUP 12.7.7 R (1A)).

(6) A tied agent can only act as such for one MiFID investment firm or third country investment firm (see SUP 12.5.6A R (1A)).

01/11/2007

SUP 12.5

Contracts: required terms

01/12/2004

Required contract terms for all appointed representatives

SUP 12.5.1

The Appointed Representative Regulations include, among other things, the prescribed requirements applying to contracts between firms and appointed representatives for the purposes of section 39(1)(a)(ii) of the Act.

21/06/2001

SUP 12.5.2

(1) Regulations 3(1) and (2) of the Appointed Representatives Regulations make it a requirement that the contract between the firm and the appointed representative (unless it prohibits the appointed representative from representing other counterparties) contains a provision enabling the firm to:

(a) impose such a prohibition; or

(b) impose restrictions as to the other counterparties which the appointed representative may represent, or as to the types of investment in relation to which the appointed representative may represent other counterparties.

(1A) The requirement described in paragraph (1) does not apply if the firm is an EEA MiFID investment firm.

(2) Under the Appointed Representative Regulations, an appointed representative is treated as representing other counterparties if, broadly, it:

(a) makes arrangements (within article 25 of the Regulated Activities Order) for persons to enter into investment transactions with other counterparties; or

(b) arranges the safeguarding and administration of assets by other counterparties; or

(c) gives advice (within article 53 of the Regulated Activities Order (Advising on investments)) on the merits of entering into investment transactions with other counterparties;

(d) assists in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance (article 39A of the Regulated Activities Order);
where an "investment transaction" means a transaction to buy, sell, subscribe for or underwrite a security or a relevant investment (that is, a designated investment, funeral plan contract, pure protection contract, general insurance contract or right to or interest in a funeral plan; or

(e) arranges:

(i) for persons to enter (or with a view to persons entering) as customers into home finance transactions (or as plan providers in the case of a home reversion plan) with other counterparties;

(ii) for a person to vary a home finance transaction entered into by a person as customer (or as plan provider in the case of a home reversion plan)on or after 31 October 2004 (in the case of a regulated mortgage contract) or 6 April 2007 (in all other cases) with other counterparties;

(f) gives advice (within articles 53A, 53B or 53C of the Regulated Activities Order) on the merits of:

(i) persons entering as customers into home finance transactions (or as plan provider in the case of a home reversion plan)with other counterparties;

(ii) persons varying home finance transactions entered into by them as customer (or as plan provider in the case of a home reversion plan) on or after 31 October 2004 (in the case of a regulated mortgage contract) or 6 April 2007 (in all other cases) with other counterparties;

(g) giving basic advice on a stakeholder product.

(3) If the scope of appointment covers, in relation to a contract of insurance, dealing in investments as agent, arranging, assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance or advising on investments, regulation 3(4) of the Appointed Representatives Regulations makes it a requirement that the contract between the firm and the appointed representative contains a provision providing that the appointed representative is not permitted or required to carry on such business unless he is included in the Register as carrying on insurance mediation activities.

01/11/2007

SUP 12.5.2A

If a UK MiFID investment firm or a third country investment firm appoints an appointed representative that is a tied agent, regulation 3(6) of the Appointed Representative Regulations requires the contract between the firm and the appointed representative to contain a provision that the representative is only permitted to provide the services and carry on the activities referred to in Article 4(1)(25) of MiFID while he is entered on the applicable Register.

01/11/2007

SUP 12.5.3

A firm should satisfy itself that the terms of the contract with its appointed representative (including an introducer appointed representative):

(1) are designed to enable the firm to comply properly with any limitations or requirements on its own permission;

(2) require the appointed representative to cooperate with the FSA as described in SUP 2.3.4 G (Information gathering by the FSA on its own initiative: cooperation by firms) and give access to its premises, as described in SUP 2.3.5 R (2); and

(3) require the appointed representative to give the firm's auditors the same rights as are provided by section 341 of the Act, as described in SUP 3.6.6 G.

21/06/2001

SUP 12.5.4

A firm should have the ability to terminate the contract with its appointed representative in the circumstances in SUP 12.6.1 R (2). However, such a termination provision should not be automatic (see SUP 12.8.3 R (1)).

30/06/2004

SUP 12.5.5

A firm must ensure that its written contract with each of its appointed representatives:

(1) complies with the requirements prescribed in regulation 3 of the Appointed Representatives Regulations (see SUP 12.5.2 G);
(2) requires the appointed representative to comply, and to ensure that any persons who provide services to the appointed representative under a contract of services or a contract for service comply, with the relevant requirements in or under the Act (including the rules) that apply to the activities which it carries on as appointed representative of the firm; and
(3) (unless the written contract prohibits appointments by other principals) requires the appointed representative to notify the firm:

(a) that it is seeking appointment as an appointed representative of another person, who the person is and the business for which the other person will accept responsibility;
(b) (as soon as possible) of any change in the business notified under (a); and
(c) (as soon as possible) of the termination of any such appointment.

30/06/2004

SUP 12.5.6

(1) If the appointed representative is appointed to give advice on investments to retail clients concerning packaged products, the firm should also satisfy itself that the contract requires compliance with the rules in COBS 6 (Information about the firm, its services and remuneration).
(2) The contractual requirements in SUP 12.5.5 R should extend to:

(a) the activities of the appointed representative, if the appointed representative is an individual; and
(b) the activities of the employees of, representatives and introducers appointed by, the appointed representative.

06/02/2008

Prohibition of multiple principals for certain activities

SUP 12.5.6A

(1) A firm must ensure that, if appointing an appointed representative (other than an introducer appointed representative), to carry on any of the following regulated activities, its written contract prohibits the appointed representative from carrying on any of the specified activities as an appointed representative for another firm:

(a) any designated investment business for retail clients : the prohibition must cover all designated investment business for retail clients ;

(b) any regulated mortgage activities (other than in relation to lifetime mortgages): the prohibition must cover all regulated mortgage activities (other than lifetime mortgages);

(c) any regulated mortgage activities in relation to lifetime mortgages: the prohibition must cover all lifetime mortgages;

(d) any reversion activities: the prohibition must cover all reversion activities;

(e) any home purchase activities: the prohibition must cover all home purchase activities.

(1A) If the appointed representative is a tied agent, the prohibition must prevent the appointed representative acting as a tied agent for any other MiFID investment firm or third country investment firm.

(2) As an exception to (1), if the firm is a long-term insurer or an operator of a UCITS scheme, it may permit an appointed representative to carry on designated investment business as the appointed representative of one or more other firms provided that:

(a) each of those other firms is a long-term insurer or an operator of a UCITS scheme;

(b) the first firm and each of those other firms is a member of the same group; "group" means for this purpose a group of bodies corporate all having the same holding company including the holding company; and

(c) the scope of each appointment does not overlap, as to both activities and investments.
[Note: articles 4(1)(25) and 23(1) of MiFID]

01/11/2007

SUP 12.5.6B

(1) The effect of SUP 12.5.6A R (1)(a) is that, in relation to designated investment business with retail clients , appointed representatives are restricted to one principal.

(1A) The effect of SUP 12.5.6A R (1A) is that tied agents are restricted to one principal when acting as such. A tied agent who has a MiFID investment firm or a third country investment firm as a principal may have other principals who are not MiFID investment firms or third country investment firms.

(2) The effect of the rule prohibiting multiple principals for certain activities is that, in relation to home finance activities , appointed representatives are restricted to having four principals: one for regulated mortgage contracts other than lifetime mortgages, one for lifetime mortgages, one for home reversion plans and one for home purchase plans.

01/11/2007

SUP 12.5.6C

As SUP 12.5.6A R does not apply to non-investment insurance contracts, there are no restrictions on the number of principals an appointed representative may have in relation to those contracts.

14/01/2005

Required contract terms for an introducer appointed representative

SUP 12.5.7

A firm must ensure that its written contract with each of its introducer appointed representatives limits the scope of the appointment to:

(1) effecting introductions to the firm or other members of the firm's group; and

(2) distributing non-real time financial promotions which relate to products or services available from or through the firm or other members of the firm's group.

30/06/2004

Required contract terms for EEA tied agents

SUP 12.5.8

If a UK MiFID investment firm appoints an EEA tied agent, SUP 12.5.6A R (1A) applies to that firm as though the EEA tied agent were an appointed representative.
[Note: articles 4(1)(25) and 23(1) of MiFID]

01/11/2007

Required contract terms for FSA registered tied agents

SUP 12.5.9

Under section 39A(6)(a) of the Act a UK MiFID investment firm must ensure that the contract it uses to appoint an FSA registered tied agent complies with the requirements that would apply under the Appointed Representative Regulations if it were appointing an appointed representative.

01/11/2007

SUP 12.6

Continuing obligations of firms with appointed representatives or EEA tied agents

01/11/2007

Suitability etc. of appointed representatives

SUP 12.6.1

If at any time a firm has reasonable grounds to believe that the conditions in SUP 12.4.2 R, SUP 12.4.6 R or SUP 12.4.8A R (as applicable) are not satisfied, or are likely not to be satisfied, in relation to any of its appointed representatives, the firm must:

(1) take immediate steps to rectify the matter; or

(2) terminate its contract with the appointed representative.

14/01/2005

SUP 12.6.1A

A firm that is a principal of a tied agent that is an appointed representative must monitor the activities of that tied agent so as to ensure the firm complies with obligations imposed under MiFID (or equivalent obligations relating to the equivalent business of a third country investment firm) when acting through that tied agent.
[Note: paragraph 3 of Article 23(2) of MiFID]

01/11/2007

SUP 12.6.2

The FSA would normally expect a firm to carry out a check on its appointed representative's financial position every year (more often, if necessary) and to review critically the information obtained. An appropriately experienced person (for example, a financial accountant) should carry out these checks.

21/06/2001

SUP 12.6.3

Consideration should be given, among other things, to the impact on the appointed representative's financial position of any debts owed to, or by, the appointed representative. Indicators that an appointed representative is experiencing financial problems may include failure to adhere to repayment schedules for any debts, failure to meet any other financial commitments or requests for advances of commission.

21/06/2001

SUP 12.6.4

A firm should look into any concerns that may arise at any time about an appointed representative's financial standing and take the necessary action. The necessary action may include, for example, increased monitoring or, if appropriate, suspension or termination of the appointment.

21/06/2001

Appointed representatives not to hold client money

SUP 12.6.5

(1) A firm must not permit an appointed representative to hold client money unless the firm is an insurance intermediary acting in accordance with CASS 5.5.18 R to CASS 5.5.23 R (which include provision for periodic segregation and reconciliation).

(2) The firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that if client money is received by the appointed representative, it is paid into a client bank account of the firm, or forwarded to the firm, in accordance with :

(a) CASS 4.3.15 R to CASS 4.3.17 R; or

(b) CASS 5.5.18 R to CASS 5.5.21 R unless acting in accordance with CASS 5.5.23 R (Periodic segregation and reconciliation); or

01/11/2007

SUP 12.6.5A

When complying with the MiFID client money segregation requirements, firms' attention is drawn to the guidance in CASS 7.4.24 G to CASS 7.4.27 G.

01/11/2007

Regulated activities and investment services outside the scope of appointment

SUP 12.6.6

A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that each of its appointed representatives:

(1) does not carry on regulated activities in breach of the general prohibition in section 19 of the Act; and

(2) carries on the regulated activities for which the firm has accepted responsibility in a way which is, and is held out as being, clearly distinct from any of the appointed representative's other business:

(a) which is performed as an appointed representative of another firm; or

(b) which:

(i) is, or is held out as being, primarily for the purposes of investment or obtaining credit, or obtaining insurance cover; and

(ii) is not a regulated activity.

14/01/2005

Senior management responsibility for appointed representatives

SUP 12.6.7

The senior management of a firm should be aware that the activities of appointed representatives are an integral part of the business that they manage. The responsibility for the control and monitoring of the activities of appointed representatives rests with the senior management of the firm.

01/11/2007

Obligations of firms under the approved persons regime

SUP 12.6.8

(1) Some of the controlled functions, as set out in SUP 10.4.1 R, apply to an appointed representative of a firm, other than an introducer appointed representative, just as they apply to a firm (see SUP 10.1.16 R). These are the governing functions and the customer function . As explained in SUP 10.1.16A R and SUP 10.3.2 G respectively:

(a) the effect of SUP 10.1.16 R is that the directors (or their equivalent) and senior managers (or their equivalent) of an appointed representative, other than an introducer appointed representative, must also be approved under section 59 of the Act for the performance of certain controlled functions;
(b) although the customer function applies to an appointed representative, the descriptions of the functions themselves do not extend to home finance mediation activity or insurance mediation activity; and
(c) sections 59(1) and 59(2) of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements) provide that approval is necessary in respect of a controlled function which is performed under an arrangement entered into by a firm, or its contractors (typically an appointed representative), in relation to a regulated activity.

(2) The approved persons regime applies differently to an appointed representative whose scope of appointment includes insurance mediation activity in relation to non-investment insurance contractsbut no other regulated activity and whose principal purpose is to carry on activities other than regulated activities. These appointed representatives need only one person performing one of the governing functions. This means that only one director (or equivalent) of these appointed representatives must be approved under section 59 of the Act for the performance of the director function, the chief executive function, the partner function or the director of unincorporated association function, whichever is the most appropriate (see SUP 10.1.16A R).

01/11/2007

SUP 12.6.9

Firms should be aware that, under the approved persons regime, the firm is responsible for submitting applications to the FSA for the approval as an approved person of:

(1) any individual who performs a controlled function and who is an appointed representative; and

(2) any person who performs a controlled function under an arrangement entered into by any of the firm's appointed representatives.

Applications for approval should be submitted as early as possible since a person may not perform a controlled function if he has not been approved by the FSA (see SUP 10.12 ).

21/06/2001

Obligations of firms under the training and competence rules

SUP 12.6.10

The rules and guidancerelating to training and competence in SYSC 3 and SYSC 5 and in TCfor a firm carrying on retail business extend to any employee of the firm in respect of whom the relevant rules apply. For these purposes, an employee of a firm includes:

(1) an individual who is an appointed representative of a firm; and

(2) an individual who is employed or appointed by an appointed representative of a firm (whether under a contract of service or for services) in connection with the business of the appointed representative for which the firm has accepted responsibility.

01/11/2007

SUP 12.6.11

A firm should take reasonable care to ensure that:

(1) it has satisfied SYSC 3 or SYSC 4 to 9 and TC in respect of the relevant staff of the appointed representative; and

(2) its appointed representative has adequate arrangements in respect of training and competence, which meet the requirements in SYSC and TC.

01/04/2009

Compliance by an appointed representative with the contract

SUP 12.6.11A

A firm must take reasonable steps to establish and maintain effective systems and controls for ensuring that each of its appointed representatives complies with those terms of its contract which are imposed under the requirements contained or referred to in SUP 12.5 (Contracts: required times).

30/06/2004

SUP 12.6.12

[Deleted]

30/06/2004

Continuing obligations of firms with tied agents

SUP 12.6.13

A firm must ensure that its tied agent discloses the capacity in which he is acting and the firm he is representing when contacting a client or potential client or before dealing with a client or potential client.
[Note: paragraph 1 of article 23(2) of MiFID]

01/11/2007

SUP 12.6.14

A firm must take adequate measures in order to avoid any negative impact of the activities of its tied agent not covered by the scope of MiFID (or relating to the equivalent business of a third country investment firm) could have on the activities carried out by the tied agent on behalf of the firm.
[Note: paragraph 1 of article 23(4) of MiFID]

01/11/2007

Continuing obligations of firms with EEA tied agents

SUP 12.6.15

If a UK MiFID investment firm appoints an EEA tied agent, SUP 12.6.1 R, SUP 12.6.1A R, SUP 12.6.5 R and SUP 12.6.11A R apply to that firm as though the EEA tied agent were an appointed representative.

01/11/2007

SUP 12.7

Notification requirements

01/12/2004

Notification of appointment of an appointed representative

SUP 12.7.1

(1) This rule applies to a firm which intends to appoint:

(a) an appointed representative to carry on insurance mediation activities; or

(b) a tied agent .

(2) This rule also applies to a firm which has appointed an appointed representative.

(3) A firm in (1) must complete and submit the form in SUP 12 Annex 3 before the appointment.

(4) A firm in (2) must complete and submit the form in SUP 12 Annex 3 within ten business days after the commencement of activities.

01/11/2007

SUP 12.7.1A

(1) A firm other than a credit union must submit the form in SUP 12 Annex 3 R onlineat www.fsa.gov.uk using the FSA's ONAsystem.

(2) A credit unionmust submit the form in SUP 12 Annex 3 R in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).

(3) Where a firm is obliged to submit an application online under (1), if the FSA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, until such time as facilities for online submission are restored, a firm must submit the form in SUP 12 Annex 3 R in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).

[Note: See SUP 12.7.10 G to SUP 12.7.11 G regarding notification in the event of online failure.]

04/10/2010

SUP 12.7.2

A firm's notice under SUP 12.7.1 R should give details of the appointed representative and the regulated activities which the firm is, or intends to, carry on through the appointed representative, including:

(1) the name of the firm's new appointed representative (if the appointed representative is a body corporate, this is its registered name);

(2) any trading name under which the firm's new appointed representative carries on a regulated activity in that capacity;

(3) a description of the regulated activities which the appointed representative is permitted or required to carry on and for which the firm has accepted responsibility;

(4) any restrictions imposed on the regulated activities for which the firm has accepted responsibility; and

(5) where the appointed representative is not an individual, the name of the individuals who are responsible for the management of the business carried on by the appointed representative so far as it relates to insurance mediation activity.

14/10/2005

SUP 12.7.3

A firm need not notify the FSA of any restrictions imposed on the regulated activities for which the firm has accepted responsibility (under SUP 12.7.2 G (4)) if the firm accepts responsibility for the unrestricted scope of the regulated activities.

21/06/2001

SUP 12.7.3A

Where a notification is linked to an application for approval under section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements), see SUP 10.12.4A G .

01/12/2002

SUP 12.7.4

(1) [deleted]

(2) [deleted]

21/06/2001

SUP 12.7.5

To contact the Individuals, Mutuals and Policy Department:

(1) telephone on 020 7066 0019; fax on 020 7066 1099; or

(2) write to: Individuals, Mutuals and Policy Department, The Financial Services Authority, 25 The North Colonnade, Canary Wharf, London E14 5HS; or

(3) email iva@ fsa.gov.uk.

01/11/2007

Notification of changes in information given to the FSA

SUP 12.7.7

(1) If:

(a)

(i) the scope of appointment of an appointed representative is extended to cover insurance mediation activities for the first time; and

(ii) the appointed representative is not included on the Register as carrying on insurance mediation activities in another capacity; or

(b) the scope of appointment of an appointed representative ceases to include insurance mediation activity;

the appointed representative's principal must give written notice to the FSA of that change before the appointed representative begins to carry on insurance mediation activities under the contract (see SUP 12.4) or as soon as the scope of appointment of the appointed representative ceases to include insurance mediation activities.

(1A) If:

(a)

(i) the scope of appointment changes such that the appointed representative acts as a tied agent for the first time; and

(ii) the appointed representative is not included on the Register ; or

(b) the appointed representative ceases to act as a tied agent;

the appointed representative's principal must give written notice to the FSA of that change before the appointed representative begins to act as a tied agent (see SUP 12.4) or as soon as the appointed representative ceases to act as a tied agent.

(2) Where there is a change in any of the information provided to the FSA under SUP 12.7.1 R or SUP 12.7.7 R (1A), a firm must complete and submit to the FSA the form in SUP 12 Annex 4 R (Appointed representative notification form) within ten business days of that change being made or, if later, as soon as the firm becomes aware of the change. The Appointed representative notification form must state that the information has changed.

(3) [deleted]

[Note: See SUP 12.7.8A R regarding the method of submission for the form in SUP 12 Annex 4 R.]

04/10/2010

Notification of changes in conditions of appointment

SUP 12.7.8

(1) As soon as a firm has reasonable grounds to believe that any of the conditions in SUP 12.4.2 R, SUP 12.4.6 R or SUP 12.4.8A R (as applicable) are not satisfied, or are likely not to be satisfied, in relation to any of its appointed representatives, it must complete and submit to the FSA the form in SUP 12 Annex 4 R (Appointed representative notification form), in accordance with the instructions on the form.

(2) In its notification under SUP 12.7.8 R (1), the firm must state either:

(a) the steps it proposes to take to rectify the matter; or

(b) the date of termination of its contract with the appointed representative (see SUP 12.8).

(3) [deleted]

04/10/2010

Method of submission of the form in SUP 12 Annex 4R

SUP 12.7.8A

(1) A firm other than a credit union must submit the form as set out in SUP 12 Annex 4 R online at www.fsa.gov.uk using the FSA's ONAsystem.

(2) A credit union must submit the form in SUP 12 Annex 4 R in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).

(3) Where a firm is obliged to submit an application online under (1), if the FSA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, until such time as facilities for online submission are restored, a firm must submit the form in SUP 12 Annex 4 R in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).

[Note: See SUP 12.7.10 G to SUP 12.7.11 G regarding notification in the event of online failure.]

04/10/2010

Notifications relating to EEA tied agents

SUP 12.7.9

If a UK MiFID investment firm appoints an EEA tied agent this section applies to that firm as though the EEA tied agent were an appointed representative.

01/11/2007

Submission in the event of failure of FSA information technology systems

SUP 12.7.10

If the FSA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FSA will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that online submission is unavailable and that firms, other than credit unions, should use the alternative methods of submission set out in SUP 12.7.1AR (3) and SUP 12.7.8AR (3) (as appropriate), and SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G, addressing applications for the attention of the Individuals and Mutuals Team.

04/10/2010

SUP 12.7.11

Where SUP 12.7.1AR (3) or SUP 12.7.8AR (3) apply to a firm, GEN 1.3.2 R (Emergency) does not apply.

04/10/2010

SUP 12.8

Termination of a relationship with an appointed representative or EEA tied agent

01/11/2007

Notification of termination or prohibited amendment of the contract

SUP 12.8.1

If either the firm or the appointed representative notifies the other that it proposes to terminate the contract of appointment or to amend it so that it no longer meets the requirements contained or referred to in SUP 12.5 (Contracts: required terms), the firm must:

(1) complete and submit to the FSA the form in SUP 12 Annex 5 R (Appointed representative termination form) in accordance with the instructions on the form and no more than ten business days after the date of the decision to terminate or so amend the contract or, if later, as soon as it becomes aware that the contract is to be or has been terminated or amended.

(2) [deleted]

(3) [deleted]

(4) [deleted]

04/10/2010

SUP 12.8.1A

(1) A firm other than a credit union must submit any notification under SUP 12.8.1 R (1) in the form set out in SUP 12 Annex 5 R, online at www.fsa.gov.uk using the FSA's ONAsystem.

(2) A credit union must submit any notification under SUP 12.8.1 R (1) in the form set out in SUP 12 Annex 5 R and in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).

(3) Where a firm is obliged to submit a notification online under (1), if the FSA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, until such time as facilities for online submission are restored, a firm must submit any notification in the form set out in SUP 12 Annex 5 R and in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).

04/10/2010

SUP 12.8.1B

If the FSA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FSA will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that online submission is unavailable and that the alternative methods of submission set out in SUP 12.8.1AR(3) and SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification) should be used.

04/10/2010

SUP 12.8.1C

Where SUP 12.8.1AR (3) applies to a firm, GEN 1.3.2 R (Emergency) does not apply.

04/10/2010

SUP 12.8.2

In assessing whether to terminate a relationship with an appointed representative, a firm should be aware that the notification rules in SUP 15 require notification to be made immediately to the FSA if certain events occur. Examples include a matter having a serious regulatory impact or involving an offence or a breach of any requirement imposed by the Act or by regulations or orders made under the Act by the Treasury.

21/06/2001

Steps to be taken on termination or prohibited amendment of the contract

SUP 12.8.3

If a contract with an appointed representative is terminated, or if it is amended in a way which gives rise to a requirement to notify under SUP 12.8.1 R, a firm must take all reasonable steps to ensure that:

(1) if the termination is by the firm, the appointed representative is notified in writing before, or if not possible, immediately on, the termination of the contract and informed that it will no longer be an exempt person for the purpose of the Act because of the contract with the firm;

(2) outstanding regulated activities and obligations to customers are properly completed and fulfilled either by itself or another of its appointed representatives;

(3) where appropriate, clients are informed of any relevant changes; and

(4) all the other principals of the appointed representative of which the firm is aware are notified.

30/06/2004

Notification of approved persons on termination

SUP 12.8.4

The firm is responsible for notifying the FSA of any approved person who no longer performs a controlled function under an arrangement entered into by a firm or its appointed representative (see SUP 10.3).

21/06/2001

Removal of an appointed representative from the Register

SUP 12.8.5

The FSA has the power to remove from the Register an appointed representative, whose scope of appointment covers insurance mediation activities (see SUP 12.4.9 G and SUP 12.4.10 G).

14/01/2005

Termination of a UK MiFID investment firm's relationship with an EEA tied agent

SUP 12.8.6

If a UK MiFID investment firm has appointed an EEA tied agent this section applies to that firm as though the EEA tied agent were an appointed representative.

01/11/2007

SUP 12.9

Record keeping

01/12/2004

SUP 12.9.1

A firm must make the following records on each of its appointed representatives:

(1) the appointed representative's name;
(2) a copy of the original contract with the appointed representative and any subsequent amendments to it (including details of any restrictions placed on the activities which the appointed representative may carry on);
(3) the date and reason for terminating or amending its contract with the appointed representative, whenever such termination or amendment gives rise to a requirement to notify under SUP 12.8.1 R; and
(4) any arrangements agreed with other principals under SUP 12.4.5B R (Multiple principals).

30/06/2004

SUP 12.9.2

A firm must retain these records for at least three years from the date of termination or the amendment of the contract with the appointed representativeother than in respect of tied agents when the records must be retained for a period of five years.

01/11/2007

SUP 12.9.3

The firm should also satisfy itself that:

(1) the appointed representative is making and retaining records in accordance with the relevant record keeping rules in the Handbook, if these records are not maintained by the firm;
(2) the appointed representative (other than an introducer appointed representative) is making and retaining records sufficient to disclose with reasonable accuracy the financial position of the business it carries on in its capacity as the firm's appointed representative; and
(3) the firm has full access to the appointed representative's records under (1) and (2) and any other records relevant to the regulated activities that the appointed representative carries on in that capacity.

21/06/2001

SUP 12.9.4

Firms are reminded that they should make and retain records in relation to any person who falls within the scope of the rules in TC or who performs a controlled function under an arrangement entered into by a firm or by an appointed representative. See SUP 10 and TC for the applicable record keeping rules.

21/06/2001

Record keeping in relation to EEA tied agents

SUP 12.9.5

If a UK MiFID investment firm appoints an EEA tied agent this section applies to that firm as though the EEA tied agent were an appointed representative.

01/11/2007

SUP 12 Annex 1

Guidance on steps a firm should take in assessing the financial position of an appointed representative (other than an introducer appointed representative). See SUP 12.4.3 G

01/12/2004

The guidance in this annex applies to a firm which intends to appoint, or has appointed, an appointed representative (other than an introducer appointed representative).

All of the items in this annex should be applied, as appropriate, to an individual who is in business on his own.

Partners in partnerships (other than limited partners in limited liability partnerships) have joint and several unlimited liability. It follows that any assessment of the financial position of an appointed representative which is a partnership should take into account the final position of the individual partners as well as the partnership itself.

Accounts

1. Consider whether the type of accounts obtained is appropriate to the type of appointed representative (for example, companies should supply audited accounts prepared in accordance with Companies Act provisions while individuals in business on their own may only prepare unaudited accounts, for example, for submission to HM Revenue and Customs or their bankers).
2. Consider whether the accounts have been prepared on a timely basis. Consider the content of the audit report, including all detail and explanations given, and any qualifications which it may contain. Investigate any concerns.
3. If relevant, obtain the most recent management accounts to assess whether the appointed representative's financial position has changed materially since the most recent audited accounts.
4. If audited accounts are not available, be more circumspect about the accounts as they have not been independently audited. If necessary, consider obtaining third party verification of material balances.

Unusual items/recoverability of debts/goodwill

1. Investigate fully any unusual items - in particular any amounts outstanding with directors, partners, connected persons or associates and any guarantees.
2. Consider whether any amounts due to the appointed representative would be recoverable; and whether the appointed representative would be in a position to pay any debts if it were required to do so at short notice.
3. Any balance for goodwill should be ignored since this will normally represent a stream of potential future income which may not be forthcoming if the equity interest in the appointed representative were sold.

Financial stability/cashflows

1. Critically review the accounts to ensure that the appointed representative is financially stable. The review should take into account the overall position of the appointed representative and its cashflow.
2. The review should also consider the nature of the appointed representative's assets and whether or not they are liquid and readily available to the appointed representative, if required. Investments in (for example) unquoted companies or property may be difficult to realise if there were a sudden need for cash.

Income / financial pressures

1. Assess the overall financial pressures on the appointed representative and connected persons. Account should be taken of the full range of the appointed representative's activities (and not merely those activities in which the appointed representative will be acting for the firm). Careful consideration should be given to any debts arising out of previous activities within the financial services industry.
2. If relevant, review the accounts of any associates where there is a possibility that their performance - or any commitments entered into in respect of them - may affect the financial position of the appointed representative.
3. Establish whether the appointed representative's income is sufficient both to service any debts and to provide an acceptable level of income to the proprietors.

Credit checks /dealings government bodies

1. Undertake a credit reference check on the appointed representative itself (in the case of a company); on the partners (in the case of a partnership); or on the individual (in the case of a sole trader).
2. Ask the appointed representative whether it is up to date in its dealings with HM Revenue and Customs (etc).

Forecasts

1. If relevant, obtain a forecast of the next year's figures and review it to ensure that the appointed representative is likely to remain in a satisfactory financial position. This is particularly important where a material change is expected in the appointed representative's operations; or where the appointed representative has only recently been established so that accounts are not available for the previous three complete financial years.
2. If the firm decides to appoint the appointed representative, the firm should keep the appointed representative's actual performance under close review so as to assess whether the forecasts were realistic and to enable any problems to be addressed.

21/04/2005

SUP 12 Annex 2

Guidance on information firms should take reasonable steps to obtain to verify and to assess the fitness and propriety of an appointed representative (other than an introducer appointed representative). See SUP 12.4.4 G (1).

01/12/2004

1. The guidance in this annex applies to a firm which intends to appoint or has appointed an appointed representative (except an introducer appointed representative).

2. Items 1(c) and 1(d) in the following table will not be relevant in the case of an individual who is himself an appointed representative, unless, in the case of 1(d), the individual is in business on his own.

3. If the appointed representative is a partnership, the information a firm should obtain, having regard to SUP 12.4.4 G (1), is that contained in this annex on the basis that the information sought applies to each partner. When considering the fitness and propriety of each partner, having regard to SUP 12.4.4 G (1), information a firm should obtain will also include information in this annex. Therefore, a firm may wish to assess the fitness and propriety of partners as suggested in SUP 12.4.4 G (2) and then consider if any additional information is recommended under this annex.

(1)

Information about the appointed representative

(a)

Name

(b)

Address, and, where applicable and different, address of the registered office and the principal place of business

(c)

full name of every director, senior manager and controller

(d)

accounts (see SUP 12 Annex 1) for the last three complete financial years

The appointed representative's professional reputation

(a)

Disciplinary proceedings

(i)

whether the appointed representative has ever been publicly censored, disciplined, suspended or expelled by the FSA, another regulator, a clearing house, an exchange, a professional body, or a government body or agency;

(ii)

whether the appointed representative is currently the subject of any disciplinary proceedings by a body referred to in (i) above or is aware that such proceedings are pending;

(iii)

whether the appointed representative has ever been the subject of a formal investigation under the powers in the Companies Acts 1985 to 2006; and

(iv)

whether the appointed representative has had anything equivalent to (i) to (iii) above occur under relevant overseas provisions.

The appointed representative's professional reputation - continued

(b)

Criminal or civil proceedingsWhether the appointed representative is a defendant in any current civil proceedings connected with professional activities in which an allegation of fraud or dishonesty is being made, the subject of any current criminal proceedings, or has been convicted of any criminal offence, either in the United Kingdom or overseas.

(c)

Insolvency, bankruptcy and winding upWhether the appointed representative has:

(i)

been wound up or had a petition presented, or had a meeting called to consider a resolution, for winding it up; or

(ii)

in the case of a company, been the subject of an application to dissolve it or to strike it off the Register of Companies; or

(iii)

made, or proposed to make, a composition or voluntary arrangement with any one of more of its creditors; or

(iv)

had an administrator or trustee in bankruptcy appointed to it or had an application made for such an appointment; or

(v)

had a receiver appointed to it (whether an administrative receiver or a receiver appointed over particular property); or

(vi)

had an application for an interim order made against it under section 252 of the Insolvency Act 1986 (or, in Northern Ireland, section 227 of the Insolvency (Northern Ireland) Order 1989); or

(vii)

if it is a sole trader, been the subject of an application for a sequestration order or a petition for bankruptcy; or

(viii)

ceased trading in circumstances in which any of its creditors did not receive full payment; or.

(ix)

had anything equivalent to (i) to (viii) above occur under relevant overseas law.

06/06/2008

SUP 12 Annex 3

Appointed representative appointment form

01/12/2004

04/10/2010

SUP 12 Annex 4

Appointed representative notification form

01/12/2004

04/10/2010

SUP 12 Annex 5

Appointed representative termination form

01/12/2004

04/10/2010

SUP 13

Exercise of passport rights by UK firms

SUP 13.1

Application and purpose

01/12/2004

Application

SUP 13.1.1

This chapter applies to a UK firm, that is, a person whose head office is in the United Kingdom and which is entitled to carry on an activity in another EEA State subject to the conditions of a Single Market Directive. Such an entitlement is referred to in the Act as an EEA right and its exercise is referred to in the Handbook as passporting.

21/06/2001

SUP 13.1.2

This chapter also applies to a UK firm which wishes to establish a branch in, or provide cross border services into, Gibraltar. The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Gibraltar) Order 2001 provides that a UK firm is to be treated as having an entitlement corresponding to its EEA right, to establish a branch in, or provide cross border services into, Gibraltar under any of the Single Market Directives. So, references in this chapter to an EEA State or an EEA right include references to Gibraltar and the entitlement under the Gibraltar Order respectively.

06/10/2006

SUP 13.1.3

This chapter does not apply to:

(1) a firm established in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom; passporting by such a firm in or into the United Kingdom is a matter for its Home State regulator although guidance is given in SUP 13A (Qualifying for authorisation under the Act);

(2) other overseas firms (that is, overseas firms established outside the EEA); such firms are not entitled to passport into another EEA State and, where relevant, may need to obtain authorisation in each EEA State in which they carry on business;

(3) any insurance activity by way of provision of services which is provided by an EEA firm participating in a community co-insurance operation otherwise than as leading insurer; article 26.2 of the Second Non-Life Directive provides that only the leading insurer in such an operation is required to complete any passporting formalities (see also article 11 of the Regulated Activities Order); or

(4) the marketing of a UCITS scheme by its operator in another EEA State under the UCITS Directive (see COLLG 2.1.8 G).

01/04/2009

SUP 13.1.4

SUP App 3 contains guidance on the Single Market Directives.

01/03/2005

Purpose

SUP 13.1.5

This chapter gives guidance on Schedule 3 to the Act for a UK firm which wishes to exercise its EEA right and establish a branch in, or provide cross border services into, another EEA State. That is, when a UK firm wishes to establish its first branch in, or provide cross border services for the first time into, a particular EEA State.

21/06/2001

SUP 13.1.6

The chapter also explains how a UK firm which has already established a branch in, or is providing cross border services into, another EEA State, may change the details of its branch or of the cross border services it is providing: for example, where a UK firm wishes to establish additional branches in an EEA State in which it has already established a branch where this would result in a change to the details provided previously. Such changes are governed by the EEA Passport Rights Regulations.

21/06/2001

SUP 13.2

Introduction

01/12/2004

SUP 13.2.1

This chapter gives guidance to UK firms. In most cases UK firms will be authorised persons under the Act. However, under the Banking Consolidation Directive , a subsidiary of a firm which is a credit institution which meets the criteria set out in that Directive also has an EEA right. Such an unauthorised subsidiary is known as a financial institution. References in this chapter to a UK firm include a financial institution.

21/06/2001

SUP 13.2.2

A UK firm should be aware that the guidance is the FSA's interpretation of the Single Market Directives, the Act and the legislation made under the Act. The guidance is not exhaustive and is not a substitute for firms consulting the legislation or taking their own legal advice in the United Kingdom and in the relevant EEA States.

21/06/2001

SUP 13.2.3

In some circumstances, a UK firm that is carrying on business which is outside the scope of the Single Market Directives has a right under the Treaty to carry on that business. For example, for an insurer carrying on both direct insurance and reinsurance business, the authorisation of reinsurance business is not covered by the Insurance Directives. The firm may, however, have rights under the Treaty in respect of its reinsurance business. Such UK firms may wish to consult with the FSA on their particular circumstances (see SUP 13.12.2 G).

06/03/2009

SUP 13.3

Establishing a branch in another EEA State

01/12/2004

What constitutes a branch

SUP 13.3.1

Guidance on what constitutes a branch is given in SUP App 3 . Note that if a UK MiFID investment firm is seeking to use a tied agent established in another EEA State, the rules in SUP 13 will apply as if that firm were seeking to establish a branch in that EEA State unless the firm has already established a branch in that EEA State (paragraph 20A of Schedule 3 to the Act).

01/11/2007

The conditions for establishing a branch

SUP 13.3.2

A UK firm other than a UK pure reinsurer cannot establish a branch in another EEA State for the first time under an EEA right unless the conditions in paragraphs 19(2), (4) and (5) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act are satisfied. It is an offence for a UK firm which is not an authorised person to contravene this prohibition (paragraph 21 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act). These conditions are that:

(1) the UK firm has given the FSA, in accordance with the FSA rules (see SUP 13.5.1 R), notice of its intention to establish a branch (known as a notice of intention) which:

(a) identifies the activities which it seeks to carry on through the branch; and
(b) includes such other information as may be specified by the FSA (see SUP 13.5.1 R);

(2) the FSA has given notice (known as a consent notice) to the Host State regulator; and
(3)

(a) if the UK firm's EEA right derives from the Insurance Mediation Directive one month has elapsed beginning on the date on which the UK firm received notice that the FSA had given a consent notice as described in SUP 13.3.6 G (1) (see SUP 13.3.2A G);
(b) in any other case:

(i) the Host State regulator has notified the UK firm (or, where the UK firm is passporting under the Insurance Directives, the FSA) of the applicable provisions or, in the case of a UK firm passporting under MiFID, that the branch may be established; or
(ii) two months have elapsed beginning with the date on which the FSA gave the consent notice.

06/03/2009

SUP 13.3.2A

If the UK firm is passporting under the Insurance Mediation Directive and the EEA State in which the UK firm is seeking to establish a branch has not notified the European Commission of its wish to be informed of the intention of persons to establish a branch in its territory in accordance with article 6(2) of that directive, SUP 13.3.2 G (2) and SUP 13.3.2 G (3) do not apply. Accordingly, the UK firm may establish the branch to which its notice of intention relates as soon as the conditions referred to in SUP 13.3.2 G (1) are satisfied.The list of EEA States that have notified the European Commission of their wish to be informed in accordance with article 6(2) of the Insurance Mediation Directive is published on the FSA's website at www.fsa.gov.uk .

06/02/2007

SUP 13.3.2B

An appointed representative appointed by a firm to carry on insurance mediation activity on its behalf may establish a branch in another EEA State under the Insurance Mediation Directive. In this case, the notice of intention in SUP 13.3.2 G (1) should be given to the FSA by the firm on behalf of the appointed representative.

06/02/2007

SUP 13.3.2C

An exempt professional firm which is included in the record of unauthorised persons carrying on insurance mediation activity maintained by the FSA under article 93 of the Regulated Activities Order may establish a branch in another EEA State under the Insurance Mediation Directive (see PROF 7.2).

21/06/2001

SUP 13.3.2D

A tied agent appointed by a MiFID investment firm to carry on investment services and activities (and ancillary services where relevant) does not have its own passporting right to establish a branch in another EEA State. However, a MiFID investment firm remains free to appoint a tied agent to do business in another EEA State and where it does so, the tied agent will benefit from its passport.

06/03/2009

SUP 13.3.2E

Once authorised in the United Kingdom, a UK pure reinsurer has an automatic EEA right to carry on reinsurance business in another EEA State by establishing a branch in that state or providing cross border services into that state. There are no additional requirements to be satisfied before the firm can commence business in that state.

06/03/2009

SUP 13.3.3

Where the UK firm is passporting under the Insurance Directives and the Host State regulator has notified the FSA of the applicable provisions, then under paragraph 19(9) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act, the FSA is required to inform the firm of these provisions.

06/03/2009

SUP 13.3.3A

(1) SUP 13.3.3 G does not apply to UK pure reinsurers as they have automatic passport rights on the basis of their Home State authorisation under the Reinsurance Directive.

(2) Under section 3 of Part III of the General Protocol, Home State regulators have agreed to inform Host State regulators if a pure reinsurer for which the Home State is responsible carries on business through a branch in the Host State. Therefore SUP 13.5.1A R requires a UK firm passporting under the Reinsurance Directive to notify the FSA of certain information relating to the branch.

06/03/2009

Issue of a consent notice to the Host State regulator

SUP 13.3.5

(1) If the UK firm's EEA right derives from the Banking Consolidation Directive, MiFID or the UCITS Directive, the FSA will give the Host State regulator a consent notice within three months unless it has reason to doubt the adequacy of a UK firm's resources or its administrative structure. The Host State regulator then has a further two months to notify the applicable provisions (if any) and prepare for the supervision, as appropriate, of the UK firm, or in the case of a MiFID investment firm, to inform the UK firm that a branch can be established.
(2)

(a) If the UK firm's EEA right derives from the Insurance Directives, the FSA will give the Host State regulator a consent notice within three months unless it has reason to:

(i) doubt the adequacy of the UK firm's resources or its administrative structure; or
(ii) question the reputation, qualifications or experience of the directors or managers of the UK firm or its proposed authorised agent;

in relation to the business the UK firm intends to conduct through the proposed branch. The Host State regulator then has a further two months to notify the applicable provisions (if any) and prepare for the supervision, as appropriate, of the UK firm.
(b) In assessing the matters in (2)(a), the FSA may, in particular, seek further information from the firm or require a report from a skilled person (see SUP 5 (skilled persons)).
(c) If the FSA has required a financial recovery plan of a UK firm of the kind mentioned in paragraph 1 of article 38 of the Consolidated Life Directive or paragraph 1 of article 20a of the First Non-Life Directive, the FSA will not give a consent notice for so long as it considers that policyholders are threatened within the meaning of those provisions.
(d) If the UK firm's EEA right derives from the Insurance Mediation Directive and SUP 13.3.2 G (2) applies, the FSA will give the Host State regulator a consent notice within one month of the date on which it received the UK firm's notice of intention. In cases where SUP 13.3.2 G (2) does not apply (see SUP 13.3.2A G), the UK firm may establish a branch as soon as it satisfies the conditions referred to in SUP 13.3.2 G.

01/11/2007

SUP 13.3.6

(1) If the FSA gives a consent notice, it will inform the UK firm in writing that it has done so.
(2) The consent notice will contain, among other matters, the requisite details or, if the firm is passporting under the Insurance Directives, the relevant EEA details (see SUP 13 Annex 1) provided by the UK firm in its notice of intention (see SUP 13.5 (Notices of intention)).

06/02/2007

SUP 13.3.7

(1) If the FSA proposes to refuse to give a consent notice, then paragraph 19(8) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the FSA to give the UK firm a warning notice.

(2) If the FSA decides to refuse to give a consent notice, then paragraph 19(12) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the FSA to give the UK firm a decision notice within three months of the date on which it received the UK firm's notice of intention (two months in the case of a UK firm which is a UCITS management company). The UK firm may refer the matter to the Tribunal.

(3) For details of the FSA's procedures for the giving of warning notices or decision noticessee DEPP 2 (Statutory notices and the allocation of decision making).

28/08/2007

SUP 13.4

Providing cross border services into another EEA State

01/12/2004

Where is the service provided?

SUP 13.4.1

Guidance on where a cross border service is provided is given in SUP App 3 .

01/03/2005

The conditions for providing cross border services into another EEA State

SUP 13.4.2

A UK firm, other than a UK pure reinsurer, cannot start providing cross border services into another EEA State under an EEA right unless it satisfies the conditions in paragraphs 20(1) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act and, if it derives its EEA right from the Insurance Directives, paragraph 20(4B) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act. It is an offence for a UK firm which is not an authorised person to breach this prohibition (paragraph 21 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act). The conditions are that:

(1) the UK firm has given the FSA, in the way specified by FSA rules (see SUP 13.5.2 R), notice of its intention to provide cross border services (known as a notice of intention) which:

(a) identifies the activities which it seeks to carry on by way of provision of cross border services; and
(b) includes such other information as may be specified by the FSA (see SUP 13.5.2 R); and

(2) if the UK firm is passporting under the Insurance Directives, the firm has received written notice from the FSA as described in SUP 13.4.6 G; or
(3) if the UK firm is passporting under the Insurance Mediation Directive and the EEA State in which the UK firm is seeking to provide services has notified the European Commission of its wish to be informed of the intention of persons to provide cross border services in its territory in accordance with article 6(2) of that directive, one month has elapsed beginning with the date on which the UK firm received written notice from the FSA as described in SUP 13.4.5 G (paragraph 20 (3B)(c) of Schedule 3 to the Act).

06/03/2009

SUP 13.4.2A

An appointed representative appointed by a firm to carry on insurance mediation activity on its behalf may provide cross border services in another EEA State under the Insurance Mediation Directive. In this case, the notice of intention in SUP 13.4.2 G (1) should be given to the FSA by the firm on behalf of the appointed representative.

06/02/2007

SUP 13.4.2B

An exempt professional firm which is included in the record of unauthorised persons carrying on insurance mediation activity maintained by the FSA under article 93 of the Regulated Activities Order may provide cross border services in another EEA State under the Insurance Mediation Directive (see PROF 7.2).

21/06/2001

SUP 13.4.2C

A tied agent appointed by a MiFID investment firm to carry on investment services and activities (and ancillary services where relevant) does not have its own passporting right to provide cross border services in another EEA State. However, a MiFID investment firm remains free to appoint a tied agent to do business in another EEA State and where it does so, the tied agent will benefit from its passport.

01/11/2007

SUP 13.4.2D

A MiFID investment firm that wishes to obtain a passport for the activity of operating an MTF should follow the procedures described in this chapter. A UK market operator that operates a recognised investment exchange or an MTF and wishes to provide cross border services into another EEA State should follow the procedure described in REC 4.2B.

06/03/2009

SUP 13.4.2E

SUP 13.4.2 G does not apply to UK pure reinsurers as they have automatic passport rights on the basis of their Home State authorisation under the Reinsurance Directive. No notification is required from UK pure reinsurers in respect of the provision of cross border services.

06/03/2009

Issuing a consent notice or notifying the Host State regulator

SUP 13.4.4

(1) If the UK firm's EEA right derives from MiFID, the Banking Consolidation Directive or the UCITS Directive, paragraph 20(3) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the FSA to send a copy of the notice of intention to the Host State Regulator within one month of receipt. However, a UK firm passporting under the Banking Consolidation Directive or MiFID may start providing cross border services as soon as it satisfies the relevant conditions (see SUP 13.4.2 G).
(2)

(a) If the UK firm's EEA right derives from the Insurance Directives, paragraph 20(3A) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the FSA, within one month of receiving the notice of intention, to:

(i) give notice in a specified form (known as a consent notice) to the Host State regulator; or
(ii) give written notice to the UK firm of its refusal to give a consent notice and the reasons for that refusal.

(b) The issue or refusal of a consent notice under paragraph 20(3A) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act is the consequence of a regulatory decision, and this consent notice (unlike the consent notice for establishment of a branch) is not a statutory notice as set out in section 395 of the Act. A UK firm that receives notice that the FSA refuses to give a consent notice may refer the matter to the Tribunal under paragraph 20(4A) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act.
(c) If the FSA has required of a UK firm a financial recovery plan of the kind mentioned in paragraph 1 of article 38 of the Consolidated Life Directive or paragraph 1 of article 20a of the First Non-Life Directive, the FSA will not give a consent notice for so long as it considers that policyholders' rights are threatened within the meaning of those provisions.

(2A)

(a) If the UK firm's EEA right derives from the Insurance Mediation Directive, and the EEA State in which the UK firm is seeking to provide services has notified the European Commission of its wish to be informed of the intention of persons to provide cross border services in its territory in accordance with article 6(2) of that directive, paragraph 20(3B)(a) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the FSA to send a copy of the notice of intention to the Host State regulator within one month of receipt. Otherwise, the UK firm may start providing cross border services as soon as it satisfies the relevant conditions (see SUP 13.4.2 G).
(b) The list of the EEA States that have notified the European Commission of their wish to be informed in accordance with article 6(2) of the Insurance Mediation Directive is published on the FSA's website at www.fsa.gov.uk.

01/11/2007

SUP 13.4.5

When the FSA sends a copy of a notice of intention , or if it gives a consent notice to the Host State regulator, it must inform the UK firm in writing that it has done so (paragraphs 20 (3B)(b) and (4) of Schedule 3 to the Act).

06/02/2007

Applicable provisions for cross border services

SUP 13.4.6

(1) If the UK firm is passporting under the UCITS Directive, then when the Host State regulator receives the notice of intention , it should inform the UK firm of any applicable provisions.

(2) If the UK firm is passporting under the Insurance Directives, then the Host State regulator may notify the FSA if there are any applicable provisions If so, the FSA will inform the UK firm of the applicable provisions.

(3) If a UK firm is not notified of the applicable provisions, it should, for its own protection, take all reasonable steps to determine the applicable provisions for itself.

01/11/2007

SUP 13.5

Notices of intention

01/12/2004

Specified contents: notice of intention to establish a branch

SUP 13.5.1

A UK firm, other than a UK pure reinsurer, wishing to establish a branch in a particular EEA State for the first time under an EEA right must submit a notice of intention in the form set out in SUP 13 Annex 1 R.

(1) [deleted]

(2) [deleted]

04/10/2010

SUP 13.5.1A

A UK pure reinsurer establishing a branch in a particular EEA state for the first time under the Reinsurance Directive mustsubmit a notice in the form set out in SUP 13 Annex 1 R. Whenever possible, this notification must be made as soon as the information specified in that form is known by the firm.

04/10/2010

SUP 13.5.1B

SUP 13.5.1 R does not apply to UK pure reinsurers as they have automatic passport rights on the basis of their Home State authorisation under the Reinsurance Directive.

06/03/2009

Specified contents: notice of intention to provide cross border services

SUP 13.5.2

A UK firm wishing to provide cross border services into a particular EEA State for the first time under an EEA right must submit a notice in the form set out in:

(1) SUP 13 Annex 2 R if the UK firm is passporting under MiFID; or
(1A) SUP 13 Annex 3 R if the UK firm is passporting under the Insurance Directives; or
(2) SUP 13 Annex 4 R if the UK firm is passporting under the Banking Consolidation Directive; or
(3) SUP 13 Annex 5 R if the UK firm is passporting under the Insurance Mediation Directive

04/10/2010

SUP 13.5.2A

SUP 13.5.2 R does not apply to UK pure reinsurers as they have automatic passport rights on the basis of their Home State authorisation under the Reinsurance Directive .

06/03/2009

Method of submission of notices

SUP 13.5.3

(1) A UK firm, other than a credit union, must submit any notice under SUP 13.5.1 R (1), SUP 13.5.1A R or SUP 13.5.2 R online at www.fsa.gov.uk using the FSA's ONAsystem.

(a) [deleted]

(b) [deleted]

(2) A credit union must submit any notice under SUP 13.5.1 R (1), SUP 13.5.1A R or SUP 13.5.2 R in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).

(a) [deleted]

(b) [deleted]

(d) [deleted]

(e) [deleted]

(f) [deleted]

(3) Where a firm is obliged to submit a notice in accordance with (1), if the FSA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, until such time as facilities for online submission are restored, a firm must submit that notice in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).

(4) [deleted]

04/10/2010

SUP 13.5.4

(1) If the FSA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FSA will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that online submission is unavailable and that the alternative methods of submission set out in SUP 13.5.3 R (3) and SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification) should be used.

(2) Where SUP 13.5.3 R (3) applies to a firm, GEN 1.3.2 R (Emergency) does not apply.

04/10/2010

Unregulated activities

SUP 13.5.5

A notice of intention may include activities within the scope of the relevant Single Market Directive which are not regulated activities (paragraphs 19(3) and 20(2) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act), although in the case of a MiFID investment firm a notice of intention may only include ancillary services which are to be carried on with one or more investment services and activities (paragraphs 19(5B) and 20(2A) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act). Regulation 19 of the EEA Passport Rights Regulations states that where a UK firm is able to carry on such an unregulated activity in the EEA State in question without contravening any law of the United Kingdom (or any part of the United Kingdom) the UK firm is treated, for the purposes of the exercise of its EEA right, as being authorised to carry on that activity.

01/11/2007

Translations

SUP 13.5.6

(1) A UK firm passporting under the Banking Consolidation Directive, the Insurance Directives or the Reinsurance Directivemay have to submit the requisite details or relevant details in the language of the Host State as well as in English. For a UK firm passporting under the Insurance Directives this translated document will not include the relevant UK details. Further information is available from the Passport Notifications Unit.

(2) A UK firm may wish to discuss with the Passport Notifications Unit the appropriate time for providing the translations in (1), given that further information or clarification of the details provided may be required by the FSA.

(3) A UK firm passporting under the Insurance Directives should keep the EEA and UK relevant details separate as, if the application is approved, only the former will be sent to the Host State regulator.

06/03/2009

Notifications to more than one EEA State

SUP 13.5.7

If a UK firm wishes to establish branches in, or provide cross border services into, more than one EEA State, a single notification may be provided but the relevant information for each EEA State should be clearly identifiable.

06/02/2007

SUP 13.6

Changes to branches

01/12/2004

SUP 13.6.1

Where a UK firm is exercising an EEA right, other than under the Insurance Mediation Directive (see SUP 13.6.9A G) or the Reinsurance Directive (see SUP 13.6.9B R), and has established a branch in another EEA State, any changes to the details of the branch are governed by the EEA Passport Rights Regulations. References to regulations in this section are to the EEA Passport Rights Regulations. A UK firm which is not an authorised person should note that, under regulation 18, contravention of the prohibition imposed by regulation 11(1), 13(1) or 15(1) is an offence. It is a defence, however, for the UK firm to show that it took all reasonable precautions and exercised due diligence to avoid committing the offence.

06/03/2009

SUP 13.6.2

UK firms should note that if a branch in another EEA State ceases to provide services, this may represent a change in requisite details or, if the firm is passporting under the Insurance Directives, the relevant EEA details or relevant UK details.

06/02/2007

SUP 13.6.3

UK firms should also note that changes to the details of branches may lead to changes to the applicable provisions to which the UK firm is subject. These changes should be communicated to the UK firm either by the Host State regulator, or, if the firm is passporting under Insurance Directives, via the FSA authorisations team.

21/06/2001

Firms passporting under the Banking Consolidation Directive and the UCITS Directive.

SUP 13.6.4

If a UK firm has exercised an EEA right, under the Banking Consolidation Directive or the UCITS Directive, and established a branch in another EEA State, regulation 11(1) states that the UK firm must not make a change in the requisite details of the branch (see SUP 13 Annex 1), unless it has satisfied the requirements of regulation 11(2), or, where the change arises from circumstances beyond the UK firm's control, regulation 11(3) (see SUP 13.6.10 G).

01/11/2007

SUP 13.6.5

Where the change arises from circumstances within the control of the UK firm, the requirements in regulation 11(2) are that:

(1) the UK firm has given notice to the FSA and to the Host State regulator stating the details of the proposed change;

(2) the FSA has given the Host State regulator a notice informing it of the details of the change; and

(3) either the Host State regulator has informed the UK firm that it may make the change, or the period of one month beginning with the day on which the UK firm gave the Host State regulator the notice in (1) has elapsed.

06/02/2007

Firms passporting under MiFID

SUP 13.6.5A

If a UK firm has exercised an EEA right to establish a branch under MiFID, it must not make a change in the requisite details of the branch (see SUP 13 Annex 1), use, for the first time, a tied agent established in the EEA State in which the branch is established, or cease to use a tied agent established in the EEA State in which the branch is established, unless it has satisfied the requirements of regulation 11A(2) (see SUP 13.6.5B G).

01/11/2007

SUP 13.6.5B

The requirements of regulation 11A(2) are that:

(1) the UK firm has given a notice to the FSA stating the details of the proposed change; and

(2) the period of one month beginning with the day on which the UK firm gave the notice has elapsed.

01/11/2007

Firms passporting under the Insurance Directives

SUP 13.6.6

If a UK firm has exercised an EEA right under the Insurance Directives and established a branch in another EEA State, regulation 13(1) states that the UK firm must not make a change in the relevant EEA details , unless it has satisfied the requirements of regulation 13(2), or, where the change arises from circumstances beyond the UK firm's control, regulation 13(3) (see SUP 13.6.10 G).

06/02/2007

SUP 13.6.7

Where the change arises from circumstances within the control of the UK firm, the requirements in regulation 13(2) are that:

(1) the UK firm has given notice to the FSA and to the Host State regulator stating the details of the proposed change;

(2) the FSA has given the Host State regulator a notice informing it of the details of the proposed change;

(3) the period of at least one month beginning on the day on which the UK firm gave the FSA the notice in (1) has elapsed; and

(4) either:

(a) a further period of one month has elapsed; or

(b) the FSA has informed the UK firm of any consequential changes in the applicable provisions of which the FSA has been notified by the Host State regulator.

06/02/2007

SUP 13.6.8

If a UK firm has exercised an EEA right under the Insurance Directives and established a branch in another EEA State, regulation 15(1) states that the UK firm cannot make a change in any of the relevant UK details unless the UK firm has given a notice to the FSA stating the details of the proposed change at least one month before the change is effected.

06/02/2007

SUP 13.6.9

Where a UK firm with Part IV permission to carry on both long-term and general insurance business, is passporting under the Insurance Directives and wishes to extend its general insurance business to include long term insurance business (or vice versa), it should complete a new notice of intention and not a change to details notice.

06/02/2007

Firms passporting under the Insurance Mediation Directive

SUP 13.6.9A

A UK firm exercising its EEA right under the Insurance Mediation Directive to establish a branch in another EEA State is not required to supply a change to the details of branches notice .

06/03/2009

Firms passporting under the Reinsurance Directive

SUP 13.6.9B

A UK firm exercising its EEA right under the Reinsurance Directive to establish a branch in another EEA State must notify the FSA of any changes in the information specified in SUP 13 Annex 1 R. Whenever possible, this notification must be made as soon as the change in information is known by the firm.

06/03/2009

Changes arising from circumstances beyond the control of a UK firm

SUP 13.6.10

(1) If the change arises from circumstances beyond the UK firm's control, the UK firm:

(a) is required by regulation 11(3) or regulation 13(3) to give a notice to the FSA and to the Host State regulator stating the details of the change as soon as reasonably practicable;
(b) may, if it is passporting under the Insurance Directives, make a change to its relevant UK details under regulation 15(1) if it has, as soon as practicable (whether before or after the change), given notice to the FSA stating the details of the change.

(2) The FSA believes that for a change to arise from circumstances beyond the control of a UK firm, the circumstances should be outside the control of the firm as a whole and not just the branch in the EEA State.
(3) Neither this guidance nor that set out at SUP 13.6.4 G or SUP 13.6.5 G is applicable to MiFID investment firms.

01/11/2007

The process

SUP 13.6.11

When the FSA receives a notice from a UK firmother than a MiFID investment firm(see SUP 13.6.5 G (1) and SUP 13.6.7 G (1)) ora pure reinsurer (see SUP 13.6.9B R) it is required by regulations 11(4) and 13(4) to either refuse, or consent to the change within a period of one month from the day on which it received the notice.

06/03/2009

SUP 13.6.12

If the FSA consents to the change, then under regulations 11(5) and 13(5) it will:

(1) give a notice to the Host State regulator informing it of the details of the change; and

(2) inform the UK firm that it has given the notice, stating the date on which it did so.

21/06/2001

SUP 13.6.13

If a UK firm is passporting under the Banking Consolidation Directive, then regulation 11(7) states that the FSA may not refuse to consent to a change unless, having regard to the change and to the EEA activities the UK firm is seeking to carry on, it doubts the adequacy of the administrative structure or the financial situation of the UK firm. In reaching its determination, the FSA may have regard to the adequacy of management, systems and the presence of relevant skills needed for the EEA activities to be carried on.

01/11/2007

SUP 13.6.14

If a UK firm is passporting under the Insurance Directives, then regulation 13(7) states that the FSA may not refuse to consent to a change unless, having regard to the change, the FSA has reason:

(1) to doubt the adequacy of the UK firm's administrative structure or financial situation; or

(2) to question the reputation, qualifications or experience of the directors or managers of the firm or the authorised agent;

in relation to the business conducted, or to be conducted, through the branch.

21/06/2001

SUP 13.6.15

If the FSA refuses to consent to a change, then under regulations 11(6) and 13(6):

(1) the FSA will give notice of the refusal to the UK firm, stating its reasons and giving an indication of the UK firm's right to refer the matter to the Tribunal and the procedures on such a reference; and

(2) the UK firm may refer the matter to the Tribunal.

28/08/2007

SUP 13.6.16

UK firms may wish to use the standard form available from the Passport Notifications Unit (see SUP 13.12 (Sources of further information)) to give the notices to the FSA described in SUP 13.6.5 G (1), SUP 13.6.5B G, SUP 13.6.7 G (1), SUP 13.6.8 G and SUP 13.6.10 G (1).

01/11/2007

The process: MiFID investment firms

SUP 13.6.17

When the FSA receives a notice from a UK MiFID investment firm (see SUP 13.6.5BG (1)), it is required by regulation 11A(3) to inform the relevant Host State regulator of the proposed change as soon as reasonably practicable. The firm in question may make the change once the period of one month beginning with the day on which it gave notice has elapsed.

01/11/2007

SUP 13.7

Changes to cross border services

01/12/2004

SUP 13.7.1

Where a UK firm is exercising an EEA right under the UCITS Directive, MiFID or the Insurance Directives and is providing cross border services into another EEA State, any changes to the details of the services are governed by the EEA Passport Rights Regulations. References to regulations in this section are to the EEA Passport Rights Regulations. A UK firm which is not an authorised person should note that contravention of the prohibition imposed by regulation 12(1), 12A(1) or 16(1) is an offence. It is a defence, however, for the UK firm to show that it took all reasonable precautions and exercised due diligence to avoid committing the offence.

01/11/2007

SUP 13.7.2

UK firms should also note that changes to the details of cross border services may lead to changes to the applicable provisions to which the UK firm is subject.

21/06/2001

Firms passporting under the UCITS Directive

SUP 13.7.3

If a UK firm is passporting under the UCITS Directive, regulation 12(1) states that the UK firm must not make a change in its programme of operations, or the activities to be carried on under its EEA right, unless the relevant requirements in regulation 12(2) have been complied with. These requirements are:

(1) the UK firm has given a notice to the FSA and to the Host State regulator stating the details of the proposed change; or

(2) if the change arises as a result of circumstances beyond the UK firm's control, the UK firm has as soon as practicable (whether before or after the change) given a notice to the FSA and to the Host State regulator, stating the details of the change.

UK firms may wish to use the standard form available from the Passport Notifications Unit (see SUP 13.12 (Sources of further information)) to give the notices to the FSA required by SUP 13.7.3 G (1) and SUP 13.7.3A G.

01/11/2007

Firms passporting under MiFID

SUP 13.7.3A

If a UK firm is providing cross border services in a particular EEA State in exercise of an EEA right deriving from MiFID, the UK firm must comply with the requirements of regulation 12A(2) before it makes a change to its programme of operations, including:

(1) changing the activities to be carried on in exercise that EEA right;

(2) using, for the first time, any tied agent to provide services in the territory of that EEA State; or

(3) ceasing to use any tied agent to provide services in the territory of that EEA State.

01/11/2007

SUP 13.7.3B

The requirements of regulation 12A(2) are that:

(1) the UK firm has given notice to the FSA stating the details of the proposed change; and

(2) the period of one month beginning with the day on which the UK firm gave the notice mentioned in (1) has elapsed.

01/11/2007

Firms passporting under the Insurance Directives

SUP 13.7.4

If a UK firm has exercised an EEA right under the Insurance Directives and is providing cross border services into another EEA State, regulation 16(1) states that the UK firm must not make a change in the relevant details (as defined in regulation 17 - see also SUP 13 Annex 3) unless the relevant requirements in regulation 16(3) or, where the change arises from circumstances beyond the UK firm's control, regulation 16(4), have been complied with.

06/02/2007

SUP 13.7.5

Regulation 16(3) provides that:

(1) the UK firm has given a notice to the FSA stating the details of the proposed change; and

(2) the FSA has given the Host State regulator a notice informing it of the details of the proposed change.

21/06/2001

SUP 13.7.6

If the change arises from circumstances beyond the UK firm's control, the UK firm is required by regulation 16(4) to give a notice to the FSA stating the details of the change as soon as reasonably practicable (whether before or after the change). See also SUP 13.6.10 G(2), as relevant to cross border services.

21/06/2001

SUP 13.7.6A

UK firms may wish to use the standard form available from the Passport Notifications Unit(see SUP 13.12 (Sources of further information)) to give the notices to the FSA as described in SUP 13.7.3 G (1), SUP 13.7.3A G, SUP 13.7.3B G, SUP 13.7.5 G (1) and SUP 13.7.6 G.

01/11/2007

SUP 13.7.7

When the FSA receives a notice from a UK firm (see SUP 13.7.5 G (1) and SUP 13.7.6 G), it is required by regulations 16(5) toeither refuse or consent to the change within one month of receipt.

01/11/2007

SUP 13.7.8

If the FSA consents to the change it will:

(1) give a notice to the Host State regulator informing it of the details of the proposed change; and

(2) inform the UK firm that it has given the notice, stating the date on which it did so.

21/06/2001

SUP 13.7.9

If the FSA refuses to consent to a change it is required by regulation 16(7) to give notice of the refusal to the UK firm, stating its reasons and giving an indication of the UK firm's right to refer the matter to the Tribunal and the procedures that apply to such a reference.

28/08/2007

SUP 13.7.10

Where a UK firm with Part IV permission to carry on both long-term and general insurance business is passporting under the Insurance Directives and wishes to extend its general insurance business to include long term insurance business (or vice versa), it should complete a new notice of intention and not a change to details notice.

06/02/2007

Firms passporting under the Banking Consolidation Directive and Insurance Mediation Directive

SUP 13.7.11

A UK firm providing cross border services under the Banking Consolidation Directive or Insurance Mediation Directive is not required to supply a change to the details of cross border services notice.

06/03/2009

Firms passporting under the Reinsurance Directive

SUP 13.7.12

A UK firm providing cross border services under the Reinsurance Directive is not required to supply notification of, or a change to the details of, its cross border services.

06/03/2009

SUP 13.8

Changes of details: provision of notices to the FSA

01/12/2004

SUP 13.8.1

(1) Where a firm is required to submit a notice of a change to a branch referred to in SUP 13.6.5 G (1), SUP 13.6.5BG (1), SUP 13.6.7 G (1) , SUP 13.6.8 G, SUP 13.6.9B R and SUP 13.6.10 G (1) or a notice of a change to cross border services referred to in SUP 13.7.3 G (1) , SUP 13.7.3AG (1), SUP 13.7.5 G (1) and SUP 13.7.6 G it must complete and submit that notice in accordance with the procedures set out in SUP 13.5 for notifying the establishing of a branch or the provision of cross border services.

(a) [deleted]

(b) [deleted]

(2) [deleted]

(a) [deleted]

(b) [deleted]

(d) [deleted]

(e) [deleted]

(f) [deleted]

(3) [deleted]

(4) [deleted]

04/10/2010

SUP 13.8.1A

The effect of SUP 13.8.1 R (1) is that a firm should submit any form, notice or application under SUP 13.8.1 R (1) in the following ways:

(1) A UK firm, other than a credit union, should submit it online at www.fsa.gov.uk using the FSA's ONAsystem.

(2) If the FSA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, until such time as facilities for online submission are restored, a firm should submit it in the way set out in SUP 13.5.3 R (3) and SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification). GEN 1.3.2 R (Emergency) does not apply in these circumstances.

(3) If the FSA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FSA will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that online submission is unavailable and that the alternative methods of submission should be used.

(4) A credit union should submit it in the way set out in SUP 13.5.3 R (3) and SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).

04/10/2010

SUP 13.8.2

UK firms passporting under the Banking Consolidation Directive or the Insurance Directives may be required to submit the change to details notice in the language of the Host State as well as in English.

06/02/2007

SUP 13.10

Applicable provisions

01/12/2004

SUP 13.10.1

UK firms are reminded that conduct of business rules, and other rules made for the general good, may apply to business carried on in the Host State by a UK firm. These are known in the Act as the applicable provisions (paragraph 19(13) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act).

21/06/2001

SUP 13.10.2

UK firms passporting under the Banking Consolidation Directive should note that, under the Directive, the Host State is responsible, together with the FSA , for monitoring the liquidity of a branch established by a UK firm in another EEA State.

21/06/2001

SUP 13.10.3

These Host State provisions often have requirements about the soliciting of business, for example, advertising and cold-calling rules. A UK firm should ensure it is familiar with, and acts in compliance with, the relevant requirements of its Host State regulator.

21/06/2001

SUP 13.11

Record keeping

01/12/2004

SUP 13.11.1

(1) A UK firm which is exercising an EEA right must make and retain a record of:

(a) the services or activities it carries on from a branch in, or provides cross-border into, another EEA State under that EEA right; and

(b) the details relating to those services or activities (as set out in SUP 13.6 and SUP 13.7).

(2) The record in (1) must be kept for five years (for firms passporting under MiFID) or three years (for other firms)from the earlier of the date on which:

(a) it was superseded by a more up-to-date record; or

(b) the UK firm ceased to have a branch in, or carry on cross border services into, any EEA State under an EEA right.

01/11/2007

SUP 13.11.2

The record in SUP 13.11.1 R need not relate to the level of business carried on. A UK firm may comply with SUP 13.11.1 R by, for example, keeping copies of all notices of intention and change to details notices.

06/02/2007

SUP 13.11.3

A UK firm should monitor the business carried on under an EEA right to ensure that any changes to details are notified as required by SUP 13.6 (Changes to branches) and SUP 13.7 (Changes to cross border services).

06/02/2007

SUP 13.12

Sources of further information

01/12/2004

SUP 13.12.1

(1) Given the complexity of issues raised by passporting, UK firms are advised to consult legislation and also to obtain legal advice at earliest opportunity. Firms are encouraged to contact their usual supervisory contact at the FSA to discuss their proposals. However, a UK firm which is seeking guidance on procedural or notification issues relating to passporting should contact the Passport Notifications Unit.

(2) An applicant for Part IV permission which is submitting a notice of intention with its application for such permission should contact the Permissions department (020 7066 3954) in the first instance.

06/10/2007

SUP 13.12.2

To contact the Passport Notifications Unit:

(1) telephone on 020 7066 1000; fax on 020 7066 9798; or

(2) write to: The Passport Notifications Unit, The Financial Services Authority, 25 The North Colonnade, Canary Wharf, London E14 5HS; or

(3) Email: passport.notifications@fsa.gov.uk

04/10/2010

SUP 13 Annex 1

Passporting: Notification of intention to establish a branch in another EEA state

04/10/2010

This annex consists of only one or more forms. Forms can be completed online now by visiting: http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/doing/index.shtmlThe forms are also to be found through the following address:

Passporting: Notification of intention to establish a branch in another EEA state - SUP 13 Annex 1

04/10/2010

SUP 13 Annex 2

Passporting: Markets in Financial Instruments Directive

04/10/2010

This annex consists of only one or more forms. Forms can be completed online now by visiting: http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/doing/index.shtml.

The forms are also to be found through the following address:

Passporting: Markets in Financial Instruments Directive - SUP 13 Annex 2

04/10/2010

SUP 13 Annex 3

Passporting: Consolidated Life Directive and Third Non-Life Directive

04/10/2010

04/10/2010

SUP 13 Annex 4

Passporting: Banking Consolidation Directive

04/10/2010

04/10/2010

SUP 13 Annex 5

Passporting: Insurance Mediation Directive

04/10/2010

This annex consists of only one or more forms. Forms can be completed online now by http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/doing/index.shtml

The forms are also to be found through the following address:

Passporting: Insurance Mediation Directive - SUP 13 Annex 5

04/10/2010

SUP 13A

Qualifying for authorisation under the Act

SUP 13A.1

Application and purpose

01/02/2006

Application

SUP 13A.1.1

(1) This chapter applies to an EEA firm that wishes to exercise an entitlement to establish a branch in, or provide cross border services into, the United Kingdom under a Single Market Directive. (The Act refers to such an entitlement as an EEA right and its exercise is referred to in the Handbook as "passporting".) (See SUP App 3 (Guidance on passporting issues) for further guidance on passporting.)

(2) This chapter also applies to:

(a) a Treaty firm that wishes to exercise rights under the Treaty in respect of regulated activities, those rights not being covered by passporting rights provided by the Single Market Directives, and qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty Rights); and

(b) a UCITS qualifier, that is, an operator, trustee or depositary of a recognised collective investment scheme, constituted in another EEA State, and which qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 5 to the Act (Persons concerned in collective investment schemes).

(3) The provisions implementing the Single Market Directives are within the coordinated field (see PERG 2.9.18G (1)). So, where an incoming ECA provider intends to provide electronic commerce activity that consists of activities that fall within one of the Single Market Directives, the passporting requirements on exercising an EEA right in this chapter will apply.

06/03/2009

SUP 13A.1.2

This chapter does not apply to:

(1) an EEA firm that wishes to carry on in the United Kingdom activities which are outside the scope of its EEA right and the scope of a permission granted under Schedule 4 to the Act; in this case the EEA firm requires a "top-up permission" under Part IV of the Act (see the FSA website "How do I get authorised": http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml); or
(2) an EEA firm that carries on any insurance activity:

(a) by the provision of services; and
(b) pursuant to a community co-insurance operation in which the firm is participating otherwise than as leading insurer (see Article 11 of the Regulated Activities Order); or

(3) a Treaty firm that wishes to provide electronic commerce activities into the United Kingdom; or
(4) a market operator that operates a regulated market or an MTF in an EEA State other than the UK and wishes to make appropriate arrangements so as to facilitate access to and use of its system by remote users or participants in the UK. See SUP App 3.6.25 G for guidance.

01/11/2007

SUP 13A.1.3

(1) Under the Gibraltar Order made under section 409 of the Act, a Gibraltar firm is treated as an EEA firm under Schedule 3 to the Act if it is:

(a) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Directives; or
(aA) authorised in Gibraltar under the Reinsurance Directive; or
(b) authorised in Gibraltar under the Banking Consolidation Directive; or
(c) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Mediation Directive; or
(d) authorised in Gibraltar under the MiFID.

(1A) Similarly, an EEA firm which:

(a) has satisfied the Gibraltar establishment conditions and has established a branch in the UK; or
(b) has satisfied the Gibraltar service conditions and is providing cross border services into the UK;

is treated as having satisfied the establishment conditions or service conditions (as appropriate) under Schedule 3 to the Act. Regulations 4 to 7 of the EEA Passport Rights Regulations will apply to the establishment of the branch or the provision of cross border services.
(2) Gibraltar insurance companies, credit institutions, insurance intermediaries and investment firms are allowed to passport their services into the United Kingdom if they comply with the relevant notification procedures. So, any references in this chapter to EEA State or EEA right include references to Gibraltar and the entitlement under the Gibraltar Order where appropriate.
(3) [deleted]

06/03/2009

Purpose

SUP 13A.1.4

(1) This chapter explains how an EEA firm and a Treaty firm can qualify for authorisation under Schedules 3 and 4 to the Act and how a UCITS qualifier is authorised under Schedule 5 to the Act.

(2) This chapter also provides guidance on Schedule 3 to the Act for an incoming EEA firm that wishes to establish a branch in the United Kingdom instead of, or in addition to, providing cross border services into the United Kingdom or vice versa.

01/02/2006

SUP 13A.1.5

(1) EEA firms should note that this chapter only addresses the procedures which the FSA will follow under the Act.So, an EEA firm should consider this guidance in conjunction with the requirements with which it will have to comply in its Home State.

(2) The guidance in this chapter represents the FSA's interpretation of the Single Market Directives, the Act and the secondary legislation made under the Act. The guidance is not exhaustive and should not be seen as a substitute for a person consulting the legislation or taking legal advice.

06/03/2009

SUP 13A.2

EEA firms and Treaty firms

01/02/2006

SUP 13A.2.1

A person will only be an EEA firm or a Treaty firm if it has its head office in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom. EEA firms and Treaty firms are entitled to exercise both the right of establishment and the freedom to provide services under the Treaty. The difference, however, is that an EEA firm has a right to passport under a Single Market Directive, whereas a Treaty firm carries on activities for which the right to carry on those activities does not fall within the scope of a Single Market Directive. An EEA firm may also be a Treaty firm if it carries on such activities. A person may be a Treaty firm, where, for example, it carries on business thatincludes regulated activities, the right to carry on which does not fall within the scope of the Single Market Directiveunder which it is entitled to exercise an EEA right, for example, reinsurance in the case of a direct insurer to which the Insurance Directives apply.

(1) [deleted]

(2) [deleted]

06/03/2009

SUP 13A.2.2

An EEA firm may passport those activities which fall within the scope of the relevant Single Market Directiveas long as they are included in its Home State authorisation.

01/02/2006

SUP 13A.3

Qualifications for authorisation under the Act

01/02/2006

EEA firms

SUP 13A.3.1

Section 31 of the Act (Authorised persons) states that an EEA firm is authorised for the purposes of the Act if it qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act (EEA Passport Rights). Under paragraph 12 of Part II of that Schedule, an EEA firmthat is an EEA pure reinsurer qualifies for authorisation without condition. An EEA firm that is not an EEA pure reinsurerqualifies for authorisation if:

(1) it is seeking to establish a branch in the United Kingdom in exercise of an EEA right and satisfies the establishment conditions (see SUP 13A.4.1 G and SUP 13A.4.2 G); or

(2) it is seeking to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom in exercise of an EEA right and satisfies the service conditions (see SUP 13A.5.3 G).

06/03/2009

SUP 13A.3.1A

If an EEA MiFID investment firm seeks to use a tied agent established in the UK, the EEA MiFID investment firm will be treated as if it were seeking to establish a branch and must satisfy the establishment conditions (see SUP 13A.4.1 G).

01/11/2007

SUP 13A.3.1B

A pure reinsurer with its head office in an EEA State that has not fully implemented the Reinsurance Directive may nevertheless be accepted as satisfying the conditions to be an EEA pure reinsurer if the firm provides satisfactory evidence that the prudential requirements of the Reinsurance Directive have been implemented by that EEA State and that they apply to the firm. The firm may then be deemed to be authorised under the Reinsurance Directive in that EEA State.

06/03/2009

SUP 13A.3.2

(1) On qualifying for authorisation, subject to SUP 13A.3.2G (2), an EEA firmwill have permission to carry on each permitted activity (see (3) below) which is a regulated activity.

(2)

(a) Paragraph (1) does not apply to the activity of dealing in units in a collective investment scheme in the United Kingdom where:

(i) the firm is an EEA UCITS management company;

(ii) the firm satisfies the establishment conditions in SUP 13A.4.1 G; and

(iii) the FSA notifies the EEA firm and the EEA firm's Home State regulator that the way in which it intends to market a relevant scheme in the United Kingdom does not comply with the law in force in the United Kingdom.

(b) The FSA's notice under (2)(a)(iii) has to be given to the EEA firm within two months of receiving the consent notice (see paragraph 13(1) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act) and will be similar to a warning notice.

(c) For details of the FSA's procedures for the giving of warning noticessee DEPP 2 (Statutory notices and allocation of decision making).

(3) The permitted activities of an EEA firmare those activities identified in the consent notice, regulator's notice or notice of intention. Permitted activities may include activities that are within the scope of a Single Market Directive but which are unregulated activities in the United Kingdom.

(4) The permission will be treated as being on terms equivalent to those appearing in the consent notice, regulator's notice or notice of intention. For example, it will reflect any limitations or requirements which are included in the firm's Home State authorisation.

28/08/2007

SUP 13A.3.3

An EEA firm which has qualified for authorisation is referred to in the Handbook as an incoming EEA firm.

01/02/2006

Treaty firms

SUP 13A.3.4

Under section 31 of the Act, a Treaty firm is authorised for the purposes of the Act if it qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 4 (Treaty Rights), that is:

(1) the Treaty firm is seeking to carry on a regulated activity; and

(2) the conditions set out in paragraph 3(1) of Schedule 4 to the Act are satisfied.

01/02/2006

SUP 13A.3.5

On qualifying for authorisation a Treaty firm will have permission to carry on each permitted activity which is a regulated activity. This permission will be treated on the same terms as those which apply to the Treaty firm's Home State authorisation. For example, it will reflect any limitations or requirements which are included in the firm's Home State authorisation.

01/02/2006

SUP 13A.3.6

The effect of paragraph 5(1) and 5(2) of Schedule 4 to the Act is that a Treaty firm which qualifies for authorisation under that Schedule must, at least seven days before it carries on any of the regulated activities covered by its permission, give the FSA written notice of its intention to do so. Failure to do so is a criminal offence under paragraph 6(1) of that Schedule.

01/02/2006

SUP 13A.3.7

(1) A written notice from a Treaty firm under paragraph 5(2) of Schedule 4 to the Act must be:

(a) given to a member of, or addressed for the attention of, the Authorisation Department; and

(b) delivered to the FSA by one of the methods in (2).

(2) The written notice may be delivered by:

(a) post to the address in SUP 13A.3.9 G below; or

(b) leaving the application at the address in SUP 13A.3.9 G below and obtaining a time-stamped receipt; or

01/02/2006

SUP 13A.3.8

The written notice required by paragraph 5(2) of Schedule 4 to the Act should be accompanied by confirmation of the Treaty firm's authorisation from the Home State regulator, as referred to in paragraph 3(2) of Schedule 4 to the Act.

01/02/2006

SUP 13A.3.9

(1) For further information, a Treaty firm may contact the Authorisation Department:

(a) telephone on +4420 7066 3954; or

(b) write to: Authorisation Department, The Financial Services Authority, 25 The North Colonnade, Canary Wharf, London, E14 5HS; or

01/02/2006

SUP 13A.3.10

(1) The guidance in PERG 2 is relevant to Treaty firms to help them determine if they require authorisation under the Act.

(2) A Treaty firm which qualifies for authorisation is referred to in the Handbook as an incoming Treaty firm.

01/02/2006

SUP 13A.3.11

(1) An EEA firm that is carrying on both direct insurance and reinsurance business will be entitled to passport under Schedule 3 to the Act in relation to the direct insurance business. It will also have a Treaty right under Schedule 4 to the Act in relation to the reinsurance business if the firm has received Home State authorisation for the regulated activity of effecting and/or carrying out the relevant class of insurance business that includes reinsurance business for that class and the relevant provisions of the law of the Home State satisfy the conditions laid down by the Insurance Directives relating to the carrying on of that activity (see SUP App 3.10.13 G).

(1A) An insurance company with its head office in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom that is carrying on pure reinsurance business in that State, and which has received authorisation (or is deemed to be authorised) under the Reinsurance Directive from its Home State (an EEA pure reinsurer), has an automatic EEA right to passport into the United Kingdom by establishing a branch in the United Kingdom or by the provision of cross border services. Under the General Protocol, Home State regulators have agreed to inform Host State regulators if a pure reinsurer carries on business through a branch in the Host State.

(2) An insurance company with its head office in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom that is carrying on pure reinsurance business in that State, and which wishes to carry on such business in the United Kingdom and is authorised by its Home State but not yet under the Reinsurance Directive, is advised to discuss its particular requirements with the Authorisation Department. It may be entitled to exercise a Treaty right provided it satisfies the conditions in paragraph 3(1) of Schedule 4 to the Act (see SUP 13A.3.4 G). Otherwise, it will have to seek a Part IV permission (see the FSA website "How do I get authorised": http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml).

06/03/2009

UCITS qualifiers

SUP 13A.3.12

Under Schedule 5 to the Act (Persons concerned in collective investment schemes), a person who for the time being is an operator, trustee or depositary of a scheme which is a recognised scheme under section 264 of the Act is an authorised person. Such a person is referred to in the Handbook as a UCITS qualifier.

01/02/2006

SUP 13A.3.13

A UCITS qualifier has permission under paragraph 2 of Schedule 5 to the Act, to carry on, as far as is appropriate to the capacity in which it acts in relation to the scheme:

(1) the regulated activity of establishing, operating or winding up a collective investment scheme; and

(2) any activity in connection with, or for the purposes of, the scheme.

01/02/2006

SUP 13A.3.14

A UCITS qualifier should refer to COLLG or to the following sections of COLLfor requirements for recognised schemes :

(1) COLL 9.2.1 G for guidance on notifications;

(2) COLL 9.2.1 G for guidance on information and documentation requirements; and

(3) COLL 9.4 which includes rules on what facilities need to be maintained.

01/04/2009

SUP 13A.4

EEA firms establishing a branch in the United Kingdom

01/02/2006

The conditions for establishing a branch

SUP 13A.4.1

(1) Before an EEA firmother than an EEA pure reinsurer exercises an EEA right to establish a branch in the United Kingdom other than under the Insurance Mediation Directive, the Act requires it to satisfy the establishment conditions, as set out in paragraph 13(1) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act.

(2) For the purposes of paragraph 13(1)(b)(iii) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the information to be included in the consent notice has been prescribed under regulation 2 of the EEA Passport Rights Regulations.

06/03/2009

SUP 13A.4.2

Where an EEA firm exercises its EEA right to establish a branch in the United Kingdom under the Insurance Mediation Directive, the Act requires it to satisfy the establishment conditions, as set out in paragraph 13(1A) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act.

01/02/2006

SUP 13A.4.3

For the purposes of paragraph 13(2)(b) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the applicable provisions may include FSA rules. The EEA firm is required to comply with relevant rules when carrying on a passported activity through a branch in the United Kingdom as well as with relevant UK legislation.

01/02/2006

SUP 13A.4.3A

Guidance on the matters that are reserved to a firm's Home State regulator is located in SUP 13A Annex 2.

01/11/2007

The notification procedure

SUP 13A.4.4

(1) When the FSA receives a consent notice from the EEA firm's Home State regulator, it will, under paragraphs 13(2)(b), (c) and 13(3) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, notify the applicable provisions (if any) to:

(a) the EEA firm; and

(b) in the case of an EEA firm passporting under the Insurance Directives, the Home State regulator;

within two months of the notice date.

(1A) The notice date is:

(a) for a MiFID investment firm, the date on which the Home State gave the consent notice; and

(b) in any other case, the date on which the FSA received the consent notice.

(2) Although the FSA is not required to notify the applicable provisions to an EEA firm passporting under the Insurance Mediation Directive, these provisions are set out in SUP 13A Annex 1 (Application of the Handbook to Incoming EEA Firms).

01/11/2007

SUP 13A.5

EEA firms providing cross border services into the United Kingdom

01/02/2006

Is the service provided within the United Kingdom?

SUP 13A.5.1

There is guidance for UK firms in SUP Appendix 3.6 on when a service is provided cross border. EEA firms may find this of interest although they should follow the guidance of their Home State regulators.

01/02/2006

SUP 13A.5.2

An EEA firmother than an EEA pure reinsurer should note that the requirement under the Single Market Directives to give a notice of intention to provide cross border services applies whether or not:

(1) it has established a branch in the United Kingdom; or

(2) those cross border services are regulated activities.

06/03/2009

The conditions for providing cross border services into the United Kingdom

SUP 13A.5.3

(1) Before an EEA firmother than an EEA pure reinsurer exercises an EEA right to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the Act requires it to satisfy the service conditions, as set out in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act.

(2) For the purposes of paragraph 14(1)(b) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the information to be contained in the regulator's notice has been prescribed under regulation 3 of the EEA Passport Rights Regulations.

06/03/2009

The notification procedure

SUP 13A.5.4

(1) Unless the EEA firmother than an EEA pure reinsurer is passporting under the Insurance Mediation Directive, if the FSA receives a regulator's notice or, where no notice is required (in the case of an EEA firm passporting under the Banking Consolidation Directive), is informed of the EEA firm's intention to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the FSA will, under paragraphs 14(2)(b) and 14(3) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, notify the EEA firm of the applicable provisions (if any) within two months of the day on which the FSA received the regulator's notice or was informed of the EEA firm's intention.

(2) Although the FSA is not required to notify the applicable provisions to an EEA Firm passporting under the Insurance Mediation Directive, these provisions are set out in SUP 13A Annex 1 (Application of the Handbook to Incoming EEA Firms).

06/03/2009

SUP 13A.5.5

An EEA firm that has satisfied the service conditions in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act is entitled to start providing cross border services into the United Kingdom. However, an EEA firm that wishes to start providing cross border services but has not yet received notification of the applicable provisions may wish to contact the FSA's Passport Notifications Unit (see SUP 13A.8.1G (2)).

01/02/2006

SUP 13A.6

Which rules will an incoming EEA firm be subject to?

01/02/2006

SUP 13A.6.1

(1) SUP 13A Annex 1 summarises how the Handbook applies to incoming EEA firms.

(2) SUP 13A Annex 2 summarises the matters that are reserved to a firm's Home State regulator.

01/11/2007

SUP 13A.6.2

An incoming EEA firm(other than an EEA pure reinsurer) or incoming Treaty firm carrying on business in the United Kingdom must comply with the applicable provisions (see SUP 13A.4.4 G and SUP 13A.5.4 G) and other relevant UK legislation. For example where the business includes:

(1) business covered by the Consumer Credit Act 1974, then an incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm must comply with the provisions of that Act, as modified by paragraph 15(3) of Schedule 3 to the Act; or

(2) effecting or carrying out contracts covering motor vehicle third party liability risks as part of direct insurance business, then an incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm is required to become a member of the Motor Insurers' Bureau.

06/03/2009

SUP 13A.6.3

In particular, an EEA firm (other than an EEA pure reinsurer) or Treaty firm must comply with the applicable provisions in SUP 10 (Approved persons). An EEA firm or Treaty firm should also refer to SUP 10.1 (Application) which sets out the territorial provisions of the approved persons regime.

06/03/2009

SUP 13A.6.4

Under the EEA Passport Rights Regulations, references in section 60 of the Act (applications for approval for persons to perform controlled functions) to "the authorised person concerned" include:

(1) an EEA MiFID investment firm whose Home State regulator has given a consent notice under paragraph 13 of Schedule 3 to the Act (see SUP 13A.4.1G (1) and SUP 13A.4.2 G) or a regulator's notice under paragraph 14 of that Schedule (see SUP 13A.5.3G (1)), and which will be the authorised person concerned if the EEA firm qualifies for authorisation under that Schedule; and

(2) any other EEA firm with respect to which the FSA has received a consent notice or regulator's notice under paragraph 13 of Schedule 3 to the Act (see SUP 13A.4.1G (1) and SUP 13A.4.2 G) or a regulator's notice under paragraph 14 of that Schedule (see SUP 13A.5.3G (1)), and which will be the authorised person concerned if the EEA firm qualifies for authorisation under that Schedule.

01/11/2007

SUP 13A.6.5

SUP 13A Annex 1 does not apply to incoming ECA providers acting as such.

01/11/2007

SUP 13A.7

Top-up permission

01/02/2006

SUP 13A.7.1

If a person established in the EEA:

(1) does not have an EEA right;

(2) does not have permission as a UCITS qualifier; and

(3) does not have, or does not wish to exercise, a Treaty right (see SUP 13A.3.4 G to SUP 13A.3.11 G);

to carry on a particular regulated activity in the United Kingdom, it must seek Part IV permission from the FSA to do so (see the FSA website "How do I get authorised": http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml ). This might arise if the activity itself is outside the scope of the Single Market Directives, or where the activity is included in the scope of a Single Market Directive but is not covered by the EEA firm's Home State authorisation. If a person also qualifies for authorisation under Schedules 3, 4 or 5 of the Act as a result of its other activities, the Part IV permission is referred to in the Handbook as a top-up permission.

06/10/2007

SUP 13A.7.2

Where the FSA grants a top-up permission to an incoming EEA firm to carry on regulated activities for which it has neither an EEA right nor a Treaty right, the FSA is responsible for the prudential supervision of the incoming EEA firm, to the extent that the responsibility is not reserved to the incoming EEA firm's Home State regulator.

01/02/2006

SUP 13A.7.4

For guidance on how to apply for Part IV permission under the Act, see the FSA website "How do I get authorised": http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml. If an EEA firm or Treaty firm wishes to make any subsequent changes to its top-up permission, it can make an application for variation of that permission (see SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part IV permission)).

06/10/2007

SUP 13A.8

Sources of further information

01/02/2006

SUP 13A.8.1

For further information on UK regulation, an EEA firm, a Treaty firm or a UCITS qualifier should contact the Perimeter Guidance team at the FSA. Questions about the passporting notification procedures can be addressed to the Passport Notifications Unit.

(1) To contact the Perimeter Guidance team:

(a) telephone on +44 20 7066 0082 or fax on +44 20 7066 9719;

(b) write to: Perimeter Guidance team, The Financial Services Authority, 25 The North Colonnade, Canary Wharf, London E14 5HS.

(2) To contact the Passport Notifications Unit:

(a) telephone on +44 20 7066 1000 or fax on +44 20 7066 9798;

(b) write to: Passport Notifications Unit, The Financial Services Authority, 25 The North Colonnade, Canary Wharf, London E14 5HS;

01/02/2006

SUP 13A.9

The precautionary measure rule for incoming EEA firms

01/11/2007

Application

SUP 13A.9.1

(1) The precautionary measure rule (SUP 13A.9.2 R) applies to an incoming EEA firm which:

(a) is authorised by a home state regulator with respect to its MiFID business; or

(b) has a top-up permission which covers MiFID business;

but which is not subject to provisions adopted by the Home State which transpose, in full, MiFID or the MiFID implementing Directive.

(2) The precautionary measure rule applies:

(a) with respect to the regulated activities carried on by the firm in the United Kingdom; and

(b) to the extent that the firm is not subject to provisions which are comparable to provisions transposing MiFID or the MiFID implementing Directive.

(3) This section (SUP 13A.9) is effective from 1 November 2007 until 31 October 2008.

01/11/2007

The precautionary measure rule

SUP 13A.9.2

(1) A firm must comply with standards which are comparable to those required by the provisions of MiFID and the MiFID implementing Directive specified in rows (1) and (4) of the table in SUP 13A.9.3 R.

(2) An MTF must also comply with standards in row (2).

(3) The following firms must also comply with standards in row (3):

(a) a systematic internaliser;

(b) a firm, which, either on its own account or on behalf of clients, concludes transactions in shares admitted to trading on a regulated market outside a regulated market or MTF (see MAR 7.1.2 R).

01/11/2007

SUP 13A.9.3

Table: MiFID provisions for incoming EEA firms

Articles of MiFID or the MiFID implementing directive

Articles 13(3) and (6), 18 to 22 and 24 and Annex II of MiFID

Articles 12, 14, 26, 29 and 30 of MiFID

Articles 27 and 28 of MiFID

All related Articles of MiFID and the MiFID implementing Directive

01/11/2007

SUP 13A.9.4

(1) A firm should comply with the provisions of the Handbook which transpose the provisions of MiFID and the MiFID implementing Directive referred to in SUP 13A.9.3 R (even if they are expressed not to apply to an incoming EEA firm).

(2) Compliance with (1) may be relied upon as tending to establish compliance with the precautionary measure rule.

01/11/2007

SUP 13A.9.5

(1) The purpose of the precautionary measure rule is to ensure that an incoming EEA firm is subject to the standards of MiFID and the MiFID implementing Directive to the extent that the Home State has not transposed MiFID or the MiFID implementing Directive by 1 November 2007. It is to 'fill a gap'.

(2) The rule is made in the light of the duty of the United Kingdom under Article 62 of MiFID to adopt precautionary measures to protect investors.

(3) The rule will be effective for 12 months only; it reflects the scope of the Regulated Activities Order (including, for example, the overseas persons exclusion); and it allows for the possibility of a partial transposition by the Home State.

(4) An indication of the Handbook provisions which transpose MiFID and the MiFID implementing Directive can be found in the websites http://www.hm-treasury.gov.uk/media/C/7/transfinal1b120707.pdf and http://www.hm-treasury.gov.uk/media/C/E/transfinal2b120707.pdf. For the purposes of the precautionary measure rule, the principal provisions are the rules in COBS (including in particular those relating to inducements in COBS 2.3) and the conflicts and record keeping provisions in SYSC.

(5) The provisions applying to an incoming EEA firm are set out in SUP 13A Annex 1. The effect of SUP 13A.9.4E (1) is that some of the provisions which are expressed as not applying may need to be applied by a firm in order to meet a MiFID standard.

01/11/2007

SUP 13A Annex 1

Application of the Handbook to Incoming EEA Firms

01/02/2006

1. The table below summarises the application of the Handbook to an incoming EEA firm. Where the table indicates that a particular module of the Handbook may apply, its application in relation to any particular activity is dependent on the detailed application provisions in that module. The table does not apply to incoming ECA providers. These should refer to COBS 1 Annex 1 Part 3 section 7 for guidance on how COBS applies to them. The table does not apply to EEA pure reinsurers as these firms have automatic passport rights on the basis of their Home State authorisation.

2. In some cases, the application of the Handbook depends on whether responsibility for a matter is reserved under an EU instrument to the incoming EEA firm's Home State regulator. Guidance on the reservation of responsibility is contained in SUP 13A Annex 2 (Matters reserved to a Home State regulator). Guidance on the territorial application of MiFID is contained in PERG 13.6 and PERG 13.7 and SUP 13A Annex 2.

3. For an incoming EEA firm which has permission for cross-border services only, many parts of the Handbook apply only if the firm carries on regulated activities in the United Kingdom. Those parts of the Handbook will therefore not apply if the firm confines its activities to those within the overseas persons exclusions in article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order, or which would not be regarded as carried on in the United Kingdom. Further guidance may be found in PERG 2.4 (Link between activities and the United Kingdom) and PERG 2.9.15 G to PERG 2.9.17 G (Overseas persons).

(1) Module of Handbook

(2) Potential application to an incoming EEA firm with respect to activities carried on from an establishment of the firm (or its appointed representative) in the United Kingdom

(3) Potential application to an incoming EEA firm with respect to activities carried on other than from an establishment of the firm (or its appointed representative) in the United Kingdom

PRIN

The Principles apply only in so far as responsibility for the matter in question is not reserved by an EU instrument to the firm's Home State regulator (PRIN 3.1.1 R (1)).
For an incoming EEA firm which is a BCD credit institution without a top-up permission, Principle 4 applies only in relation to the liquidity of a branch established in the United Kingdom (PRIN 3.1.1 R (2)).

The Principles do not apply if the firm has permission only for cross-border services and does not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom (PRIN 3.1.1 R (2)).
The Principles have limited application for activities which are not carried on from a UK establishment (see PRIN 3.1.1 R).
Otherwise, see column (2).

SYSC

SYSC 1 and SYSC 1 Annex 1 (Application of SYSC 2 and SYSC 3) contain application provisions only. SYSC 2 and SYSC 3 apply only to an insurer, a managing agent and the Society as set out in SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.1R , which include the following exceptions:
(1) SYSC 2.1.1 R (1) and SYSC 2.1.2 G do not apply;
(2) SYSC 2.1.3 R to SYSC 2.2.3 G apply, but only in relation to allocation of the function in SYSC 2.1.3 R (2) and only in so far as responsibility for the matter in question is not reserved by an EU instrument to the firm's Home State regulator; and
(3) SYSC 3 applies, but only in so far as responsibility for the matter in question is not reserved by an EU instrument to the firm's Home State regulator. SYSC 1.1.7 R (Where?) further restricts the territorial application of SYSC 1 to SYSC 3 for an incoming EEA firm. Further guidance is contained in SYSC 2.1.6 G, Question 12. SYSC 18 applies to the extent that the Public Interest Disclosure Act 1998 applies to the firm.
The common platform requirements in SYSC 4 - 10 apply as set out in Part 2 of SYSC 1 Annex 1 (Application of the common platform requirement).
SYSC 1 Annex 1.2.7G reminds EEA MiFID investment firms that they must comply with the common platform record-keeping requirements in relation to a branch in the United Kingdom.
SYSC 9 applies to activities carried on from an establishment in the United Kingdom, unless another applicable rule which is relevant to the activity has a wider territorial scope, in which case the common platform record-keeping requirements apply with that wider scope in relation to the activity described in that rule ( SYSC 1 Annex 1.2.17R).
SYSC 12 does not apply (SYSC 12.1.3 R).
SYSC 13 does not apply (SYSC 13.1.1 G).
SYSC 14 does not apply (SYSC 14.1.1 R).
SYSC 15 does not apply (SYSC 15.1.1 G).
SYSC 16 does not apply (SYSC 16.1.1 G).
SYSC 17 does not apply (SYSC 17.1.1 G).
SYSC 18 applies.

SYSC 19A does not apply.

SYSC 2 and SYSC 3 do not apply if the firm has permission only for cross-border services and does not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom ( SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.1 R). SYSC 2 and SYSC 3 have limited application for activities which are not carried on from a UK establishment (see SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.1 R (2A)).
Otherwise, see column (2).
The common platform requirements in SYSC 4 - SYSC 10 apply as set out in SYSC 1 Annex 1.2.2R.
SYSC 11 - SYSC 17 do not apply.
SYSC 18 applies.
SYSC 19A does not apply.

COND

COND does not apply if the firm does not have, or apply for, a top-up permission.
Otherwise, only threshold conditions 1, 3, 4 and 5 apply and only in so far as relevant to:
(1) an application for a top-up permission under Part IV of the Act (that is, a permission to carry on regulated activities in addition to those permitted through its authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act (EEA Passport Rights)); and
(2) the exercise of the FSA's own-initiative power in relation to the top-up permission. (COND 1.1.1 G.)

As column (2).

APER

APER applies to approved persons (APER 1.1.1 G). See below under SUP 10 as to whether controlled functions are performed, and approval therefore required.

Not relevant because SUP 10 does not apply.

FIT

FIT applies to a firm wishing to establish a branch in the United Kingdom or to apply for a top-up permission in respect of any application that it makes for the approval of a person to perform a controlled function (FIT 1.1). See under SUP 10 below as to whether such approval is required.
FIT applies in a limited way in relation to an incoming MiFID investment firm (see FIT 1.2.4A G).

Does not apply.

GEN

GEN applies (GEN 1.1, GEN 2.1, GEN 3.1, GEN 4.1, GEN 5.1 and GEN 6.1). However, (a) GEN 4 does not apply to the extent that the firm is subject to equivalent rules imposed by its Home State (GEN 4.1.1 R (3)), and (b) GEN 6 only applies to business that can be regulated undersection 138 of the Act (General rule-making power). It does not therefore apply if, or to the extent that, responsibility has been reserved to an incoming firm's Home State regulator by an EU instrument. Only GEN 4.5 applies in relation to MiFID or equivalent third country business (see GEN 4.1.1 R).

GEN 4 does not apply if the firm has permission only for cross-border services and does not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom (see GEN 4.1.1 R).
The general licence to use or reproduce the FSA logo in GEN 5 Annex 1 G does not apply (see 3.1(1) of GEN 5 Annex 1 G).
Otherwise, as column (2).

GENPRU

Does not apply.

Does not apply if the firm has permission only for cross border services and does not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom.

BIPRU

EEA firms are subject to the prudential standards of their home state regulator (BIPRU 1.1.7 R and BIPRU 1.1.9 G). However, BIPRU 12 applies to an EEA firm as respects the activities of its UK branch, but in relation to liquidity risk only.

Does not apply if the firm has permission only for cross border services and does not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom.

MIPRU

MIPRU 1 (Application and general provisions) does not apply unless the firm has a top-up permission.
MIPRU 2 (Responsibility for insurance mediation activity) does not apply unless the firm has a top-up permission.
MIPRU 3 (Requirement to hold professional indemnity insurance) does not apply unless the firm has a top-up permission.
MIPRU 4 (Requirement to hold capital resources) does not apply unless the firm has a top-up permission.
See MIPRU 4.1.2 G for more detailed guidance.
MIPRU 5 (Insurance undertakings and mortgage lenders using insurance or mortgage mediation services) does not apply unless the firm has a top-up permission.

As column (2)

INSPRU

INSPRU does not apply unless the firm is an insurer to which INSPRU 1.5.33R applies.

IPRU(BANK)

Only the following apply, and only if the firm is a credit institution other than an electronic money institution within the meaning of article 1(3)(a) of the E-Money Directive that has the right to benefit from the mutual recognition arrangements under the Banking Consolidation Directive (IPRU(BANK) 3.2.1R):
(1) IPRU(BANK) 3.5.1R; and
(2) IPRU(BANK) chapters LM and LS.

Does not apply. But if the firm is a credit institution whose notification to the FSA of its intention to provide services in the United Kingdom covers services provided through a branch, see column (2).

IPRU(BSOC)

Does not apply because an incoming EEA firm cannot be a building society (IPRU(BSOC) X.2.1R).

IPRU(FSOC)

Does not apply because an incoming EEA firm cannot be a friendly society (IPRU(FSOC) 1.1).

IPRU(INS)

[deleted]

IPRU(INV)

IPRU(INV) does not apply unless the firm:
(1) has a top-up permission;
(2) is an authorised professional firm, investment management firm, members' adviser, personal investment firm, securities and futures firm, service company or underwriting agent; and
(3) is not a lead regulated firm, a media firm or a BIPRU investment firm.
(IPRU(INV) 1.1.1R and 1.2R)

As column (2).

COBS

Guidance on the territorial application of COBS is contained in COBS 1 Annex 1 Part 3.

ICOBS

ICOBS applies except to the extent necessary to be compatible with European law. Guidance on the territorial application of ICOBS is contained in ICOBS 1 Annex 1 Part 4.

ICOBS does not apply, except to the extent necessary to be compatible with European law. Guidance on the territorial application of ICOBS is contained in ICOBS 1 Annex 1 Part 4.

MCOB

Applies where the activity is carried on with or for a customer resident in the United Kingdom or another EEA State at the time that the activity is carried on, but see the territorial scope in MCOB 3.3 (Application: where?).

Applies where the activity is carried on with or for a customer resident in the United Kingdom at the time that the activity is carried on but see MCOB 1.3.4 R (Distance contracts entered into from an establishment in another EEA State) and MCOB 3.3 (Application: where?).

CASS

CASS does not apply with respect to the firm's passported activities unless the firm is an insurer (CASS 1.2.3 R (2)).

As column (2).

MAR

MAR 1 (Code of market conduct)
Applies if the firm is seeking guidance as to whether or not behaviour amounts to market abuse (MAR 1.1.1 G).

MAR 1 (Code of market conduct)
As column (2).

MAR 2 (Price stabilising rules)
Applies if the firm undertakes stabilising action and wishes to show that it has acted in conformity with price stabilising rules, or that its behaviour conforms with rules in accordance with section 118A(5)(a) of the Act (Market abuse) (MAR 2.1 Application).

MAR 2 (Price stabilising rules)
Only applies in so far as the firm undertakes stabilising action and wishes to rely on a defence that it has acted in conformity with price stabilising rules, or that its behaviour conforms with rules in accordance with section 118A(5)(a) of the Act (Market abuse) (MAR 2.1 and in particular MAR 2.1.3 R).

[deleted]

MAR 4 (Endorsement of the Take-over Code)
Applies to firms whose permission includes, or ought to include, any designated investment business, except as set out in MAR 4.4.1 R.

MAR 4 (Endorsement of the Take-over Code)
Does not apply (MAR 4.4.1 R (4)(b)).

MAR 5 (Multilateral Trading Facilities)
Does not apply (MAR 5.1.1 R).

TC applies, but only in so far as responsibility for any matter it covers is not reserved by an EU instrument to the firm's Home State regulator.

TC Appendix 1 sets out the activities to which TC applies.

TC Appendix 2 sets out the sourcebook's territorial scope.
TC Appendix 3 sets out the limitations on TC App 2.

SUP

SUP 1 (The FSA's approach to supervision)
Applies, but contains only guidance.

SUP 1 (The FSA's approach to supervision)
As column (2).

SUP 2 (Information gathering by the FSA on its own initiative)
The application of this chapter is the same as for Principle 11 (see under PRIN above).

SUP 2 (Information gathering by the FSA on its own initiative).
As column (2)

SUP 3 (Auditors)
Applies to the firm (and its auditor) only if the firm has a top-up permission.

SUP 3 (Auditors)
As column (2)

SUP 4 (Actuaries)
Does not apply.

SUP 5 (Skilled persons)
Applies only if the firm is required by the FSA to provide a report under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons).

SUP 5 (Skilled persons)
As column (2).

SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part IV permission)
Applies only if the firm has a top-up permission

SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part IV permission)
As column (2).

SUP 7 (Individual requirements)
Applies only if the firm has a top-up permission. It contains only guidance on the exercise of the FSA's own-initiative power to vary that permission. The FSA has similar, but more limited, powers of intervention under Part XIII of the Act in relation to the permission of the firm under Schedule 3 to the Act (see ENF 4).

SUP 7 (Individual requirements)
As column (2).

SUP 8 (Waiver and modification of rules)
Applies only if the firm wishes to apply for, or consent to, or has been given, a waiver of the FSA's rules (SUP 8.1.1 R).

SUP 8 (Waiver and modification of rules)
As column (2).

SUP 9 (Individual guidance)
Applies only if the firm wishes to obtain individual guidance from the FSA or if the FSA gives the firm individual guidance on its own initiative (SUP 9.1.1 G).

SUP 9 (Individual guidance)
As column (2).

SUP 10 (Approved persons)
Applies, but the applicable controlled functions are limited. See SUP 10.1 (Application) for more detailed guidance.

SUP 10 (Approved persons)
Does not apply (SUP 10.1.6 R).

SUP 11 (Controllers and close links)
Does not apply (SUP 11.1.1 R (2)).

SUP 12 (Appointed representatives)
Applies only if the firm has permission to carry on designated investment business, insurance mediation activity or mortgage mediation activity and wishes to appoint, or has appointed, an appointed representative (SUP 12.1.1 R (1)).

SUP 12 (Appointed representatives)
As column (2).

SUP 13 (Exercise of passport rights by UK firms)
Does not apply.

SUP 13A (Qualifying for authorisation under the Act)
SUP 13A applies to the firm if it:
(1) is considering carrying on activities in the United Kingdom which may fall within the scope of the Act and is seeking guidance on whether it needs a top-up permission; or
(2) is, or is considering, applying to the FSA to carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom under a top-up permission; or
(3) is, or is considering, establishing a branch or providing cross-border services into the United Kingdom using EEA rights.

SUP 13A (Qualifying for authorisation under the Act)
As column (2).

SUP 14 (Incoming EEA Firms: Changing detail and cancelling qualifications for authorisation)
Applies.

SUP 15 (Notifications to the FSA)
Applies in full if the firm has a top-up permission. Otherwise, the application is modified as set out in SUP 15 Annex 1.

SUP 15 (Notifications to the FSA)
Does not apply if the firm has permission only for cross border services and does not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom (SUP 15 Annex 1).
Otherwise, as column (2).

SUP 16 (Reporting requirements)
Parts of this chapter may apply if the firm has a top-up permission or if the firm is:
(a) a bank; or
(b) a depositary of an ICVC; or
(c) an OPS firm; or
(d) a trustee of an AUT; or
(e) an insurer with permission to effect or carry out life policies; or
(f) a firm with permission to establish, operate or wind up a personal pension scheme or a stakeholder pension scheme; or
(g) a firm with permission to advise on investments, arrange (bring about) deals in investments, make arrangements with a view to transactions in investments, or arrange safeguarding and administration of assets.
(SUP 16.1)

SUP 16 (Reporting requirements)
Parts of this chapter may apply if the firm has a top-up permission or if the firm is:
(a) a depositary of an ICVC; or
(b) an OPS firm; or
(c) a trustee of an AUT; or
(d) an insurer with permission to effect or carry out life policies; or
(e) a firm with permission to establish, operate or wind up a personal pension scheme or a stakeholder pension scheme; or
(f) a firm with permission to advise on investments, arrange (bring about) deals in investments, make arrangements with a view to transactions in investments, or arrange safeguarding and administration of assets.
(SUP 16.1)

SUP 17 (Transaction reporting)
Applies to UK branches of incoming EEA firms which are MiFID investment firms in respect of reportable transactions executed in the course of services provided, whether within in the United Kingdom and outside. (SUP 17.1.2 G and SUP 17.1.3A G)

SUP 17 (Transaction reporting)
Applies as appropriate to incoming EEA firms which are MiFID investment firms in respect of reportable transactions. (SUP 17.1.1 R and SUP 17.1.4 R).

SUP 18 (Transfers of business)
SUP 18.4 does not apply. SUP 18.1, SUP 18.2 and SUP 18.3 may be relevant if the firm proposes to transfer the whole or part of its business by an insurance business transfer scheme or to accept such a transfer or proposes to accept certain transfers of insurance business taking place outside the United Kingdom.

SUP 18 (Transfers of business)
As column (2).

SUP 20 (Fees Rules)
Applies (SUP 20.1.1 R) but modified (SUP 20.4.7 G to SUP 20.4.10 R).

SUP 20 (Fees Rules)
As column (2).

SUP App 1 (Prudential categories)
Applies and provides guidance on the prudential categories used in the Handbook.

SUP App 1 (Prudential categories)
As column (2).

SUP App 2 (Insurers: Scheme of operations)
Does not apply (SUP App 2.1.1 R).

DEPP

DEPP applies and contains a description of the FSA's procedures for taking statutory notice decisions, the FSA's policy on the imposition and amount of penalties and the conduct of interviews to which a direction under section 169(7) of the Act has been given or the FSA is considering giving.

DISP

Applies (DISP 1.1.1 G)and appliesbut in a limited way in relation to MiFID business.

Does not apply (DISP 1.1.1 G).

COMP

Applies, except in relation to the passported activities of an MiFID investment firm or a BCD credit institution (see the definition of "participant firm") other than an electronic money institution within the meaning of article 1(3)(a) of the E-Money Directive that has the right to benefit from the mutual recognition arrangements under the Banking Consolidation Directive. However, an MiFID investment firm or BCD credit institution may be able to apply for top-up cover in relation to its passported activities (see COMP 14 (Participation by EEA Firms)).

Does not apply in relation to the passported activities of an MiFID investment firm ora BCD credit institution (see the definition of "participant firm"). Otherwise, COMP may apply, but the coverage of the compensation scheme is limited for non-UK activities (see COMP 5).

COAF

Applies if the firm wishes to bring a complaint under the complaints scheme, provided the complaint meets the requirements of the complaints scheme (COAF 1.2).

As column (2).

COLL

COLL apply if the firm:
(a) is the operator or depositary of an AUT or ICVC; or
(b) wishes to apply for an authorisation order to establish an AUT or ICVC; or
(c) is the operator of a recognised scheme; or
(d) wishes to apply for recognition of a recognised scheme.

As column (2)

CRED

Does not apply.

[deleted]

ELM

ELM 6 applies.

Does not apply.

PROF

PROF applies only if the firm is an authorised professional firm.

As column (2).

REC

Does not apply.

LR (Listing Rules)
May apply if the firm is applying for listing in the United Kingdom, is a listed issuer in the United Kingdom, is a sponsor or is applying for approval as a sponsor.

LR (Listing Rules)
As column (2).

PR (Prospectus Rules)
May apply if the firm makes an offer of transferable securities to the public in the United Kingdom or is seeking the admission to trading of transferable securities on a regulated market situated or operating in the United Kingdom.

PR (Prospectus Rules)
As column (2).

DTR

DTR (Disclosure Rules and Transparency Rules)
May apply if the firm is an issuer, any class of whose financial instruments have been admitted to trading on a regulated market, or are the subject of an application for admission to trading on a regulated market, other than issuers who have not requested or approved admission of their financial instruments to trading on a regulated market.

DTR (Disclosure Rules and Transparency Rules)
As column (2).

EG describes the FSA's approach to exercising the main enforcement powers given to it by FSMA and by regulation 12 of the Unfair Terms Regulations. EG is a Regulatory Guide and as such does not form part of the Handbook.

01/01/2011

SUP 13A Annex 2

Matters reserved to a Home State regulator

01/11/2007

Introduction

The application of certain provisions in the Handbook to an incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm depends on whether responsibility for the matter in question is reserved to the firm's Home State regulator. This annex contains guidance designed to assist such firms in understanding the application of those provisions. This annex is not concerned with the FSA's rights to take enforcement action against an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm, which are covered in the Enforcement Guide (EG), or with the position of a firm with a top-up permission.

Requirements in the interest of the general good

The Single Market Directives, and the Treaty (as interpreted by the European Court of Justice) adopt broadly similar approaches to reserving responsibility to the Home State regulator. To summarise, the FSA, as Host State regulator, is entitled to impose requirements with respect to activities carried on within the United Kingdom if these can be justified in the interests of the "general good" and are imposed in a non-discriminatory way. This general proposition is subject to the following in relation to activities passported under the Single Market Directives:

(1)

the Single Market Directives expressly reserve responsibility for the prudential supervision of a MiFID investment firm, BCD credit institution, UCITS management companyor passporting insurance undertaking to the Firm's Home State regulator. The Insurance Mediation Directivereaches the same position without expressly referring to the concept of prudential supervision. Accordingly, the FSA, as Host State regulator, is entitled to regulate only the conduct of the firm's business within the United Kingdom;

(2)

there is no "general good" provision in MiFID. Rather, MiFID states exactly what the Host State regulator regulates (see paragraphs 8 - 10);

(3)

for a BCD credit institution , the FSA, as Host State regulator, is jointly responsible with the Home State regulator under article 41of the Banking Consolidation Directive for supervision of the liquidity of a branch in the United Kingdom;

(4)

for a MiFID investment firm including a BCD credit institution which is a MiFID investment firm), the protection of clients' money and clients' assets is reserved to the Home State regulator under MiFID; and

(5)

responsibility for participation in compensation schemes for BCD credit institutions and MiFID investment firm is reserved in most cases to the Home State regulator under the Deposit Guarantee Directive and the Investor Compensation Directive.

It is necessary to refer to the case law of the European Court of Justice to interpret the concept of the "general good". To summarise, to satisfy the general good test, Host State rules must come within a field which has not been harmonised at EU level, satisfy the general requirements that they pursue an objective of the general good, be non-discriminatory, be objectively necessary, be proportionate to the objective pursued and not already be safeguarded by rules to which the firm is subject in its Home State.

Application of SYSC 2 and SYSC 3

SYSC 2 and SYSC 3 only apply to an insurer, a managing agent and the Society. See paragraph 8 below for a discussion of how the common platform requirements apply. SYSC 2.1.1 R and SYSC 2.1.2 G do not apply for a relevant incoming Treaty firm. The FSA considers that it is entitled, in the interests of the general good, to impose the requirements in SYSC 2.1.3 R to SYSC 2.2.3 G (in relation to the allocation of the function in SYSC 2.1.3 R (2)) and SYSC 3 on an incoming EEA firm and an incoming Treaty firm; but only in so far as they relate to those categories of matter responsibility for which is not reserved to the firm's Home State regulator.

Should the FSA become aware of anything relating to an incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm (whether or not relevant to a matter for which responsibility is reserved to the Home State regulator), the FSA may disclose it to the Home State regulator in accordance with any directive and the applicable restrictions in Part XXIII of the Act (Public Record, Disclosure of Information and Co-operation).

This Annex represents the FSA's views, but a firm is also advised to consult the relevant EU instrument and, where necessary, seek legal advice. The views of the European Commission in the banking and insurance sectors are contained in two Commission Interpretative Communications (Nos. 97/C209/04 and C(1999)5046).

[deleted]

Application of the common platform requirements in SYSC to EEA MiFID investment firms

Whilst the common platform requirements (located in SYSC 4 - SYSC 10) do not generally apply to incoming EEA firms, EEA MiFID investment firms must comply with the common platform record-keeping requirements in relation to a branch in the United Kingdom.

Requirements under MiFID

Article 31(1) of MiFID prohibits Member States from imposing additional requirements on a MiFID investment firm in relation to matters covered by MiFID if the firm is providing services on a cross-border basis. Such firms will be supervised by their Home State regulator.

10.

Article 32 of MiFID requires the FSA as the Host State regulator to apply certain obligations to an incoming EEA firm with an establishment in the UK. In summary, these are Articles:

(1)

19 (conduct of business obligations);

(2)

21 (execution of orders on terms most favourable to the client);

(3)

22 (client order handling);

(4)

25 (upholding the integrity of markets, reporting transactions and maintaining records);

(5)

27 (making public firm quotes); and

(6)

28 (post-trade disclosure).

The remaining obligations under MiFID are reserved to the Home State regulator.

11.

MiFID is more highly harmonising than other Single Market Directives. Article 4 of the MiFID implementing Directive permits Member States to impose additional requirements only where certain tests are met. The FSA has made certain requirements that fall within the scope of Article 4. These requirements apply to an EEA MiFID investment firm with an establishment in the United Kingdom as they apply to a UK MiFID investment firm.

11L

Under article 34(2) of the MCD, ensuring compliance with the obligations in articles 7(1), 8, 9, 10, 11, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 20, 22 and 39 of the MCD by incoming EEA branches is the responsibility of the Host State. Responsibilities for ensuring compliance with all other obligations are the responsibility of the Home State.

11M

Ensuring compliance with the obligations in articles 7(1), 8, 9, 10, 11, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 20, 22 and 39 of the MCD by EEA firms providing cross border services is the responsibility of the Home State.

12.

Further guidance on the territorial application of the Handbook can be found at PERG 13.6 and PERG 13.7.

13.

Examples of how SYSC 3 and/or the common platform provisions apply in practice.

(1)

The Prudential Standards part of the Handbook (with the exception of INSPRU 1.5.33 R on the payment of financial penalties and the Interim Prudential sourcebook (insurers) (IPRU(INS)) (rules 3.6 and 3.7) do not apply to an insurer which is an incoming EEA firm. Similarly, SYSC 3 does not require such a firm:

(a)

to establish systems and controls in relation to financial resources (SYSC 3.1.1 R); or

(b)

to establish systems and controls for compliance with that Prudential Standards part of the Handbook (SYSC 3.2.6 R); or

(c)

to make and retain records in relation to financial resources (SYSC 3.2.20 R and SYSC 9.1.1 R to 9.1.4 G).

(2)

The Conduct of Business sourcebook (COBS) applies to an incoming EEA firm. Similarly, SYSC 3 and SYSC 4-10 do require such a firm:

(a)

to establish systems and controls in relation to those aspects of the conduct of its business covered by applicable sections of COBS (SYSC 3.1.1 R and SYSC 4.1.1 R);

(b)

to establish systems and controls for compliance with the applicable sections of COBS (SYSC 3.2.6 R and SYSC 6.1.1 R); and

(c)

to make and retain records in relation to those aspects of the conduct of its business (SYSC 3.2.20 R and SYSC 9.1.1 R to 9.1.4 G).

See also Question 12 in SYSC 2.1.6 G for guidance on the application of SYSC 2.1.3 R (2)

01/12/2009

SUP 14

Incoming EEA firms changing details, and cancelling qualification for authorisation

SUP 14.1

Application and purpose

01/12/2004

Application

SUP 14.1.1

This chapter applies to an incoming EEA firmother than an EEA pure reinsurer which has established a branch in, or is providing cross border services into, the United Kingdom under one of the Single Market Directives and, therefore, qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act.

06/03/2009

SUP 14.1.2

SUP 14.6 (Cancelling qualification for authorisation), which sets out how to cancel qualification for authorisation under the Act, also applies to:

(1) an incoming Treaty firm that qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act; and

(2) a UCITS qualifier that is an authorised person under Schedule 5 to the Act; a UCITS qualifier should, however, refer to COLLG 3.1.11 G for full details of applicable rules and guidance.

01/04/2009

SUP 14.1.3

(1) Under the Gibraltar Order made under section 409 of the Act, a Gibraltar firm is treated as an EEA firm under Schedule 3 to the Act if it is:

(a) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Directives; or
(b) authorised in Gibraltar under the Banking Consolidation Directive;
(c) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Mediation Directive; or
(d) authorised in Gibraltar under the Investment Services Directive.

(1A) Similarly, an EEA firm which:

(a) has satisfied the Gibraltar establishment conditions and has established a branch in the UK; or
(b) has satisfied the Gibraltar service conditions and is providing cross border services into the UK;

is treated as having satisfied the establishment conditions or service conditions (as appropriate) under Schedule 3 to the Act.
(2) Gibraltar insurance companies, credit institutions, insurance intermediaries and investment firms are allowed to passport their services into the United Kingdom if they comply with the relevant notification procedures. So, any references in SUP 14 to EEA State or EEA right include references to Gibraltar and the entitlement under the Gibraltar Order where appropriate.

06/10/2006

Purpose

SUP 14.1.4

This chapter gives guidance on the Act and the EEA Passport Rights Regulations made under the Act, for an incoming EEA firm which has established a branch in, or is providing cross border services into, the United Kingdom and wishes to change the details of the branch or cross border services.

06/02/2007

SUP 14.1.5

This chapter also explains how an incoming EEA firm, an incoming Treaty firm or a UCITS qualifier may cancel its qualification for authorisation under the Act.

21/06/2001

SUP 14.1.6

This chapter does not, however, give guidance on the procedures for the establishment of a branch in, or the providing of cross border services into, the United Kingdom for the first time. So, an incoming EEA firm that wishes to change or supplement the nature of its operations in the United Kingdom from the providing of cross border services to the establishment of a branch (or vice versa) should refer to SUP 13A (Qualifying for authorisation under the Act).

01/02/2006

SUP 14.1.7

In addition, the chapter does not give guidance on the procedures for making an application for top-up permission, to carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom which are outside the scope of the Single Market Directives and for which the firm cannot exercise Treaty rights. Incoming EEA firms seeking a top-up permission should refer to SUP 13A.

01/02/2006

SUP 14.2

Changes to branch details

01/12/2004

SUP 14.2.1

Where an incoming EEA firm is exercising an EEA right, other than under the Insurance Mediation Directive, and has established a branch in the United Kingdom, the EEA Passport Rights Regulations govern any changes to the details of that branch. Where an incoming EEA firm has complied with the relevant requirements in the EEA Passport Rights Regulations, then the firm's permission given under Schedule 3 to the Act is to be treated as varied accordingly. All references to regulations in SUP 14 are to the EEA Passport Rights Regulations.

21/06/2001

Firms passporting under the Banking Consolidation Directive and the UCITS Directive

SUP 14.2.2

(1) Where an incoming EEA firm passporting under the Banking Consolidation Directive or the UCITS Directive has established a branch in the United Kingdom, regulation 4 states that it must not make a change in the requisite details of the branch unless it has complied with the relevant requirements.

(2) The relevant requirements are set out in regulation 4(4) or, where the change arises from circumstances beyond the incoming EEA firm's control, in regulation 4(5) (see SUP 14.2.8 G).

01/11/2007

SUP 14.2.3

Where the change arises from circumstances within the control of the incoming EEA firm, the requirements in regulation 4(4) are that:

(1) the incoming EEA firm has given notice to the FSA (see SUP 14.4.1 G) and to its Home State regulator stating the details of the proposed change;

(2) the FSA has received a notice stating those details; and

(3) either:

(a) the FSA has informed the firm that it may make the change; or

(b) the period of one month beginning with the date on which the incoming EEA firm gave the FSA the notice mentioned in (1) has elapsed.

21/06/2001

SUP 14.2.4

Changes to the requisite details may lead to changes to the applicable provisions to which the incoming EEA firm is subject. The FSA will, as soon as practicable after receiving a notice in SUP 14.2.3 G or SUP 14.2.8 G, inform the incoming EEA firm of any consequential changes in the applicable provisions (regulation 4(6)).

21/06/2001

Firms passporting under the Insurance Directives

SUP 14.2.5

(1) Where an incoming EEA firm, passporting under the Insurance Directives has established a branch in the United Kingdom, regulation 6 states that it must not make a change to the information referred to in regulation 2(5)(a) to (c) unless it has complied with the relevant requirements.

(2) The relevant requirements are set out in regulation 6(4) or, where the change arises from circumstances beyond the incoming EEA firm's control, regulation 6(5) (see SUP 14.2.8 G).

01/02/2006

SUP 14.2.6

Where the change arises from circumstances within the control of the incoming EEA firm, the relevant requirements in regulation 6(4) are that:

(1) the incoming EEA firm has given a notice to the FSA (see SUP 14.4.1 G) and to its Home State regulator stating the details of the proposed change;

(2) the FSA has received from the Home State regulator a notice stating that it has approved the proposed change;

(3) the period of at least one month beginning with the day on which the incoming EEA firm gave the FSA the notice in (1) has elapsed; and

(4) either:

(a) a further period of one month has elapsed; or

(b) the FSA has informed the Home State regulator of any consequential changes in the applicable provisions.

21/06/2001

SUP 14.2.7

Under regulation 6(6) the FSA is required, as soon as practicable, to:

(1) acknowledge receipt of the documents sent under regulation 6(4) or 6(5); and

(2) in the case of a notice under regulation 6(5), inform the incoming EEA firm's Home State regulator of any consequential changes in the applicable provisions.

21/06/2001

Changes arising from circumstances beyond the control of an incoming EEA firm passporting under the Banking Consolidation Directive, UCITS Directive or Insurance Directive, UCITS Directive or Insurance Directive

SUP 14.2.8

If the change arises from circumstances beyond the incoming EEA firm's control, the firm is required by regulation 4(5) (see SUP 14.2.2 G) or regulation 6(5) (see SUP 14.2.5 G (2)) to give a notice to the FSA (see SUP 14.4.1 G) and to its Home State regulator stating the details of the change as soon as reasonably practicable.

21/06/2001

SUP 14.2.9

The FSA believes that for a change to arise from circumstances beyond the control of an incoming EEA firm, the circumstances should be outside the control of the firm as a whole and not just its UK branch. For example, the FSA considers that this provision would be unlikely to apply to circumstances in which lack of planning at the incoming EEA firm's head office resulted in a problem arising in a UK branch which was outside its control. In practice, therefore, use of this provision is likely to be rare.

21/06/2001

Firms passporting under MiFID

SUP 14.2.10

Where an EEA MiFID investment firm has established a branch in the UK, regulation 4A states that it must not make a change in the requisite details of the branch unless it has complied with the relevant requirements.

01/11/2007

SUP 14.2.11

The relevant requirements in regulation 4A(3) are that:

(1) the EEA MiFID investment firm has given notice to its Home State regulator stating the details of the proposed change; and

(2) the period of one month beginning with the date on which the EEA MiFID investment firm gave the notice mentioned in (1) has elapsed.

01/11/2007

SUP 14.2.12

Changes to the requisite details may lead to changes to the applicable provisions to which the EEA MiFID investment firm is subject. The FSA will, as soon as practicable after receiving a notice in SUP 14.2.11 G inform the EEA MiFID investment firm of any consequential changes in the applicable provisions.

01/11/2007

SUP 14.3

Changes to cross border services

01/12/2004

SUP 14.3.1

Where an incoming EEA firm passporting under the MiFID , UCITS Directive or Insurance Directives is exercising an EEA right and is providing cross border services into the United Kingdom, the EEA Passport Rights Regulations govern any changes to the details of those services. Where an incoming EEA firm has complied with the relevant requirements in the EEA Passport Rights Regulations, then the firm's permission given under Schedule 3 to the Act is to be treated as varied accordingly.

01/11/2007

Firms passporting under the UCITS Directive

SUP 14.3.2

Where an incoming EEA firm passporting under the UCITS Directive is providing cross border services into the United Kingdom, it must not make a change in the details referred to in regulation 5(1) unless it has complied with the relevant requirements in regulation 5(3).

01/11/2007

SUP 14.3.3

The relevant requirements in regulation 5(3) are that:

(1) the incoming EEA firm has given a notice to the FSA (see SUP 14.4.1 G) and to its Home State regulator stating the details of the proposed change;

(2) if the change arises from circumstances beyond the incoming EEA firm's control, that firm has, as soon as practicable, given to the FSA and to its Home State regulator the notice in (1).

21/06/2001

Firms passporting under MiFID

SUP 14.3.3A

The requirement in regulation 5(3A) is that the incoming EEA firm has.

01/11/2007

SUP 14.3.4

Under regulation 5(4), the FSA is required, as soon as practicable after receiving the notice in SUP 14.3.3 G, to inform the incoming EEA firm of any consequential changes in the applicable provisions.

21/06/2001

SUP 14.3.4A

Where an incoming EEA firm passporting under MiFID is providing cross border services into the United Kingdom, it must not make a change in the details referred to in regulation 5(1) unless it has given at least one month's notice to its Home State regulator stating the details of the proposed change.

01/11/2007

Firms passporting under the Insurance Directives

SUP 14.3.5

If an incoming EEA firm passporting under the Insurance Directives is providing cross border servicesinto the United Kingdom, it must not make a change to the details referred to in regulation 7(1) unless it has complied with the relevant provisions.

01/02/2006

SUP 14.3.6

The relevant provisions are those set out in regulation 7(4), namely that:

(1) the incoming EEA firm has given a notice to its Home State regulator stating the details of the proposed change; and

(2) the Home State regulator has passed on to the FSA the information contained in that notice.

21/06/2001

SUP 14.3.7

If the change arises from circumstances beyond the incoming EEA firm's control, the incoming EEA firm is required to comply with the relevant provisions referred to in SUP 14.3.6 G as soon as reasonably practicable (whether before or after the change). See also SUP 14.2.9 G, as relevant to cross border services.

21/06/2001

SUP 14.4

Notices of proposed changes: form and delivery

01/12/2004

SUP 14.4.1

(1) Regulation 7 to 9 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Services of Notices) Regulations 2001 (SI2001/1420) govern the manner in which notices may be submitted to the FSA under the EEA Passport Rights Regulations. In summary, they should be delivered or posted to the FSA's address (See (2) below) and will be treated as given when received by the FSA. They should not be sent by fax or electronic mail.

(2) The address for notices is: The Passport Notifications Unit, The Financial Services Authority, 25 The North Colonnade, Canary Wharf, London, E14 5HS

21/06/2001

SUP 14.5

Variation of a top-up permission to carry on regulated activities outside the scope of the Single Market Directives

01/12/2004

SUP 14.5.1

Where an incoming EEA firm has been granted top-up permission by the FSA and wishes to vary that permission, the Act requires it to apply to the FSA for a variation of the top-up permission.

21/06/2001

SUP 14.5.2

Guidance on the procedures for applying for a variation of a permission granted under Part IV of the Act, including a top-up permission, is given in SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part IVPermission).

21/06/2001

SUP 14.6

Cancelling qualification for authorisation

01/12/2004

Incoming EEA firms

SUP 14.6.1

Section 34 of the Act states that an incoming EEA firm no longer qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act if it ceases to be an incoming EEA firm as a result of:

(1) having its EEA authorisation withdrawn by its Home State regulator; or

(2) ceasing to have an EEA right in circumstances in which EEA authorisation is not required; this is relevant to a financial institution that is a subsidiary of a credit institution (of the kind mentioned in Article 19of the Banking Consolidation Directive ) which fulfils the conditions in articles 18 and 19of that Directive.

21/06/2001

SUP 14.6.2

In addition, under section 34(2) an incoming EEA firm may ask the FSA to give a direction cancelling its authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act.

21/06/2001

SUP 14.6.3

Regulation 8 states that where an incoming EEA firm which qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 3:

(1) has ceased, or is to cease, to carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom; and

(2) gives notice of that fact to the FSA ;

the notice is treated under regulation 8 as a request for cancellation of the incoming EEA firm's qualification for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act and so as a request under section 34(2) of the Act.

21/06/2001

SUP 14.6.4

Where a financial institution (that is, a subsidiary of a credit institution) is passporting under the Banking Consolidation Directive (see SUP 14.6.1 G (2)), regulation 9(1) states that the incoming EEA firm may request the FSA to direct that its qualification for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act is cancelled from such date as may be specified in the direction.

21/06/2001

SUP 14.6.5

The FSA may not, however, give a direction referred to in SUP 14.6.4 G unless:

(1) the incoming EEA firm has given notice to its Home State regulator; and

(2) the FSA has agreed with the Home State regulator that the direction should be given.

21/06/2001

SUP 14.6.6

Regulation 9(3) requires that the date specified by the FSA in a direction referred to in SUP 14.6.4 G:

(1) must not be earlier than the date requested in the application; but

(2) subject to (1), is as agreed between the FSA and the incoming EEA firm's Home State regulator.

21/06/2001

SUP 14.6.7

The FSA is required to send, as soon as practicable, a copy of the direction to the incoming EEA firm and to its Home State regulator (regulation 9(4)).

21/06/2001

SUP 14.6.8

Where the FSA gives a direction referred to in SUP 14.6.4 G, the incoming EEA firm may apply for Part IV permission (see the FSA website "How do I get authorised": http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml ) to take effect not earlier than the date that its qualification for authorisation is cancelled (as specified in the direction).

06/10/2007

Incoming Treaty firms

SUP 14.6.9

Section 35 of the Act states that an incoming Treaty firm no longer qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act if its Home State authorisation is withdrawn.

21/06/2001

SUP 14.6.10

In addition, under section 35(2) an incoming Treaty firm may ask the FSA to give a direction cancelling its authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act.

21/06/2001

UCITS qualifiers

SUP 14.6.11

Section 36 of the Act states that a UCITS qualifier may ask the FSA to give a direction cancelling its authorisation under paragraph 1(1) of Schedule 5 to the Act. UCITS qualifiers should also refer to COLLG 3.1.11 G (Revocation of recognition of overseas schemes (section 279)).

01/04/2009

SUP 14.7

Cancellation of a top-up permission to carry on regulated activities outside the scope of the Single Market Directives

01/12/2004

SUP 14.7.1

Where an incoming EEA firm, an incoming Treaty firm or a UCITS qualifier wishes to cancel its top-up permission, either with or without cancellation of its qualification for authorisation under Schedule 3, 4, or 5 to the Act, it should make an application following the procedures set out in SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part IVPermission).

21/06/2001

SUP 14.8

Further guidance

01/12/2004

SUP 14.8.1

For further guidance on passporting procedures, an incoming EEA firmshould contact the FSA's Passport Notifications Unit or their usual supervisory contact at the FSA . Incoming Treaty firms and UCITS qualifiersshould speak to their usual supervisory contact at the FSA in the first instance

21/06/2001

SUP 15

Notifications to the FSA

SUP 15.1

Application

01/12/2004

Who?

SUP 15.1.1

This chapter applies to every firm except that:

(1) only SUP 15.10 applies to an ICVC or a UCITS qualifier; and

(2) SUP 15.3.22 D to SUP 15.3.25 D apply only to the Society.

31/12/2006

SUP 15.1.2

The application of this chapter to an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm is set out in SUP 15 Annex 1.

21/06/2001

SUP 15.1.3

In some cases, the application of provisions set out in SUP 15 Annex 1 depends on whether responsibility is reserved to a Home State regulator. SYSC App 1 contains guidance on this.

21/06/2001

What?

SUP 15.1.4

This chapter:

(1) applies with respect to the carrying on of both regulated activities and unregulated activities; and

(2) takes into account any activity of other members of a group of which the firm is a member.

21/06/2001

Where?

SUP 15.1.5

Firms are reminded that, unless expressly stated otherwise, where a rule or guidance includes a reference to a firm this includes all UK and overseas branches and representative offices of that firm, whether or not those branches or offices carry on any regulated activities.

01/11/2007

SUP 15.1.6

This chapter does not apply to an incoming ECA provider acting as such.

01/11/2007

SUP 15.2

Purpose

01/12/2004

SUP 15.2.1

A firm is required to provide the FSA with a wide range of information to enable the FSA to meet its responsibilities for monitoring the firm's compliance with requirements imposed by or under the Act. Some of this information is provided through regular reports, including those set out in SUP 16 (Reporting requirements) and SUP 17 (Transaction reporting). In addition, other chapters in the Handbook set out specific notification and reporting requirements. Principle 11 includes a requirement for a firm to disclose to the FSA appropriately anything relating to the firm of which the FSA would reasonably expect notice.

21/06/2001

SUP 15.2.2

This chapter sets out:

(1) guidance on the type of event or change in condition which a firm should consider notifying in accordance with Principle 11; the purpose of this guidance is to set out examples and not to give comprehensive advice to firms on what they should notify in order to be in compliance with Principle 11;
(2) rules on events and changes in condition that a firm must notify; these are the types of event that the FSA must be informed about, usually as soon as possible, if it is to be able to carry out its monitoring function effectively and react in good time to developments that may require a regulatory response;
(3) rules on the core information that a firm must provide to the FSA, for example its name and address and the names of its other regulators, so that the FSA is able to maintain a relationship with the firm and with those regulators;
(4) rules requiring a firm to ensure that information provided to the FSA is accurate and complete; section 398 of the Act makes it an offence knowingly or recklessly to provide the FSA with information which is false or misleading in a material particular, in purported compliance with any requirement imposed by or under the Act; the purpose of the rules in SUP 15.6 is to ensure that firms take due care to ensure the accuracy of information and to require them to ensure that information is not only accurate but also complete; and
(5) material (in SUP 15.10 (Notification of suspicious transactions (market abuse))) to implement the provisions of the Market Abuse Directive for the reporting of transactions about which there is reasonable suspicion of market abuse.

01/07/2005

SUP 15.2.3

Rules and guidance have also been included to set out how firms should make a notification and to determine when it may be appropriate to discuss matters with their usual supervisory contact by telephone (SUP 15.7).

21/06/2001

SUP 15.2.4

Schedule 2 contains a consolidated summary of all the notification rules applicable to firms set out in the Handbook.

21/06/2001

SUP 15.3

General notification requirements

01/12/2004

Matters having a serious regulatory impact

SUP 15.3.1

A firm must notify the FSA immediately it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that any of the following has occurred, may have occurred or may occur in the foreseeable future:

(1) the firm failing to satisfy one or more of the threshold conditions; or

(2) any matter which could have a significant adverse impact on the firm's reputation; or

(3) any matter which could affect the firm's ability to continue to provide adequate services to its customers and which could result in serious detriment to a customer of the firm; or

(4) any matter in respect of the firm which could result in serious financial consequences to the UK financial system or to other firms.

06/08/2010

SUP 15.3.2

The circumstances which may give rise to any of the events in SUP 15.3.1 R are wide-ranging and the probability of any matter resulting in such an outcome, and the severity of the outcome, may be difficult to determine. However, the FSA expects firms to consider properly all potential consequences of events.

21/06/2001

SUP 15.3.3

In determining whether an event that may occur in the foreseeable future should be notified to the FSA, a firm should consider both the probability of the event happening and the severity of the outcome should it happen.

21/06/2001

SUP 15.3.4

Guidance on satisfaction of the threshold conditions is given in COND.

21/06/2001

SUP 15.3.5

A firm making a notification in accordance with SUP 15.3.1 R should consider the guidance in SUP 15.7.2 G and notify the FSA by telephone if appropriate.

21/06/2001

SUP 15.3.6

An insurer or friendly society making a notification under SUP 15.3.1 R (1) relating to satisfaction of threshold condition 4 (Adequate resources) should be aware of the requirements in SUP App 2 (Scheme of operations).

21/06/2001

Communication with the FSA in accordance with Principle 11

SUP 15.3.7

Principle 11 requires a firm to deal with its regulators in an open and cooperative way and to disclose to the FSA appropriately anything relating to the firm of which the FSA would reasonably expect notice. Principle 11 applies to unregulated activities as well as regulated activities and takes into account the activities of other members of a group.

21/06/2001

SUP 15.3.8

Compliance with Principle 11 includes, but is not limited to, giving the FSA notice of:

(1) any proposed restructuring, reorganisation or business expansion which could have a significant impact on the firm's risk profile or resources, including, but not limited to:

(a) setting up a new undertaking within a firm's group, or a new branch (whether in the United Kingdom or overseas); or

(b) commencing the provision of cross border services into a new territory; or

(d) ceasing to undertake a regulated activity or ancillary activity, or significantly reducing the scope of such activities; or

(e) entering into, or significantly changing, a material outsourcing arrangement (a bank , a building societyand a dormant account fund operatorshould also see SYSC 3.2.4 G and SYSC 8 , and an insurer should also see SYSC 13.9 for further details); or

(f) a substantial change or a series of changes in the governing body of an overseas firm (other than an incoming firm); or

(g) any change to the firm's prudential category or sub-category, as used in the Interim Prudential sourcebooks and SUP and on which guidance is given in SUP App 1; or

(h) any proposed change which limits the liability of any of the members or partners of a firm such as a general partner becoming a limited partner or re-registration as a limited liability company of a company incorporated with unlimited liability;or

(i) in relation to a dormant account fund operator, notify the FSA when the operator intends to rely on a third party for the performance of operational functions which are critical or important for the performance of relevant services and activities in connection with operating a dormant account fund on a continuous and satisfactory basis;

(2) any significant failure in the firm's systems or controls, including those reported to the firm by the firm's auditor;

(3) any action which a firm proposes to take which would result in a material change in its capital adequacy or solvency, including, but not limited to:

(a) any action which would result in a material change in the firm's financial resources or financial resources requirement; or

(b) a material change resulting from the payment of a special or unusual dividend or the repayment of share capital or a subordinated loan; or

(c) for firms which are subject to the rules on consolidated financial supervision, any proposal under which another group company may be considering such an action; or

(d) significant trading or non-trading losses (whether recognised or unrecognised).

06/08/2009

SUP 15.3.9

The period of notice given to the FSA will depend on the event, although the FSA expects a firm to discuss relevant matters with it at an early stage, before making any internal or external commitments.

21/06/2001

SUP 15.3.10

A notification under Principle 11 may be given orally or in writing (as set out in SUP 15.7.1 R and SUP 15.7.2 G), although the FSA may request written confirmation of a matter. However, it is the responsibility of a firm to ensure that matters are properly and clearly communicated to the FSA. A firm should provide a written notification if a matter either is complex or may be such as to make it necessary for the FSA to take action. A firm should also have regard to Principle 11 and the guidance in SUP 15.7.2 G in respect of providing important information promptly.

21/06/2001

Breaches of rules and other requirements in or under the Act

SUP 15.3.11

(1) A firm must notify the FSA of:

(a) a significant breach of a rule (which includes a Principle) or Statement of Principle; or
(b) a breach of any requirement imposed by the Act or by regulations or an order made under the Act by the Treasury (except if the breach is an offence, in which case (c) applies);
(c) the bringing of a prosecution for, or a conviction of, any offence under the Act;
(d) a breach of a directly applicable provision in the MiFID Regulation; or
(e) a breach of any requirement in regulation 4C(3) (or any successor provision) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Markets in Financial Instruments) Regulations 2007; or
(f) it exceeding (or becoming aware that it will exceed) the limit in BIPRU 10.5.6 R;

by (or as regards (c) against) the firm or any of its directors, officers, employees, approved persons, or appointed representatives or, where applicable, tied agents.
(2) A firm must make the notification in (1) immediately it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that any of the matters in (1) has occurred, may have occurred or may occur in the foreseeable future.

31/12/2010

SUP 15.3.11A

SUP 15.3.11 R (1)(e) relates to the standard requirement in the permission of those firms which fall outside MiFID because of the Treasury's implementation of Article 3 of MiFID. Guidance on how the Treasury has exercised the Article 3 exemption for the United Kingdom is given in Q48 and the following questions and answers in PERG 13.5 (Exemptions from MiFID).

01/11/2007

SUP 15.3.12

In SUP 15.3.11 R(1)(a), significance should be determined having regard to potential financial losses to customers or to the firm, frequency of the breach, implications for the firm's systems and controls and if there were delays in identifying or rectifying the breach.

21/06/2001

SUP 15.3.13

In assessing whether an event that may occur in the foreseeable future should be notified to the FSA, a firm should consider the guidance in SUP 15.3.3 G.

21/06/2001

SUP 15.3.14

A notification under SUP 15.3.11 R should include:

(1) information about any circumstances relevant to the breach or offence;

(2) identification of the rule or requirement or offence; and

(3) information about any steps which a firm or other person has taken or intends to take to rectify or remedy the breach or prevent any future potential occurrence.

21/06/2001

Civil, criminal or disciplinary proceedings against a firm

SUP 15.3.15

A firm must notify the FSA immediately if:

(1) civil proceedings are brought against the firm and the amount of the claim is significant in relation to the firm's financial resources or its reputation; or

(2) any action is brought against the firm under section 71 of the Act (Actions for damages) or section 150 (Actions for damages); or

(3) disciplinary measures or sanctions have been imposed on the firm by any statutory or regulatory authority, professional organisation or trade body (other than the FSA) or the firm becomes aware that one of those bodies has started an investigation into its affairs; or

(4) the firm is prosecuted for, or convicted of, any offence involving fraud or dishonesty, or any penalties are imposed on it for tax evasion; or

(5) it is an OPS firm, which is a trustee, and is removed as trustee by a court order.

21/06/2001

SUP 15.3.16

A notification under SUP 15.3.15 R should include details of the matter and an estimate of the likely financial consequences, if any.

21/06/2001

Fraud, errors and other irregularities

SUP 15.3.17

A firm must notify the FSA immediately if one of the following events arises and the event is significant:

(1) it becomes aware that an employee may have committed a fraud against one of its customers; or

(2) it becomes aware that a person, whether or not employed by it, may have committed a fraud against it; or

(3) it considers that any person, whether or not employed by it, is acting with intent to commit a fraud against it; or

(4) it identifies irregularities in its accounting or other records, whether or not there is evidence of fraud; or

(5) it suspects that one of its employees may be guilty of serious misconduct concerning his honesty or integrity and which is connected with the firm's regulated activities or ancillary activities.

21/06/2001

SUP 15.3.18

In determining whether a matter is significant, a firm should have regard to:

(1) the size of any monetary loss or potential monetary loss to itself or its customers (either in terms of a single incident or group of similar or related incidents);

(2) the risk of reputational loss to the firm; and

(3) whether the incident or a pattern of incidents reflects weaknesses in the firm's internal controls.

21/06/2001

SUP 15.3.19

The notifications under SUP 15.3.17 R are required as the FSA needs to be aware of the types of fraudulent and irregular activity which are being attempted or undertaken, and to act, if necessary, to prevent effects on consumers or other firms. A notification under SUP 15.7.3 G should provide all relevant and significant details of the incident or suspected incident of which the firm is aware.

21/06/2001

SUP 15.3.20

In addition, the firm may have suffered significant financial losses as a result of the incident, or may suffer reputational loss, and the FSA will wish to consider this and whether the incident suggests weaknesses in the firm's internal controls.

21/06/2001

Insolvency, bankruptcy and winding up

SUP 15.3.21

A firm must notify the FSA immediately of any of the following events:

(1) the calling of a meeting to consider a resolution for winding up the firm; or

(2) an application to dissolve the firm or to strike it off the Register of Companies; or

(3) the presentation of a petition for the winding up of the firm; or

(4) the making of, or any proposals for the making of, a composition or arrangement with any one or more of its creditors; or

(5) an application for the appointment of an administrator or trustee in bankruptcy to the firm; or

(6) the appointment of a receiver to the firm (whether an administrative receiver or a receiver appointed over particular property); or

(7) an application for an interim order against the firm under section 252 of the Insolvency Act 1986 (or, in Northern Ireland, section 227 of the Insolvency (Northern Ireland) Order 1989); or

(8) if the firm is a sole trader:

(a) an application for a sequestration order on the firm; or

(b) the presentation of a petition for bankruptcy; or

(9) anything equivalent to (1) to (8) above occurring in respect of the firm in a jurisdiction outside the United Kingdom.

21/06/2001

Lloyd's of London

SUP 15.3.22

SUP 15.3.23 D to SUP 15.3.25 D are given in relation to the exercise of the powers of the Society and of the Council generally, with a view to achieving the objective of enabling the FSAto:

(1) comply with its general duty under section 314 of the Act (Authority's general duty);

(2) determine whether underwriting agents, or approved persons acting for them or on their behalf, are complying with the requirements imposed on them by or under the Act;

(3) enforce the provisions of the Act, or requirements made under the Act, by enabling the FSA to consider, where appropriate, whether it should use its powers, for example, to:

(a) vary or cancel the permission of an underwriting agent, under section 45 of the Act (Variation etc on the Authority's owninitiative );

(b) withdraw approval from an approved person acting for or on behalf of an underwriting agent, under section 63 of the Act (Withdrawal of approval) (see EG 9 );

(c) prohibit an individual acting for or on behalf of an underwriting agent from involvement in regulated activities, under section 56 of the Act (Prohibition orders) (see EG 9 );

(d) require an underwriting agent to make restitution, under section 384 of the Act (Power of Authority to require restitution) (see EG 11 );

(e) discipline an underwriting agent, or an approved person acting for it or on its behalf, for a breach of a requirement made under the Act, including the Principles, Statements of Principle and rules (see DEPP 6 and EG 7);

(f) apply to court for an injunction, restitution order or insolvency order (see EG 10, EG 11 and EG 13); and

(g) prosecute any criminal offence that the FSA has power to prosecute under the Act (see EG 12 ).

28/08/2007

SUP 15.3.23

The Society must immediately inform the FSA in writing if it becomes aware that any matter likely to be of material concern to the FSA may have arisen in relation to:

(1) the regulated activities for which the Society has permission; or

(2) underwriting agents; or

(3) approved persons or individuals acting for or on behalf of underwriting agents.

31/12/2006

SUP 15.3.24

The Society must inform the FSA if it commences investigations or disciplinary proceedings relating to apparent breaches:

(1) of the Act or requirements made under the Act, including the threshold conditions or the Principles or other rules, by an underwriting agent; or

(2) of the Statements of Principle by an individual or other person who carries out controlled functions for or on behalf of an underwriting agent.

31/12/2006

SUP 15.3.25

The Society must inform the FSA if it commences investigations or disciplinary proceedings which do not fall within the scope of SUP 15.3.24 D but which:

(1) involve an underwriting agent, or an approved person who carries out controlled functions for it or on its behalf; or

(2) may indicate that an individual acting for or on behalf of an underwriting agent may not be a fit and proper person to perform functions in relation to regulated activities.

31/12/2006

SUP 15.4

Notified persons

01/12/2004

SUP 15.4.1

(1) An overseas firm, which is not an incoming firm, must notify the FSA within 30 business days of any person taking up or ceasing to hold the following positions:

(a) the firm's worldwide chief executive (that is, the person who, alone or jointly with one or more others, is responsible under the immediate authority of the directors for the whole of its business) if the person is based outside the United Kingdom;

(b) the person within the overseas firm with a purely strategic responsibility for UK operations (see SUP 10.7.4 G);

(c) for a bank or an ELMI: the two or more persons who effectively direct its business in accordance with SYSC 4.2.2 R and ELM 5.3.1 R, respectively;

(d) for an insurer: the authorised UK representative.

(2) The notification in (1) must be submitted in the form set out in Form F (SUP 15 Ann 2). However, if the person is an approved person, notification giving details of his name, the approved person's FSA individual reference number and the position to which the notification relates, is sufficient.

04/10/2010

SUP 15.4.2

SUP 15.4.1 R is not made under the powers conferred on the FSA by Part V of the Act (Performance of Regulated Activities). A person notified to the FSA under SUP 15.4.1 R is not subject to the Statements of Principle or Code of Practice for Approved Persons, unless he is also an approved person.

21/06/2001

SUP 15.4.3

(1) A firm other than a credit union must submit the form in SUP 15 Ann 2 R online at www.fsa.gov.uk using the FSA's ONAsystem.

(2) A credit union must submit the form in SUP 15 Ann 2 R in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).

(3) Where a firm is obliged to submit an application online under (1), if the FSA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, until such time as facilities for online submission are restored, a firm must submit the form in SUP 15 Ann 2 R, in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).

04/10/2010

SUP 15.4.3A

(1) If the FSA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FSA will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that online submission is unavailable and that the alternative methods of submission set out in SUP 15.4.3R(3) and SUP 15.7.4R to SUP 15.7.9G (Form and method of notification) should be used.

(2) Where SUP 15.4.3R (3) applies to a firm, GEN 1.3.2 R (Emergency) does not apply.

04/10/2010

SUP 15.4.4

If adverse information is revealed about a person notified to the FSA under SUP 15.4.1 R, the FSA may exercise its own-initiative power against the firm (see SUP 7 (Individual requirements)).

21/06/2001

SUP 15.5

Core information requirements

01/12/2004

Change in name

SUP 15.5.1

A firm must give the FSA reasonable advance notice of a change in:

(1) the firm's name (which is the registered name if the firm is a body corporate);

(2) any business name under which the firm carries on a regulated activity or ancillary activity either from an establishment in the United Kingdom or with or for clients in the United Kingdom.

21/06/2001

SUP 15.5.2

A notification under SUP 15.5.1 R should include the details of the proposed new name and the date on which the firm intends to implement the change of name.

21/06/2001

SUP 15.5.3

Firms are reminded that certain name changes (for example, to include 'Limited') may also require a notification under SUP 15.5.5 R.

21/06/2001

Change in address

SUP 15.5.4

A firm must give the FSA reasonable advance notice of a change in any of the following addresses, and give details of the new address and the date of the change:

(1) the firm's principal place of business in the United Kingdom;

(2) in the case of an overseas firm, its registered office (or head office) address.

21/06/2001

Other regulators

SUP 15.5.7

A firm must notify the FSA immediately if it becomes subject to or ceases to be subject to the supervision of any overseas regulator (including a Home State regulator).

21/06/2001

SUP 15.5.8

The FSA's approach to the supervision of a firm is influenced by the regulatory regime and any legislative or foreign provisions to which that firm, including its branches, is subject.

21/06/2001

Submitting notifications to the FSA

SUP 15.5.9

(1) A firm other than a credit union must submit any notice under SUP 15.5.1R, SUP 15.5.4R and SUP 15.5.7R by submitting the form in SUP 15 Ann 3R online at www.fsa.gov.uk.
(2) A credit union must submit any notice under SUP 15.5.1R, SUP 15.5.4R and SUP 15.5.7R by submitting the form in SUP 15 Ann 3R in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4R to SUP 15.7.9G (Form and method of notification).
(3) Where a firm is obliged to submit a notice online under (1), if the FSA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, until such time as facilities for online submission are restored, a firm must submit any notice under SUP 15.5.1R, SUP 15.5.4R and SUP 15.5.7R in the form in SUP 15 Ann 3R and in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4R to SUP 15.7.9G (Form and method of notification).

04/10/2010

SUP 15.5.10

(1) If the FSA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FSA will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that online submission is unavailable and that the alternative methods of submission set out in SUP 15.5.9R(3) and SUP 15.7.4R to SUP 15.7.9G (Form and method of notification) should be used.

(2) Where SUP 15.5.9R(3) applies to a firm, GEN 1.3.2 R (Emergency) does not apply.

04/10/2010

SUP 15.6

Inaccurate, false or misleading information

01/12/2004

SUP 15.6.1

A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that all information it gives to the FSA in accordance with a rule in any part of the Handbook (including Principle 11) is:

(1) factually accurate or, in the case of estimates and judgments, fairly and properly based after appropriate enquiries have been made by the firm; and

(2) complete, in that it should include anything of which the FSA would reasonably expect notice.

21/06/2001

SUP 15.6.2

SUP 15.6.1 R applies also in relation to rules outside this chapter, and even if they are not notification rules. Examples of rules and chapters to which SUP 15.6.1 R is relevant, are:

(1) Principle 11, and the guidance on Principle 11 in SUP 2 (Information gathering by the FSA on its own initiative);

(2) SUP 15 (Notifications to the FSA):

(3) SUP 16 (Reporting requirements);

(4) SUP 17 (Transaction reporting);

(5) any notification rule (see Schedule 2 which contains a consolidated summary of such rules);

(6) DISP 1.9 (Complaints record rule); and

(7) DISP 1.10 (Complaints reporting rule).

01/11/2007

SUP 15.6.3

If a firm is unable to obtain the information required in SUP 15.6.1 R(2), then it should inform the FSA that the scope of the information provided is, or may be, limited.

21/06/2001

SUP 15.6.4

If a firm becomes aware, or has information that reasonably suggests that it has or may have provided the FSA with information which was or may have been false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate, or has or may have changed in a material particular, it must notify the FSA immediately. Subject to SUP 15.6.5 R, the notification must include:

(1) details of the information which is or may be false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate, or has or may have changed;

(2) an explanation why such information was or may have been provided; and

(3) the correct information.

21/06/2001

SUP 15.6.5

If the information in SUP 15.6.4 R (3) cannot be submitted with the notification (because it is not immediately available), it must instead be submitted as soon as possible afterwards.

21/06/2001

SUP 15.6.6

The FSA may request the firm to provide revised documentation containing the correct information, if appropriate.

21/06/2001

SUP 15.6.7

Firms are reminded that section 398 of the Act (Misleading the Authority: residual cases) makes it an offence for a firm knowingly or recklessly to provide the FSA with information which is false or misleading in a material particular in purported compliance with the FSA's rules or any other requirement imposed by or under the Act. An offence by a body corporate, partnership or unincorporated association may be attributed to an officer or certain other persons (section 400 of the Act (Offences by bodies corporate etc)).

21/06/2001

SUP 15.7

Form and method of notification

01/12/2004

Form of notification: oral or written

SUP 15.7.1

A notification required from a firm under any notification rule must be given in writing, and in English, and must be submitted on the form specified for that notification rule, or if no form is specified, on the form in SUP 15 Ann 4 R (Notification form), and must give the firm's FSA Firm Reference Number unless:

(1) the notification rulestates otherwise; or

(2) the notification is provided solely in compliance with Principle 11 (see SUP 15.3.7 G).

06/10/2010

SUP 15.7.2

A firm should have regard to the urgency and significance of a matter and, if appropriate, should also notify its usual supervisory contact at the FSA by telephone or by other prompt means of communication, before submitting a written notification. Oral notifications should be given directly to the firm's usual supervisory contact An oral notification left with another person or left on a voicemail or other automatic messaging service is unlikely to have been given appropriately.

01/11/2004

SUP 15.7.3

The FSA is entitled to rely on any information it receives from a firm and to consider any notification received as being made by a person authorised by the firm to do so. A firm should therefore consider whether it needs to put procedures in place to ensure that only appropriate employees make notifications to the FSA on its behalf.

21/06/2001

Method of notification

SUP 15.7.4

Unless stated in the notification rule, or on the relevant form (if specified), a written notification required from a firm under any notification rule must be:

(1) given to or addressed for the attention of the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FSA; and

(2) delivered to the FSA by one of the methods in :

01/11/2004

SUP 15.7.5

Methods of notification

Method of delivery

Post to the appropriate address in SUP 15.7.6 G

Leaving the notification at the appropriate address in SUP 15.7.6 G and obtaining a time-stamped receipt

Electronic mail to an address for the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FSA and obtaining an electronic confirmation of receipt

Hand delivery to the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FSA

Fax to a fax number for the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FSA and receiving a successful transmission report for all pages of the notification.

Online submission via the FSA's website at www.fsa.gov.uk.

01/11/2004

SUP 15.7.6

The current published address of the FSA for postal submission or hand delivery of notifications is:

(1)

The Financial Services Authority

25 The North Colonnade

Canary Wharf

London E14 5HS

if the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FSA is based in London, or

(2)

The Financial Services Authority

Quayside House

127 Fountainbridge

Edinburgh EH3 8DJ

if the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FSA is based in Edinburgh.

21/06/2001

SUP 15.7.7

If the firm or its group is subject to lead supervision arrangements by the FSA, the firm or group may give or address a notice under SUP 15.7.4 R(1) to the supervisory contact at the FSA, designated as lead supervisor, if the firm has chosen to make use of the lead supervisor as a central point of contact (see SUP 1.5).

21/06/2001

SUP 15.7.8

If a firm is a member of a group which includes more than one firm, any one undertaking in the group may notify the FSA on behalf of all firms in the group to which the notification applies. In this way, that undertaking may satisfy the obligation of all relevant firms in the group to notify the FSA. Nevertheless, the obligation to make the notification remains the responsibility of the individual firm itself. See also SUP 15.7.3 G.

21/06/2001

SUP 15.7.9

Firms wishing to communicate with the FSA by electronic mail or fax should obtain the appropriate address or number from the FSA

21/06/2001

Timely notification

SUP 15.7.10

If a notification rule requires notification within a specified period:

(1) the firm must give the notification so as to be received by the FSA no later than the end of that period; and

(2) if the end of that period falls on a day which is not a business day, the notification must be given so as to be received by the FSA no later than the first business day after the end of that period.

21/06/2001

SUP 15.7.11

If a notification rule does not require notification within a specified period, the firm should act reasonably in deciding when to notify.

21/06/2001

Underwriting agents: notification to the Society of Lloyd's

SUP 15.7.12

(1) Paragraph (2) applies in relation to notifications required under this chapter within the scope of any arrangements made by the FSA with the Society of Lloyd's under paragraph 6(2) of Schedule 1 to the Act.

(2) An underwriting agent must submit the notifications in (1) to the Society of Lloyd's rather than to the FSA.

21/06/2001

SUP 15.7.13

Paragraph 6(2) of Schedule 1 to the Act enables the FSA to make arrangements which provide for monitoring functions to be performed by any body or person who, in its opinion, is competent to perform them. Arrangements made under this provision are published by the FSA.

21/06/2001

SUP 15.7.14

The FSA has made arrangements with the Society of Lloyd's with respect to the monitoring of underwriting agents. Underwriting agents should check whether these arrangements provide for any notifications required under this chapter to be sent to the Society instead of to the FSA. [For further details see the FSA website.]

21/06/2001

Consequences of breach of form and method rules

SUP 15.7.15

If a firm fails to comply with the rules in this section then the notification is invalid and there may be a breach of the rule that required the notification to be given.

21/06/2001

Service of Notices Regulations

SUP 15.7.16

The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Service of Notices) Regulations 2001 (SI 2001/1420) contain provisions relating to the service of documents on the FSA. They do not apply to notifications required under notification rules because of the specific rules in this section.

21/06/2001

SUP 15.8

Notification in respect of particular products and services

01/12/2004

Management of occupational pension scheme assets

SUP 15.8.1

A firm which manages the assets of an occupational pension scheme must notify the FSA as soon as reasonably practicable if it receives any request or instruction from a trustee which it:

(1) knows; or

(2) on substantial grounds:

(a) suspects; or

(b) has cause reasonably to suspect;

is at material variance with the trustee's duties.

21/06/2001

Individual Pension Accounts

SUP 15.8.2

If a firm begins or ceases to administer individual pension accounts, it must notify the FSA as soon as reasonably practicable that it has done so.

01/09/2003

Insurers' commission clawback

SUP 15.8.3

(1) An insurer must notify the FSA in respect of any firm (the "intermediary") as soon as reasonably practicable if:

(a) any amount of commission due from the intermediary to the insurer in accordance with an indemnity commission clawback arrangement remains outstanding for four months after the date when the insurer gave notice to the intermediary that the relevant premium had not been paid; or

(b) any amount of commission due from the intermediary to the insurer as a result of either the cancellation of an investment agreement or overpayment of commission remains outstanding for four months after the date on which the insurer gave notice to the intermediary that cancellation or overpayment had occurred.

(2) A notification in (1):

(a) need not be given unless the total amounts outstanding under (1)(a) and (b) in respect of the intermediary exceed £1,000; and

(b) must give the identity of the intermediary and the amount of commission which remains outstanding.

(3) In (1) an "indemnity commission clawback arrangement" is an arrangement under which:

(a) an insurer pays commission to an intermediary before the date on which the premium is due under the relevant investment agreement; and

(b) the insurer requires repayment of the commission, if the investment agreement is terminated by reason of a failure to pay a premium.

21/06/2001

Money service business and trust or company service providers

SUP 15.8.4

(1) In accordance with article 31of the Money Laundering Regulations, with effect from 15 December 2007, a firm is required to notify the FSA:

(a) before it begins or within 28 days of it beginning; and

(b) immediately after it ceases;

to operate a money service business or a trust or company service provider.

(2) The notification referred to in (1) should be made in accordance with the requirements in SUP 15.7 (Form and method of notification)

15/12/2007

SUP 15.8.5

A firm which is already operating a money service business or a trust or company service provideras at 15 December 2007 is required by the Money Laundering Regulations to notify the FSA of that fact and should do so in the manner specified in SUP 15.8.4 G(2) before 15 January 2008.

15/12/2007

Delegation by UCITS management companies

SUP 15.8.6

A UCITS management company must notify the FSA as soon as reasonably practicable if it delegates any of its functions to a third party.

21/06/2001

SUP 15.8.7

A UCITS management company which delegates any of its functions to a third party must, as well as complying with SUP 15.8.6 R, comply with the requirements in COLL 6.6.15 R (2) .

01/04/2009

CTF providers

SUP 15.8.8

(1) If a firm begins or ceases to hold itself out as acting as a CTF provider, it must notify the FSA as soon as reasonably practicable that it has done so.

(2) A firm that acts as a CTF provider must provide the FSA, as soon as reasonably practicable, with details of:

(a) any third party administrator that it engages;

(b) details of whether it intends to offer HMRC allocated CTFs ; and

01/11/2007

SUP 15.8.9

A BIPRU firm must report to the FSA immediately any case in which its counterparty in a repurchase agreement or reverse repurchase agreement or securities or commodities lending or borrowing transaction defaults on its obligations.

01/01/2007

SUP 15.9

Notifications by members of financial conglomerates

01/01/2005

SUP 15.9.1

A firm that is a regulated entity must notify the FSA immediately it becomes aware that any consolidation group of which it is a member:

(1) is a financial conglomerate; or

(2) has ceased to be a financial conglomerate.

01/01/2005

SUP 15.9.2

(1) A firm that is a regulated entity must establish whether or not any consolidation group of which it is a member:

(a) is a financial conglomerate; or

(b) has ceased to be a financial conglomerate;

if:

(d) a reasonable firm that is complying with the requirements of the regulatory system would believe;

that it is likely that (a) or (b) is true.

(2) A firm does not need to determine whether (1)(a) is the case if the consolidation group is already being regulated as a financial conglomerate.

(3) A firm does not need to determine whether (1)(b) is the case if notification has already been given as contemplated by SUP 15.9.4 R.

01/01/2005

SUP 15.9.3

A firm should consider the requirements in SUP 15.9.2 R on a continuing basis, and in particular, when the group prepares its financial statements and on the occurrence of an event affecting the consolidated group. Such events include, but are not limited to, an acquisition, merger or sale.

01/01/2005

SUP 15.9.4

A firm does not have to give notice to the FSA under SUP 15.9.1 R if it or another member of the consolidation group has already given notice of the relevant fact to:

(1) the FSA; or

(2) (if another competent authority is co-ordinator of the financial conglomerate ) that competent authority; or

(3) (in the case of a financial conglomerate that does not yet have a co-ordinator ) the competent authority who would be co-ordinator under Article 10(2) of the Financial Groups Directive (Competent authority responsible for exercising supplementary supervision (the co-ordinator)).

01/01/2005

SUP 15.10

Reporting suspicious transactions (market abuse)

01/07/2005

Application: where

SUP 15.10.1

This section applies in relation to activities carried on from an establishment maintained by the firm or its appointed representative in the United Kingdom. [Note: Article 7 2004/72/EC]

01/07/2005

Notification of suspicious transactions: general

SUP 15.10.2

A firm which arranges or executes a transaction with or for a client in a qualifying investment admitted to trading on a prescribed market and which has reasonable grounds to suspect that the transaction might constitute market abuse must notify the FSA without delay.
[Note: Article 6(9) Market Abuse Directive]

01/07/2005

Notification of suspicious transactions: investment firms and credit institutions

SUP 15.10.3

A firm, that is an investment firm or a credit institution, must decide on a case-by-case basis whether there are reasonable grounds for suspecting that a transaction involves market abuse, taking into account the elements constituting market abuse. [Note: Articles 1(3) and 7 2004/72/EC]

01/07/2005

SUP 15.10.4

(1) Notification of suspicious transactions to the FSA requires sufficient indications (which may not be apparent until after the transaction has taken place) that the transaction might constitute market abuse. In particular a firm will need to be able to explain the basis for its suspicion when notifying the FSA (see SUP 15.10 R). Certain transactions by themselves may seem completely devoid of anything suspicious, but might deliver such indications of possible market abuse, when seen in perspective with other transactions, certain behaviour or other information (though firms are not expected to breach effective information barriers put in place to prevent and avoid conflicts of interest so as actively to seek to detect suspicious transactions). [Note: Recital 9 2004/72/EC]
(2) Assistance in identifying the elements constituting market abuse may be derived from the Code of Market Conduct (MAR 1), and some example indications of market abuse are set out in SUP 15 Ann 5 G. A fuller set of example indications is published by the Committee of European Securities Regulators (CESR).

01/07/2005

Timeframe for notification: investment firms and credit institutions

SUP 15.10.5

If an investment firm or a credit institution becomes aware of a fact or information that gives reasonable ground for suspicion concerning a transaction, it must make its notification under this section without delay. [Note: Article 8 2004/72/EC]

01/07/2005

Content of notification: investment firms and credit institutions

SUP 15.10.6

(1) If an investment firm or a credit institution is obliged to make a notification to the FSA under this section, it must transmit to the FSA the following information:

(a) a description of the transaction, including the type of order (such as limit order, market order or other characteristics of the order) and the type of trading market (such as block trade); and
(b) the reasons for suspicion that the transaction might constitute market abuse.

(2) In addition the following information must be provided to the FSA as soon as it becomes available:

(a) the means for identification of the persons on behalf of whom the transaction has been carried out, and of other persons involved in the relevant transaction;
(b) the capacity in which the firm operates (such as for own account or on behalf of third parties); and
(c) any other information which may have significance in reviewing the suspicious transaction. [Note: Article 9 2004/72/EC]

01/07/2005

Means of notification: investment firms and credit institutions

SUP 15.10.7

An investment firm or a credit institution making a notification to the FSA under this section may do so:

(1) by mail to:
Market Conduct Team
25 The North Colonnade
Canary WharfLondon E14 5HS; or

(2) by electronic mail to market.abuse@fsa.gov.uk;

(3) by facsimile to the Market Conduct Team on 020 7066 1099 ; or

(4) by telephone to the market abuse helpline 020 7066 4900. [Note: Article 10 2004/72/EC]

01/07/2005

SUP 15.10.8

(1) If a notification is made by telephone, the FSA may subsequently request confirmation of the notification in writing. [Note: Article 10 2004/72/EC]

(2) When making a notification in writing it may be convenient to use the form for suspicious transaction reports provided on the FSA's website. This form follows the common standard approved by CESR .

01/07/2005

Liability and professional secrecy: investment firms and credit institutions

SUP 15.10.9

(1) An investment firm or a credit institution which notifies the FSA under this section must not inform any other person, in particular the persons on behalf of whom the transaction has been carried out or parties related to those persons, of this notification, except in accordance with an obligation imposed by or under statute.

(2) Notwithstanding any other provision of the Handbook a notification in good faith under this section to the FSA does not constitute a breach of any restriction on disclosure of information imposed by the Handbook. [Note: Article 11 2004/72/EC]

Note: Section 131A of the Act sets out additional protections from liability for a person who makes a notification to the FSA under this section (or who passes the relevant information to someone designated by his employer to do so).

01/07/2005

SUP 15 Annex 1

Application of SUP 15 to incoming EEA firms and incoming Treaty firms

01/12/2004

1 .

SUP 15 applies in full to an incoming EEA firm, or incoming Treaty firm , which has a top-up permission.

2 .

SUP 15 does not apply to an incoming EEA firm which has permission for cross border services only and which does not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom.

SUP 15 does not apply to an EEA pure reinsurer which does not have a top-up permission.

3 .

For any other incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm, SUP 15 applies as set out in the following table.

Applicable sections

Application

SUP 15.1, SUP 15.2

Application, Purpose

Apply in full

SUP 15.3.1 R to SUP 15.3.6 G

Matters having a serious regulatory impact

SUP 15.3.1 R does not apply, otherwise apply in full

SUP 15.3.7 G to SUP 15.3.10 G

Communication with the FSA in accordance with Principle 11

Apply in so far as responsibility for the matter in question is not reserved by an EU instrument to the firm's Home State regulator

SUP 15.3.1 R to SUP 15.3.14 G

Breaches of rules and other requirements in or under the Act

Apply in full

SUP 15.3.1 R to SUP 15.3.16 G

Civil, criminal or disciplinary proceedings against a firm

Apply in so far as responsibility for the matter in question is not reserved by an EU instrument to the firm's Home State regulator

SUP 15.3.1 R to SUP 15.3.20 G

Fraud, errors and other irregularities

Apply in so far as responsibility for the matter in question is not reserved by an EU instrument to the firm's Home State regulator

SUP 15.3.2 G

Insolvency, bankruptcy and winding up

Apply in so far as responsibility for the matter in question is not reserved by an EU instrument to the firm's Home State regulator

SUP 15

Notified persons

Does not apply

SUP 15.5.1 R to SUP 15.5.3 G

Change in name

Apply in full

SUP 15.5.4 R

Change in address: principal place of business in the UK

Applies in full

SUP 15.5.4 R (2)

Change in address: registered office

Applies to an incoming Treaty firm . Does not apply to an incoming EEA firm, but see SUP 14 (Incoming EEA firms: changing authorisation and cancelling qualification for authorisation).

SUP 15.5.5 R to SUP 15.5.6 G

Change in legal status

Do not apply

SUP 15.5.7 R and SUP 15.5.8 G

Other regulators

Apply in so far as responsibility for the matter in question is not reserved by an EU instrument to the firm's Home State regulator

SUP 15.6

Inaccurate, false or misleading information

Applies in full

SUP 15.7

Form and method of notification

Applies in full

SUP 15.8

Notifications in respect of particular products and services

Applies in full

SUP 15.10

Reporting suspicious transactions (market abuse)

Applies in relation to activities carried on from an establishment maintained by the firm or its appointed representative in the United Kingdom. [Note: Article 7 2004/72/EC]

01/12/2009

SUP 15 Ann 2

Form F: Changes in notified persons

04/10/2010

This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms can be completed online now by visiting: http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/doing/index.shtml

The forms are also to be found through the following address:

Supervision forms - SUP 15 Annex 2

04/10/2010

SUP 15 Ann 3

Standing data form

01/12/2004

04/10/2010

SUP 15 Ann 4

Notification form

01/12/2004

This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:

Notifications Form - SUP 15 Annex 4

21/06/2001

SUP 15 Ann 5

Indications of Possible Suspicious Transactions

01/07/2005

The following examples of indications are intended to be a starting point for consideration of whether a transaction is suspicious. They are neither conclusive nor comprehensive.

Possible Signals of Insider Dealing

A client opens an account and immediately gives an order to conduct a significant transaction or, in the case of a wholesale client, an unexpectedly large or unusual order, in a particular security - especially if the client is insistent that the order is carried out very urgently or must be conducted before a particular time specified by the client.

A transaction is significantly out of line with the client's previous investment behaviour (e.g. type of security; amount invested; size of order; time security held).

A client specifically requests immediate execution of an order regardless of the price at which the order would be executed (assuming more than a mere placing of 'at market' order by the client).

There is unusual trading in the shares of a company before the announcement of price sensitive information relating to the company.

An employee's own account transaction is timed just before clients' transactions and related orders in the same financial instrument.

Possible signals of Market Manipulation

An order will, because of its size in relation to the market in that security, clearly have a significant impact on the supply of or demand for or the price or value of the security, especially an order of this kind to be executed near to a reference point during the trading day - e.g. near the close.

A transaction appears to be seeking to modify the valuation of a position while not decreasing/increasing the size of that position.

A transaction appears to be seeking to bypass the trading safeguards of the market (e.g. as regards volume limits; bid/offer spread parameters; etc).

01/07/2005

SUP 16

Reporting requirements

SUP 16.1

Application

01/12/2004

SUP 16.1.1

This chapter applies to every firmwithin a category listed in column (2) of the table in SUP 16.1.3 R and in accordance with column (3) of that table.

21/06/2001

SUP 16.1.1A

The directions and guidance in SUP 16.13 apply to an authorised payment institution and a small payment institution.

23/07/2010

SUP 16.1.2

The only categories of firm to which no section of this chapter applies are:

(1) an ICVC;
(2) an incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm, unless it is:

(a) a firm of a type listed in SUP 16.1.3 R as a type of firm to which SUP 16.6, SUP 16.7 , SUP 16.9 or SUP 16.12 applies; or
(b) an insurer with permission to effect or carry out life policies;
(c) a firm with permission to establish, operate or wind up a personal pension scheme or a stakeholder pension scheme;

(3) a UCITS qualifier.

01/01/2008

SUP 16.1.3

Application of different sections of SUP 16

(1) Section(s)

(2) Categories of firm to which section applies

(3) Applicable rules and guidance

SUP 16.1 , SUP 16.2 and SUP 16.3

All categories of firm except:

Entire sections

(a)

an ICVC;

(b)

an incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm , which is not:

(i)

a firm of a type to which SUP 16.6 or SUP 16.12 applies; or

(ii)

an insurer with permission to effect or carry out life policies; or

(iii)

a firm with permission to establish, operate or wind up a personal pension scheme or a stakeholder pension scheme;

(c)

a UCITS qualifier.

SUP 16.4 and SUP 16.5

All categories of firm except:

Entire sections

(-a)

a credit union;

(a)

an ICVC;

(b)

an incoming EEA firm;

(c)

an incoming Treaty firm;

(d)

a non-directive friendly society;

(e)

[deleted]

(f)

a sole trader;

(g)

a service company;

(h)

a UCITS qualifier ;

(i)

a firm with permission to carry on only retail investment activities;

(j)

a firm with permission to carry on only insurance mediation activity , home finance mediation activity, or both;

(k)

a firm falling within both (i) and (j)

SUP 16.6

Bank , ELMI

SUP 16.6.4 R to SUP 16.6.5 R

Depositary of an ICVC

SUP 16.6.6 R to SUP 16.6.9 G

OPS firm

SUP 16.6.6 R to SUP 16.6.8 R

Trustee of an AUT

SUP 16.6.6 R to SUP 16.6.9 G

SUP 16.7

Bank , other than an EEA bank with permission for cross border services only.

SUP 16.7.7 R to SUP 16.7.15 R

Building society

SUP 16.7.16 R to SUP 16.7.19 R

Service company

SUP 16.7.20 R to SUP 16.7.21 R

UK ISPV

SUP 16.7.21A R and SUP 16.7.21B R

Securities and futures firm (other than an oil market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply)

SUP 16.7.22 R to SUP 16.7.34 G

Investment management firm

SUP 16.7.35 R to SUP 16.7.41 R

Authorised professional firm (note)

SUP 16.7.54 R and SUP 16.7.54A R

Society of Lloyd's

SUP 16.7.55 R to SUP 16.7.56 R and SUP 16.7.59 R (1) and SUP 16.7.59 R (2)

Members' adviser

SUP 16.7.57 R to SUP 16.7.58 R , SUP 16.7.59 R (3) , SUP 16.7.60 G and SUP 16.7.61 G

Credit Union

SUP 16.7.62 R to SUP 16.7.63 R

ELMI

SUP 16.7.64 R to SUP 16.7.66 R

UCITS management company

SUP 16.7.67 R to SUP 16.7.72 R

Member of a financial conglomerate

SUP 16.7.82 R to SUP 16.7.83 R

Insurer Friendly society

SUP 16.7.73 R to SUP 16.7.75 R

A firm not subject to other reporting requirements in SUP 16.7.1 G - SUP 16.7.75 R (nor to reporting requirements in IPRU(INS) or IPRU(FSOC)):

SUP 16.7.76 R to SUP 16.7.81 G

(1)

with permission to carry on one or more of:

(a)

insurance mediation activity ; or

(b)

home finance mediation activity; or

(c)

home finance providing activity; or

(d)

administering a home finance transaction; or

(2)

which is a personal investment firm

SUP 16.8

Insurer with permission to effect or carry out life policies , unless it is a non-directive friendly society

Entire section

Firm with permission to establish, operate or wind up a personal pension scheme or a stakeholder pension scheme

Entire section

SUP 16.9

Firm with permission to advise on investments ; arrange (bring about) deals in investments ; make arrangements with a view to transactions in investments ; or arrange safeguarding and administration of assets

Entire section

SUP 16.10

All categories of firm except:

Entire section

(a)

an ICVC ;

(b)

a UCITS qualifier ;

(c)

a credit union ; and

(d)

a dormant account fund operator.

SUP 16.11

A firm , other than a managing agent , which is:

Entire section

(1)

a home finance provider; or

(2)

an insurer ; or

(3)

the operator of a regulated collective investment scheme or an investment trust savings scheme ; or

(4)

a person who issues or manages the relevant assets of the issuer of a structured capital-at-risk product .

SUP 16.12

A firm undertaking the regulated activities as listed in SUP 16.12.4 R, unless exempted in SUP 16.12.1 G

Sections as relevant to regulated activities as listed in SUP 16.12.4 R

Note = Where an authorised professional firm is required by IPRU(INV) 2.1.2R(1) to comply with chapter 3, 5, 10 or 13 of IPRU(INV), section SUP 16.7 applies to such a firm as if it were the relevant firm category in the right hand column of IPRU(INV) 2.1R.

06/08/2009

SUP 16.1.4

(1) This chapter contains requirements to report to the FSA on a regular basis. These requirements include reports relating to a firm's financial condition, and to its compliance with other rules and requirements which apply to the firm. Where the relevant requirements are set out in another section of the Handbook, this chapter contains cross references. An example of this is financial reporting for insurers and friendly societies.

(2) Where such requirements already apply to a firm under legislation other than the Act, they are not referred to in this chapter. An example of this is reporting to the FSA by building societies under those parts of the Building Societies Act 1986 which have not been repealed.

(3) Requirements for individual firms reflect:

(a) the category of firm;

(b) the nature of business carried on;

(c) whether a firm has its registered office (or if it does not have a registered office, its head office) in the United Kingdom;

(d) whether a firm is an incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm; and

(e) the regulated activities the firm undertakes.

02/01/2008

SUP 16.2

Purpose

01/12/2004

SUP 16.2.1

(1) In order to discharge its functions under the Act, the FSA needs timely and accurate information about firms. The provision of this information on a regular basis enables the FSA to build up over time a picture of firms' circumstances and behaviour.

(2) Principle 11 requires a firm to deal with its regulators in an open and cooperative way, and to tell the FSA appropriately anythingof which the FSA would reasonably expect notice. The reporting requirements are part of the FSA's approach to amplifying Principle 11 by setting out in more detail the information that the FSA requires. They supplement the provisions of SUP 2 (Information gathering by the FSAon its own initiative) and SUP 15 (Notifications to the FSA). The reports required under these rules help the FSA to monitor firms' compliance with Principles governing relationships between firms and their customers, with Principle 4, which requires firms to maintain adequate financial resources, and with other requirements and standards under the regulatory system.

21/06/2001

SUP 16.3

General provisions on reporting

01/12/2004

Application

SUP 16.3.1

The effect of SUP 16.1.1 R is that this section applies to every firm except:

(1) an ICVC;
(2) an incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm, which is not:

(a) a firm of a type listed in SUP 16.1.3 R as a firm to which section SUP 16.6, SUP 16.7 or SUP 16.12 applies;
(b) an insurer with permission to effect or carry out life policies;

(3) a UCITS qualifier.

01/01/2008

Structure of the chapter

SUP 16.3.2

This chapter has been split into the following sections, covering:

(1) annual controllers reports (SUP 16.4);

(2) annual close links reports (SUP 16.5);

(3) compliance reports (SUP 16.6);

(4) financial reports (SUP 16.7);

(5) persistency reports (SUP 16.8);

(6) annual appointed representatives reports (SUP 16.9);

(7) Verification of standing data (SUP 16.10);

(8) product sales data reporting (SUP 16.11);

(9) integrated regulatory reporting (SUP 16.12); and

(10) reporting under the Payment Services Regulations.

31/12/2010

SUP 16.3.3

The annual controllers, annual close links, persistency and annual appointed representatives reports sections are the same for all categories of firm to which they apply.

30/09/2003

SUP 16.3.4

The compliance section isset out by category of firm, with detailed requirements set out in tables giving:

(1) a brief description of each report;

(2) the frequency with which the report is required; and

(3) the due date for submission of the report.

01/01/2008

SUP 16.3.5

Further requirements about the reports, such as form and content, are set out in the sections for each category of firm, where this is appropriate. In many cases, however, it is more appropriate to provide this information by means of a separate annex; in these cases the relevant section refers to the annex.

21/06/2001

How to submit reports

SUP 16.3.6

A periodic report required to be submitted under this chapter, or under any other rule, must be submitted in writing in accordance with SUP 16.3.7 R to SUP 16.3.10 G, unless:

(1) a contrary intention appears; or

(2) the report is required under the listing rules.

18/04/2002

SUP 16.3.7

A report or data item must:

(1) give the firm's FSA firm reference number (or all the firms' FSA firm reference numbers in those cases where a report is submitted on behalf of a number of firms,as set out in SUP 16.3.25 G); and

(2) if submitted in paper form, be submitted with the cover sheet contained in SUP 16 Annex 13 fully completed.

01/01/2007

SUP 16.3.8

A written report must be:

(1) given to or addressed for the attention of the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FSA; and

(2) delivered to the FSA by one of the methods listed in SUP 16.3.9 R.

21/06/2001

SUP 16.3.9

Method of submission of reports (see SUP 16.3.8 R)

Method of delivery

Post to the published address of the FSA for postal submission of reports

Leaving the report at the published address of the FSA for hand delivery of reports and obtaining a dated receipt

Electronic mail to an address for the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FSA and obtaining an electronic confirmation of receipt

Hand delivery to the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FSA and obtaining a dated receipt

Fax to the number notified by the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FSA, and receiving a successful transmission report for all pages of the report.

Online submission via the FSA's website at www.fsa.gov.uk

Electronic submission via the Early Reporting System available from or through the FSA's website.

01/01/2007

SUP 16.3.10

(1) The current published address of the FSA for postal submission of reports is:

The Financial ServicesAuthority

PO BOX 35747

London E14 5WP

(2) The current published address of the FSA for hand delivery of reports is:

(a)

The Financial ServicesAuthority

25 The North Colonnade

Canary Wharf

London E14 5HS

if the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FSA is based in London, or:

(b)

The Financial ServicesAuthority

Quayside House

127 Fountainbridge

Edinburgh EH3 8DJ

if the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FSA is based in Edinburgh.

25/07/2005

Complete reporting

SUP 16.3.11

A firm must submit reports required under this chapter to the FSA containing all the information required.

21/06/2001

SUP 16.3.12

SUP 15.6 refers to and contains requirements regarding the steps that firms must take to ensure that information provided to the FSA is accurate and complete. Those requirements apply to reports required to be submitted under this chapter.

21/06/2001

Timely reporting

SUP 16.3.13

(1) A firm must submit a report required by this chapter in the frequency, and so as to be received by the FSA no later than the due date, specified for that report.

(2) If the due date for submission of a report required by this chapter falls on a day which is not a business day, the report must be submitted so as to be received by the FSA no later than the first business day after the due date.

(3) If the due date for submission of a report required by this chapter is a set period of time after the quarter end, the quarter ends will be the following dates, unless another rule or the reporting form states otherwise:

(a) the firm's accounting reference date;

(b) 3 months after the firm's accounting reference date;

(d) 9 months after the firm's accounting reference date.

(4) If the due date for submission of a report required by this chapter is a set period of time after the end of a half-year, a quarter, or a month, the dates will be determined by (a) or (b) below except where otherwise indicated:

(a) the firm's accounting reference date;

(b) monthly, 3 monthly or 6 months after the firm's accounting reference date, as the case may be.

01/04/2005

Failure to submit reports

SUP 16.3.14

(1) If a firm does not submit a complete report by the date on which it is due in accordance with the rules in, or referred to in, this chapter or the provisions of relevant legislation and any prescribed submission procedures, the firm must pay an administrative fee of £250.

(2) The administrative fee in (1) does not apply in respect of quarterly reports required to be submitted by credit unions whose liability to pay a periodic fee under FEES 4.2.1 R in respect of the A.1 activity group in FEES 4 Annex 1R , for the financial year prior to the due date for submission of the report, was limited to the payment of the minimum fee.

01/06/2006

SUP 16.3.14A

Failure to submit a report in accordance with the rules in, or referred to in, this chapter or the provisions of relevant legislation may also lead to the imposition of a financial penalty and other disciplinary sanctions (see DEPP 6.6.1 G-DEPP 6.6.5 G). A firm may be subject to reporting requirements under relevant legislation other than the Act, not referred to in this chapter. An example of this is reporting to the FSA by building societies under those parts of the Building Societies Act 1986 which have not been repealed (see SUP 16.1.4 G). If it appears to the FSA that, in the exceptional circumstances of a particular case, the payment of any fee would be inequitable, the FSA may reduce or remit all or part of the fee in question which would otherwise be payable (see FEES 2.3).

28/08/2007

SUP 16.3.15

The FSA may from time to time send reminders to firms when reports are overdue. Firms should not, however, assume that the FSA has received a report merely because they have not received a reminder.

21/06/2001

SUP 16.3.16

The firm is responsible for ensuring delivery of the required report at the FSA's offices by the due date. If a report is received by the FSA after the due date and the firm believes its delivery arrangements were adequate, it may be required to provide proof of those arrangements. Examples of such proof would be:

(1) "proof of posting" receipts from a UK post office or overseas equivalent which demonstrates that the report was posted early enough to allow delivery by the due date in accordance with the delivery service standards prescribed by the relevant postal authority; or

(2) recorded postal delivery receipts showing delivery on the required day; or

(3) records of a courier service provider showing delivery on the required day.

21/06/2001

Change of accounting reference date

SUP 16.3.17

(1) A firm must notify the FSA if it changes its accounting reference date.

(2) When a firm extends its accounting period, it must make the notification in (1) before the previous accounting reference date.

(3) When a firm shortens its accounting period, it must make the notification in (1) before the new accounting reference date.

(4) SUP 16.10.4A R to SUP 16.10.4C G (Method of reporting Requirement to check the accuracy of standing data and to report changes to the FSA changes in standing data) apply to any notification made under (1).

04/10/2010

SUP 16.3.18

SUP 16.2.1 G emphasises the importance to the FSA of timely and accurate information. The extension of a firm's accounting period to more than 15 months may hinder the timely provision of relevant and important information to the FSA . This is because many due dates for reporting to the FSA are linked to firms'accounting reference dates. Indeed, for some categories of firm, the only reports required by the FSA have due dates for submission which are linked to the firm's accounting reference date.If the extension of a firm's accounting period appears likely to impair the effectiveness of the FSA's supervisory work, the FSA may take action to ensure that it continues to receive the information it requires on a timely basis. This may include the use of any of the tools of supervision set out in SUP 1.4.5 G.

21/06/2001

SUP 16.3.19

If more than one firm in a group intends to change its accounting reference date at the same time, a single notification may be given to the FSA , as described in SUP 15.7.8 G.

21/06/2001

Underwriting agents: submission to the Society of Lloyd's

SUP 16.3.20

(1) Paragraph (2) applies in relation to reports required under this chapter within the scope of any arrangements made by the FSA with the Society of Lloyd's under paragraph 6(2) of Schedule 1 to the Act.

(2) An underwriting agent must submit the reports in (1) to the Society of Lloyd's rather than to the FSA.

21/06/2001

SUP 16.3.21

See SUP 15.7.13 G and SUP 15.7.14 G for guidance on arrangements in SUP 16.3.20 R.

21/06/2001

Service of Notices Regulations

SUP 16.3.22

The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Service of Notices) Regulations 2001 (SI 2001/1420) contain provisions relating to the service of documents on the FSA . They do not apply to reports required under SUP 16, because of the specific rules in this section.

21/06/2001

Confidentiality and sharing of information

SUP 16.3.23

When the FSA receives a report which contains confidential information and whose submission is required under this chapter, it is obliged under Part XXIIIof the Act (Public Record, Disclosure of Information and Co-operation) to treat that information as confidential. (See SUP 2.2.4 G)

21/06/2001

SUP 16.3.24

SUP 2.3.12 G states that the FSA may pass to other regulators information which it has in its possession. Such information includes information contained in reports submitted under this chapter. The FSA's disclosure of information to other regulators is subject to SUP 2.2.4 G(Confidentiality of information).

21/06/2001

Reports from groups

SUP 16.3.25

If this chapter requires the submission of a report or data item covering a group, a single report or data item may be submitted, and so satisfy the requirements of all firms in the group. Such a report or data item should contain the information required from all of them, meet all relevant due dates and indicate all the firms on whose behalf it is submitted; if necessary a separate covering sheet should list the firms on whose behalf a report or data item is submitted. Nevertheless, the requirement to provide a report or data item, and the responsibility for the report or data item, remains with each firm in the group. However, reporting requirements that apply to a firm, by reason of the firm being a member of a financial conglomerate, are imposed on only one member of the financial conglomerate (see, for example, SUP 16.12.32 R ).

01/01/2008

SUP 16.3.26

Examples of reports covering a group are:

(1) the compliance reports required from banks under SUP 16.6.4 R;

(2) annual controllers reports required under SUP 16.5.4 R ;

(3) annual close links reports required under SUP 16.5.4 R

(4) consolidated financial reports required from banks under SUP 16.7.7 R;

(5) consolidated reporting statements required from securities and futures firms under SUP 16.7.24 R;

(6) reporting in relation to defined liquidity groups under SUP 16.12.

01/12/2009

SUP 16.4

Annual controllers report

01/12/2004

Application

SUP 16.4.1

This section applies to every firm except those firms excluded from its operation by SUP 16.1.1 R and SUP 16.1.3 R.

01/12/2004

SUP 16.4.2

This section may be of relevance to a directive friendly society:

(1) if it has 10 members or less;

(2) if it has a delegate voting system and has 10 delegates or less; or

(3) if it has 20 members or less and effects or carries out group insurance contracts where one person may exercise one vote on behalf of the members of a group and one vote in their private capacity; or

where a member or delegate, whether alone or acting in concert, is entitled to exercise, or control the exercise of, 10% or more of the total voting power.

28/03/2009

SUP 16.4.2A

This section may be of relevance to non-directive firms.

28/03/2009

SUP 16.4.3

Requirements for notifications of a change in control can be found in SUP 11 (Controllers and close links).

21/06/2001

Purpose

SUP 16.4.4

A firm and its controllers are required to notify certain changes in control (see SUP 11 (Controllers and close links)). The purpose of the rules and guidance in this section is:

(1) to ensure that, in addition to such notifications, the FSA receives regular and comprehensive information about the identities of all of the controllers of a firm, which is relevant to a firm's continuing to satisfy the threshold conditions (see COND 2.3);

(2) to implement certain requirements relating to annual reporting of controllers which must be imposed on firms under the Investment Services Directive, the Banking Consolidation Directive, the Consolidated Life Directive and the Third Non-Life Directive; and

(3) to support the FSA's functions under Part XIIof the Act (Notices of acquisitions of control over UK authorised persons) (see SUP 11 (Controllers and close links)).

28/03/2009

Reporting requirement

SUP 16.4.5

(1) A firm must submit a report to the FSA annually, containing the information in (3) or (4) (as applicable).

(2) A firm must submit the report in (1) to the FSA within four months of the firm's accounting reference date.

(3) If a firm is not aware:

(a) that it has any controllers; or

(b) of any changes in the identity of its controllers since the submission of its previous report under (1); or

(c) of any changes in the percentage of shares or voting power in the firm held by any controllers (alone or acting in concert) since the submission of its previous report;

then the report in (1) must confirm this.

(4) Unless (3) applies, the report in (1) must contain a list of all the controllers as at the firm's accounting reference date of which it is aware and, for each such controller, state:

(a) its name;

(b) the percentage of voting power in the firm, or in the firm's parent undertaking, which it is entitled to exercise or control the exercise of, whether alone or acting in concert;

(c) the percentage of shares in the firm, or in the firm's parent undertaking, which it holds, whether alone or acting in concert;

(d) if the controller is a body corporate, its country of incorporation, address and registered number; and

(e) if the controller is an individual, his date and place of birth.

(4A) A firm that is a regulated entity must include in its report to the FSA under (1) whether any consolidation group of which it is a member is a third-country banking and investment group.

(4B) A firm does not have to give notice to the FSA under (4A) if it, or another member of the third-country banking and investment group, has already given notice to the FSA of the relevant fact.

(5) [deleted]

28/03/2009

SUP 16.4.6

The information required by SUP 16.4.5 R(4) may be provided in the form of a group organisation chart.

21/06/2001

SUP 16.4.7

If a group includes more than one firm, a single annual controllers report may be submitted, and so satisfy the requirements of all firms in the group. Such a report should contain the information required from all of them, meet all relevant due dates, indicate all the firms on whose behalf it is submitted and give their FSA firm reference numbers. Nevertheless, the requirement to provide a report, and the responsibility for the report, remain with each firm in the group.

21/06/2001

SUP 16.4.8

A firm may submit a single report satisfying the requirements of its annual controllers report (SUP 16.4.5 R) and its annual close links report (SUP 16.5.4 R). Such a report should contain the information required on both controllers and close links.

21/06/2001

SUP 16.4.9

Firms are reminded of the requirement in SUP 11.4.10 R to take reasonable steps to keep themselves informed about the identity of their controllers.

21/06/2001

Exceptions: friendly societies and building societies

SUP 16.4.10

If a firm is a friendly society or a building society, then it is required to submit a report under SUP 16.4.5 R only if it is aware that it has a controller.

01/03/2003

SUP 16.4.11

In SUP 16.4.5 R and SUP 16.4.10 R, a building society may regard a person as not being a controller if that person is exempt from the obligation to notify a change in control under The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Controllers) (Exemption) Order 2009 (SI 2009/774) (see SUP 11.3.2A G (2)).

28/03/2009

Exception: insurers

SUP 16.4.12

An insurer need not submit a report under SUP 16.4.5 R to the extent that the information has already been provided to the FSA under IPRU(INS) 9.30R (Additional information on controllers).

01/03/2003

SUP 16.5

Annual Close Links Reports

01/12/2004

Application

SUP 16.5.1

This section applies to every firmlisted in SUP 11.1.1 R (1) to SUP 11.1.1 R (6), except those firms excluded from its operation by SUP 16.1.1 R and SUP 16.1.3 R or which have elected to report on a monthly basis in accordance with SUP 11.9.5 R.

01/06/2010

Purpose

SUP 16.5.2

A firm is required to notify the FSA of changes to its close links (see SUP 11.9). Threshold condition 3 (Close links) provides that, if a firm has close links with another person, the FSA must be satisfied that:

(1) those close links are not likely to prevent the FSA's effective supervision of the firm; and

(2) where it appears to the FSA that the person is subject to the laws, regulations or administrative provisions of a territory which is not an EEA State, neither the foreign provisions, nor any deficiency in their enforcement, would prevent the FSA's effective supervision of the firm.

21/06/2001

SUP 16.5.3

The purposes of the rules and guidance in this section are:

(1) to ensure that, in addition to such notifications, the FSA receives regular and comprehensive information about the identities of all persons with whom a firm has close links, which is relevant to a firm's continuing to satisfy the threshold condition 3 (Close links) (see SUP 2.3) and to the protection of consumers; and

(2) to implement certain requirements relating to the provision of information on close links which must be imposed on firms under the 'Post-BCCI Directive'.

21/06/2001

Report

SUP 16.5.4

(1) A firm must submit a report to the FSA annually by completing the Close Links Notification Form (see SUP 11.9.3 AG) and must include the information in (3) or (4) (as applicable) and (5).

(2) A firm must submit the report in (1) to the FSA within four months of the firm's accounting reference date.

(3) If a firm is not aware:

(a) that it has any close links; or

(b) of any material changes to the details in (4) (a) to (c) in respect of its close links since the submission of its previous report under (1);

then the report in (1) must confirm this.

(4) Unless (3) applies, the report in (1) must contain a list of all persons with whom the firm has close links as at the firm's accounting reference date of which it is aware, and for each such person state:

(a) its name;

(b) the nature of the close links;

(d) if the close link is with an individual, his date and place of birth.

(5) The firm must also submit a group organisation chart.

01/06/2010

SUP 16.5.6

If a group includes more than one firm, a single annual close links report may be submitted and so satisfy the requirements of all firms in the group. Such a report should contain the information required from all of them, meet all relevant due dates, indicate all the firms on whose behalf it is submitted and give their FSAfirm reference numbers. Nevertheless, the requirement to provide a report, and the responsibility for the report, remain with each firm in the group.

21/06/2001

SUP 16.5.7

21/06/2001

SUP 16.5.8

If a firm is an unincorporated friendly society, then it is only required to submit a report under SUP 16.5.4 R if it is aware that it has close links.

21/06/2001

SUP 16.6

Compliance reports

01/12/2004

Application

SUP 16.6.1

The effect of SUP 16.1.1 R is that this section applies to every firm within a category listed in the left hand column of the table in SUP 16.6.2 G.

21/06/2001

SUP 16.6.1A

The directions and guidance in SUP 16.13 apply to an authorised payment institution and a small payment institution.

23/07/2010

SUP 16.6.2

Applicable provisions of this section (see SUP 16.6.1 G)

Category of firm

Applicable provisions

Bank , ELMI

SUP 16.6.4 R - SUP 16.6.5 R

Trustee of an AUT
Depositary of an ICVC

SUP 16.6.6 R - SUP 16.6.9 G

OPS firm

SUP 16.6.6 R - SUP 16.6.8 R

21/06/2001

Purpose

SUP 16.6.3

The FSA performs part of its supervision work by reviewing and analysing information about firms' records of compliance with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system. The type of report the FSA requires will vary, depending on the type of business a firm undertakes. The requirements in SUP 16.6 represent an interim approach to compliance reporting, based mainly on the reporting requirements, which previous regulators applied to firms. This information helps the FSA to determine whether a firm is complying with the requirements applicable to its business, and what procedures it is operating to ensure its compliance.

21/06/2001

Banks

SUP 16.6.4

A bank and an ELMI must submit compliance reports to the FSA in accordance with SUP 16.6.5 R.

21/06/2001

SUP 16.6.5

Compliance reports from a bank and an ELMI (see SUP 16.6.4 R)

Report

Frequency

Due date

List of all overseas regulators for each legal entity in the firm's group

Annually

6 months after the firm's accounting reference date

Organogram showing the authorised entities in the firm's group

Annually

6 months after the firm's accounting reference date

21/06/2001

Trustees of authorised unit trust schemes, depositaries of ICVCs, and OPS firms

SUP 16.6.6

A firm within a category listed in the left-hand column of SUP 16.6.7 R must submit compliance reports in accordance with SUP 16.6.7 R.

21/06/2001

SUP 16.6.7

Compliance reports from trustees of AUTs, depositaries of ICVCs, and OPS firms (see SUP 16.6.6 R)

Report

Frequency

Due date

Report from a trustee of an AUT on manager's failures as set out in SUP 16.6.8 R (1)

Quarterly

1 month after quarter end (Note)

Report from a depositary of an ICVC on failures by the authorised corporate director as set out in SUP 16.6.8 R (2)

Quarterly

1 month after quarter end (Note)

OPS firms only:
Annual accounts of each occupational pension scheme in respect of which the firm is acting

Annually

7 months after end of the scheme year

OPS firms only:
Audited annual accounts of each OPS collective investment scheme in respect of which the firm is acting

Annually

7 months after end of the scheme year

Note = The quarter ends are 31 March, 30 June, 30 September, 31 December.

21/06/2001

SUP 16.6.8

(1) The report from a trustee of an AUT to the FSA must state, in relation to the manager of each AUT for which it is a trustee, the number of times during the quarter in which facts came to the firm's knowledge from which it appeared, or might have appeared, that the manager had failed (materially or otherwise) to:

(a) give correct instructions to the trustee to create or cancel units in the AUT when the manager should have done so, and the error:

(i) resulted in the creation of too few units or in the cancellation of too many units; and

(ii) was not corrected in accordance with the FSA's guidance as set out in COLL 6.2.12 G;

(b) price units in the AUT in accordance with COLL 6.3 where the pricing error was:

(i) greater than 0.5% of the price of a unit; or

(ii) less than 0.5% of the price of a unit, and the trustee did not consider the manager's controls to be adequate;

unless the failure was an isolated incident.

(2) The report from a depositary of an ICVC to the FSA must state, in relation to the authorised corporate director of each ICVC for which the firm is a depositary, the number of times during the quarter in which facts came to the firm's knowledge from which it appeared, or might have appeared, that the authorised corporate director had failed (materially or otherwise) to:

(a) arrange for the issue or cancellation of shares in the ICVC when the authorised corporate director should have done so, and the error:

(i) resulted in the creation of too few shares or in the cancellation of too many shares; and

(ii) was not corrected in accordance with the FSA's guidance as set out in COLL 6.2.12 G;

(b) price shares in the ICVC in accordance with the provisions of COLL 6.3 , where the pricing error was:

(i) greater than 0.5% of the price of a share; or

(ii) less than 0.5% of the price of a share, and the depositary did not consider the authorised corporate director's controls to be adequate;

unless the failure was an isolated incident.

(3) An OPS firm must notify the FSA of any change in the date of commencement of the scheme year of an OPS or OPS collective investment scheme, in respect of which the firm is acting, not less than 15 business days before the date on which such a change is to become effective.

01/04/2009

SUP 16.6.9

SUP 16 Annex 12 provides guidance on the completion of the report from a trustee of an AUT on a manager's failures as set out in SUP 16.6.8 R(1), and the report from a depositary of an ICVC on failures by the authorised corporate director as set out in SUP 16.6.8 R(2). This guidance includes suggested formats for the submission of the reports.

21/06/2001

SUP 16.8

Persistency reports from insurers and data reports on stakeholder pensions

01/12/2004

Application

SUP 16.8.1

The effect of SUP 16.1.1 R is that this section applies to:

(1) every insurer with permission to effect or carry out life policies, unless it is a non-directive friendly society; and

(2) every firm with permission to establish, operate or wind up a stakeholder pension scheme.

21/06/2001

Purpose

SUP 16.8.2

The purpose of this section is to enable information on the persistency of life policies and data on stakeholder pensions to be prepared and provided to the FSA in a standard format. This information is used in the monitoring of firms both individually and collectively.

21/06/2001

Requirement to submit persistency and data reports

SUP 16.8.3

(1) An insurer with permission to effect or carry out life policies must submit to the FSA a persistency report in respect of life policies by 30 April each year in accordance with this section.

(2) A firm with permission to establish, operate or wind up a stakeholder pension scheme must submit to the FSA :

(a) a data report on stakeholder pensions by 30 April each year prepared in accordance with this section; and

(b) two extra data reports on stakeholder pensions prepared in accordance with this section as follows:

(i) by 31 October 2002, of the number effected in the period to 30 June 2001 and the number of those still in force 12 months after the contract was effected;

(ii) by 31 January 2003, of the number effected in the period 1 July 2001 to 30 September 2001 and the number of those still in force 12 months after the contract was effected.

21/06/2001

Interpretation of this section

SUP 16.8.4

In this section, and Forms 1R(2) to (4) in SUP 16 Annex 6R:

(1) '12 month report' means the part of a persistency report or data report reporting on life policies or stakeholder pensions effected in Y-2, '24 month report' means the part of a persistency report or data report reporting on life policies or stakeholder pensions effected in Y-3, and so on;

(2) 'CC' means the number of life policies or stakeholder pensions which:

(a) were effected during the period to which the calculation relates; and

(b) are reported on in the persistency report or data report (see SUP 16.8.8 R to SUP 16.8.15 R);

(3) 'CF' means the number of life policies or stakeholder pensions within 'CC' which are treated as in force at the end of Y-1 or, for a report under SUP 16.8.3 R (2) (b), the relevant 12 month period (see SUP 16.8.16 R to SUP 16.8.18 R);

(4) 'contract anniversary' means the anniversary of the date on which the life policy or stakeholder pension was effected falling within Y-1;

(5) 'data report' means a report in respect of stakeholder pensions complying with SUP 16.8.19 R to SUP 16.8.21 R;

(6) Forms 1R(1), 1R(2), 1R(3) and 1R(4) mean the forms in SUP 16 Annex 6;

(7) 'group personal pension policy' means a life policy which is not a separate pension scheme, effected under a collecting arrangement made for the employees of a particular employer to participate in a personal pension arrangement on a group basis;

(8) [deleted]

(9) 'mortgage endowment' means an endowment assurance effected or believed to be effected for the purposes of paying off a loan on land;

(10) 'new', in relation to a stakeholder pension, has the meaning given in SUP 16.8.11 R (2);

(11) 'ordinary assurance policy' means a life policy which is not an industrial assurance policy;

(12) 'other life assurance' means a life policy other than a pension policy, endowment assurance or whole life assurance;

(13) 'other pension policy' means a pension policy other than a personal pension policy;

(14) 'persistency rate' means a rate calculated using this formula:CF x 100/CC(see the example in SUP 16.8.5 G);

(15) 'persistency report' means a report in respect of life policies complying with SUP 16.8.19 R to SUP 16.8.21 R;

(16) 'regular premium life policy' means a life policy where there is (or could be, or has been) a commitment by the policyholder to make a regular stream of contributions (for example by means of a direct debit mandate);

(17) 'regular premium stakeholder pension' means a stakeholder pension where there is (or could be, or has been) a commitment by the policyholder to make a regular stream of contributions;

(18) 'single premium life policy' means a life policy that is not a regular premium life policy, except that a recurrent single premium life policy must be treated as a regular premium life policy;

(19) 'single premium stakeholder pension' means a stakeholder pension which is not a regular premium stakeholder pension, except that a recurrent single premium stakeholder pension must be treated as a regular premium stakeholder pension;

(20) 'stakeholder pension' means an individual's rights under a stakeholder pension scheme;

(21) 'substitute', in relation to stakeholder pension, has the meaning given in SUP 16.8.11 R (2);

(22) 'Y' means the year in which the report must be submitted, 'Y-1' means the preceding year, 'Y-2' means the next earlier year and so on;

(23) 'year' means calendar year, unless SUP 16.8.7 R applies.

06/12/2006

SUP 16.8.5

Example of calculation of persistency rate for life policies that commenced during 1996 (see SUP 16.8.3 R)

Y (year of reporting)

Number of life policies which commenced during 1996

Number of 1996 policies that cease to be in force during Y-1

Deaths and retirements (not included in CC and CF)

1998

1000

143

1000 - 143 - 2 = 855

1000 - 2 = 998

1999

1000

1000 - 143 - 25 - 2 - 1 = 829

1000 - 2 - 1 = 997

Report submitted in 1998 Persistency rate for life policies that commenced during Y-2 (that is 1996)

Report submitted in 1999 Persistency rate for life policies that commenced during Y-3 (that is 1996)

21/06/2001

SUP 16.8.6

Firms are reminded that annuity contracts other than deferred annuity contracts are not within the definition of 'life policy'.

21/06/2001

SUP 16.8.7

In relation to a persistency report, a firm may treat a 12-month period ending between 1 October and 31 March as a 'year' for the purposes of this section and Forms 1R(1) to (3):

(1) if the firm's financial year does not end on 31 December; or

(2) for industrial assurance policy business;

provided that the use of an alternative period is disclosed in the persistency report.

21/06/2001

Life policies and stakeholder pension to be reported on in the persistency or data reports

SUP 16.8.8

A persistency report or data report must report on a life policy or stakeholder pension if:

(1) it is not of a type listed in SUP 16.8.13 R or SUP 16.8.14 R;

(2) it was effected by:

(a) the firm submitting the report; or

(b) an unauthorised member of the group of the firm submitting the report and in circumstances in which that firm was responsible for the promotion of that life policy or stakeholder pension; or

(3) the person who sold it or who was responsible for its promotion was, in so doing, subject to rules in COBS .

01/05/2008

SUP 16.8.9

Life policies and stakeholder pensions falling within SUP 16.8.8 R (2) (c) are those which have been transferred from another firm, for example under an insurance business transfer scheme under Part VIIof the Act (Control of Business Transfers).

21/06/2001

SUP 16.8.10

Life policies falling within SUP 16.8.8 R, which were sold subject to the conduct of business rules of a previous regulator, need to be reported only if they were required to be reported on by the rules of the previous regulator of the firm submitting the report.

21/06/2001

SUP 16.8.11

(1) A life policy or stakeholder pension which was issued in substitution for a similar contract may be treated as being effected on the inception date of the previous life policy or stakeholder pension, provided that the firm is satisfied that no loss to the policyholder is attributable to the substitution;

(2) A stakeholder pension which is treated as in (1) is a "substitute" stakeholder pension. A "new" stakeholder pension is any other stakeholder pension.

21/06/2001

SUP 16.8.12

Examples of loss to the policyholder under SUP 16.8.11 R are losses resulting from higher charges and more restrictive benefits and options.

01/10/2003

SUP 16.8.13

A persistency or data report must not report on any of the following:

(1) a life policy or stakeholder pension that was cancelled from inception whether or not this was as a result of service of a notice under the rules on cancellation (COBS 15);

(2) an appropriate personal pension scheme to which contributions are made only by the Department of Social Security;

(3) a life policy (excluding income withdrawal) or stakeholder pension which has terminated as a result of death, critical illness, retirement, maturity or other completion of the contract term;

(4) income withdrawals that have ceased as a result of the death of the policyholder;

(5) in the case of a persistency report only, a life policy which is a stakeholder pension;

(6) a life policy purchased by the trustees of an occupational pension scheme which is a defined benefits pension scheme;

(7) a life policy purchased by the trustees of an executive money purchase occupational pension scheme.

01/11/2007

SUP 16.8.14

A persistency report required by SUP 16.8.3 R (1) need not report on a life policy if the number of life policies on substantially the same terms effected by the relevant firm (or member of the firm's group) in the relevant year did not exceed the higher of fifty and 1% of the total reportable life policies effected by the person in that year.

21/06/2001

SUP 16.8.15

If the term of an endowment assurance is less than five years, the life policy must only be included in a persistency report in respect of years up to and including the anniversary prior to maturity.

21/06/2001

Life policies and stakeholder pensions to be treated as in force

SUP 16.8.16

Subject to SUP 16.8.17 R and SUP 16.8.18 R, a life policy or stakeholder pension must be treated as in force at the end of Y-1 (that is, included in CF) if and only if:

(1) in the case of a regular premium life policy:

(a) in the case of an industrial assurance policy on which the premiums are paid at intervals of four weeks, the premium has been paid in respect of the four-week period in which the policy anniversary falls; or

(b) in any other case, the premium has been paid in respect of the month in which the policy anniversary falls;

(2) in the case of a single premium life policy, the policy has not been surrendered as at the policy anniversary;

(3) in the case of a regular premium stakeholder pension:

(a) for a report required by SUP 16.8.3 R (2) (a), the premium has been paid in respect of the month in which the contract anniversary falls;

(b) for a report required by SUP 16.8.3 R (2) (b), the premium has been paid in respect of the month 12 months after the contract was effected;

(4) in the case of a single premium stakeholder pension:

(a) for a report required by SUP 16.8.3 R (2)(a), the contract has not been surrendered as at the contract anniversary; or

(b) for a report required by SUP 16.8.3 R (2)(b), the contract has not been surrendered as at the end of the 12 month period.

21/06/2001

SUP 16.8.17

A cluster life policy must be reported as a single life policy and must be treated as in force (that is included in CF) even if some of the constituent life policies have been terminated.

21/06/2001

SUP 16.8.18

An income withdrawal that has terminated other than by death of the policyholder must be treated as not in force at the end of Y-1 (that is, not included in CF).

21/06/2001

Contents of the persistency or data report

SUP 16.8.19

(1) A persistency report on life policies must be a report in the format of Forms 1R(1), (2) and (3).

(2) A data report on stakeholder pensions must be a report in the format of Form 1R(4).

(3) A persistency and a data report must include:

(a) for a report required by SUP 16.8.3 R (1) or (2) (a), a separate copy of each Form reporting on life policies or stakeholder pensions effected during each of Y-2, Y-3, Y-4, Y-5;

(b) for a persistency report, a separate copy of Forms IR(1) and IR(2) reporting on:

(i) regular premium life policies and single premium life policies; and

(ii) life policies classified as ordinary assurance policies and industrial assurance policies .

21/06/2001

SUP 16.8.20

If, in relation to any Form, a firm has no life policies or stakeholder pensions to report on in a copy of that Form, the firm need not submit that copy provided that it confirms in writing to the FSA , as part of the persistency or data report, that it is not doing so and the reason for not doing so.

21/06/2001

SUP 16.8.21

The firm must, if a persistency report reports on;

(1) an endowment assurance with a term of five years or less:

(a) report on such a policy in Form 1R(2); and

(b) not report on such a policy in Form 1R(1);

(2) a group personal pension policy, include the policy as a personal pension policy in Forms 1R(1) and 1R(3);

(3) a mortgage endowment, also include the policy as an endowment assurance in Forms 1R(1) and 1R(3);

(4) an income withdrawal, not include the policy under any other relevant category in Forms 1R(1) and 1R(3).

06/04/2005

SUP 16.8.22

(1) Under SUP 16.8.16 R, a life policy must be treated as not in force if premiums have not been paid at the relevant date. Form 1R(3) seeks additional information on the number of policies treated as not in force which are subject to genuine contribution holidays.

(2) A firm should treat a life policy as 'subject to a contribution holiday' if:

(a) the terms of the policy allow the policyholder to take a contribution holiday;

(b) the policyholder has opted to take a contribution holiday in accordance with those terms;

(d) at the end of Y-1, not more than 12 months have elapsed from the date that premiums ceased to be paid.

01/11/2007

Records

SUP 16.8.23

A firm must make and retain such records as will enable it to:

(1) monitor regularly the persistency of life policies and stakeholder pensions effected through each of its representatives; and

(2) make persistency reports or data reports to the FSA in accordance with SUP 16.8.3R.

21/06/2001

SUP 16.8.24

In order to comply with SUP 16.8.23 R, a firm will as a minimum need to make and retain separate records for:

(1) life policies and stakeholder pensions originally promoted:

(a) by representatives; or

(b) by independent intermediaries; or

(d) as adopted packaged products;

(2) life policies and stakeholder pensions not within (1), including those effected as execution-only transactions,for inclusion in the relevant form under 'Otherwise';

(3) life policies and stakeholder pensions written assuming the payment of:

(a) regular premiums;

(b) a single premium;

(4) life policies written as:

(a) ordinary assurance policies;

(b) industrial assurance policies;

(5) the categories of life policies and stakeholder pensions referred to in Forms 1R(1) to (4).

30/09/2003

SUP 16.9

Appointed representatives annual report

01/12/2004

Application

SUP 16.9.1

The effect of SUP 16.1.1 R is that this section applies to every firm with a Part IV permission to advise on investments, arrange (bring about) deals in investments, making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments, or arrange safeguarding and administration of assets.

30/09/2003

Purpose

SUP 16.9.2

The purpose of the rules and guidance in this section is to ensure that, in addition to the notifications made under SUP 12.7 (Appointed representatives; notification requirements), the FSA receives regular and comprehensive information about the appointed representatives engaged by a firm, so that the FSA is in a better position to pursue the regulatory objective of the protection of consumers.

01/11/2004

SUP 16.9.3

(1) A firm must:

(a) submit a report to the FSA annually, in the form of an amended copy of the relevant extract from the FSA Register, containing the information in (2);

(b) submit the report in (1) to the FSA within four months of the firm's accounting reference date.

(2) The report in (1) must contain a list of all the current appointed representatives of the firm as at the firm's accounting reference date .

(3) The report in (1) is not required if:

(a) the firm has no appointed representatives as at the firm's accounting reference date; and

(b) this is reflected in the relevant extract from the FSA Register.

30/09/2003

SUP 16.9.4

The FSA Register is maintained under section 347 of the Act (The record of authorised persons, etc.) and may be viewed at the FSA's website at www.fsa.gov.uk/register/.

01/11/2004

SUP 16.9.6

If a group includes more than one firm, a single annual appointed representatives report may be submitted on behalf of all firms in the group. Such a report should contain the information required from all the firms, meet all relevant due dates, indicate all the firms on whose behalf it is submitted and give their FSA firm reference numbers. The requirement to provide a report, and the responsibility for the report remains with each firm in the group.

21/06/2001

SUP 16.10

Verification of standing data

01/04/2005

Application

SUP 16.10.1

The effect of SUP 16.1.1 R is that this section applies to every firm except:

(1) an ICVC; or

(2) a UCITS qualifier; or

(3) a credit union; or

(4) a dormant account fund operator.

06/08/2009

Purpose

SUP 16.10.2

Standing data is used by the FSA :

(1) to ensure that a firm is presented with the correct regulatory return when it seeks to report electronically;

(2) in order to communicate with a firm;

(3) as the basis for some sections of the FSA Register; and

(4) in order to carry out thematic analysis across sectors and groups of firms.

01/04/2005

SUP 16.10.3

In view of the importance attached to standing data, and the consequences which may result if it is wrong, this section provides the framework for a firm to check and correct it.

01/04/2005

Requirement to check the accuracy of standing data and to report changes to the FSA

SUP 16.10.4

(1) Within 30 business days of its accounting reference date, a firm must check the accuracy of its standing data through the relevant section of the FSA website.

(2) [paragraph suspended by FSA 2004/79]

(3) If any standing data is incorrect, the firm must submit the corrected standing data to the FSA, using the appropriate form set out in SUP 15 Ann 3 and in accordance with SUP 16.10.4A R.

04/10/2010

SUP 16.10.4A

(1) A firm other than a credit union must submit any corrected standing data under SUP 16.10.4R (3) online at www.fsa.gov.uk using the FSA's ONA system.
(2) A credit union must submit any corrected standing data under SUP 16.10.4R (3) in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).
(3) Where a firm is obliged to submit corrected standing data online under (1), if the FSA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, until such time as facilities for online submission are restored, a firm must submit its corrected standing data in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).

04/10/2010

SUP 16.10.4B

If the FSA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FSA will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that online submission is unavailable and that the alternative methods of submission set out in SUP 16.10.4AR (3) and SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification) should be used.

04/10/2010

SUP 16.10.4C

Where SUP 16.10.4AR (3) applies to a firm, GEN 1.3.2 R (Emergency) does not apply.

04/10/2010

SUP 16.10.5

The standing data is made available to the firm when the firm logs into the appropriate section of the FSA website. The firm should check the standing data and send any corrections to the FSA . The FSA's preferred method of receiving corrections to standing data is by the online forms available at the FSA's website.

01/04/2005

SUP 16.10.6

A firm may check, and submit corrections to, its standing data more frequently than annually.

01/04/2005

SUP 16.11

Product Sales Data Reporting

01/04/2005

Application

SUP 16.11.1

This section applies to a firm which is a home finance provider or in respect of sales to a retail client or a consumer :

(1) an insurer; or

(2) the operator ofa regulated collective investment scheme,an investment trust savings scheme, or a personal pension scheme; or

(3) a person who issues or manages the relevant assets of the issuer of a structured capital-at-risk product,

unless the firm is a managing agent.

01/11/2007

Purpose

SUP 16.11.2

(1) The purpose of this section is to set out the requirements for firms in the retail mortgage, investment, and pure protection contract markets specified in SUP 16.11.1 R to report individual product sales data to the FSA . In the case of firms in the sale and rent back market, there is a requirement to record, but not to submit, thedata. These requirements apply whether the regulated activity has been carried out by the firm, or through an intermediary which has dealt directly with the firm.

(2) The purpose of collecting this data is to assist the FSA in the ongoing supervision of firms engaged in retail activities and to enable the FSA to gain a wider understanding of market trends in the interests of protecting consumers.

30/06/2010

Reporting requirement

SUP 16.11.3

(1) A firm must submit a report (the 'data report') containing the information required by SUP 16.11.5 R quarterly, within 20 business days of the end of the quarter, unless (3) or (4) applies.

(2) The reporting periods are the four calendar quarters of each year beginning on 1 January.

(3) A firm need not submit a data report if no relevant sales have occurred in the quarter.

(4) A SRB agreement provider must compile, and keep for at least five years from the end of the relevant quarter, a data report containing the information required by SUP 16.11.5 R, but is not subject to the requirement in (1) to submit a data report (or to the requirement in SUP 16.11.9 R).

30/06/2010

SUP 16.11.4

(1) A firm may submit a data report more frequently than quarterlyif it wishes.

(2) If it is easier and more practical for a firm to submit additional data relating to products other than those specified in SUP 16.11.5 R, it may submit that additional data to the FSA in a data report.

01/04/2005

Content of the report

SUP 16.11.5

The data report must contain sales data in respect of the following products:

(1) retail investments;

(2) pure protection contracts;

(3) regulated mortgage contracts (but not further advances);

(4) home purchase plans;

(5) home reversion plans ; and

(6) regulated sale and rent back agreements .

30/06/2010

SUP 16.11.6

Guidance on the type of products covered by SUP 16.11.5 R is contained in SUP 16 Annex 20G.

01/04/2005

SUP 16.11.7

The data report must comply with the provisions of SUP 16 Annex 21R.

01/04/2005

SUP 16.11.8

The data report must relate both to transactions undertaken by the firm and to transactions undertaken by an intermediary which has dealt directly with the customer on the firm 's behalf.

01/04/2005

SUP 16.11.8A

Where the operator of a collective investment scheme receives business from a firm which operates a nominee account, the data report in respect of those transactions submitted by the operator should treat those transactions as transactions undertaken by the operator with the firm.

01/04/2005

SUP 16.11.9

A firm must provide thedata report to the FSA electronically in a standard format provided by the FSA .

01/04/2005

SUP 16.11.10

A data report will have been provided to the FSA in accordance with SUP 16.11.9 R only if all mandatory data reporting fields (as set out in SUP 16 Annex 21R) have been completed correctly and the report has been accepted by the relevant FSA reporting system.

01/04/2005

Use of reporting agents

SUP 16.11.11

(1) A firm may appoint another person to provide the data report on the firm's behalf if the firm has informed the FSA of that appointment in writing.

(2) Where (1) applies, the firm must ensure that the data report complies with the requirements of SUP 16.11 and identifies the originator of the transaction.

01/04/2005

SUP 16.12

Integrated Regulatory Reporting

01/01/2008

Application

SUP 16.12.1

The effect of SUP 16.1.1 R is that this section applies to every firm carrying on business set out in column (1) of SUP 16.12.4 R except:

(1) an incoming EEA firm with permission for cross border services only;
(2) an oil market participant that is not subject to the requirements of IPRU(INV) Chapter 3;
(3) an authorised professional firm (other than one that must comply with IPRU(INV) 3, 5 or 13 in accordance with IPRU(INV) 2.1.4R, where SUP 16.12.4 R will apply in respect of the business the firm undertakes), which must comply with SUP 16.12.30 Rand SUP 16.12.31 R; and
(4) a financial conglomerate, which must comply with SUP 16.12.32 R: firms that are members of a financial conglomerate will have their own reporting requirements under SUP 16.12.32 R.

06/07/2009

Purpose

SUP 16.12.2

(1) Principle 4 requires firms to maintain adequate financial resources. The Interim Prudential sourcebooks, PRU, BIPRU and GENPRU set out the FSA's detailed capital adequacy requirements. By submitting regular data, firms enable the FSA to monitor their compliance with Principle 4 and their prudential requirements in the FSA Handbook.
(2) The data items submitted help the FSA analyse firms' financial and other conditions and performance and to understand their business. By means of further collation and review of the data which the data items provide, the FSA also uses the data items to identify developments across the financial services industry and its constituent sectors.
(3) The requirements in this section differ according to a firm's regulated activity group (RAG), as different information is required to reflect different types of business. Standard formats are used for reporting, to assist compatibility between firms which carry on similar types of business. Timely submission is important to ensure the FSA has up-to-date information.

06/02/2009

Reporting requirement

SUP 16.12.3

(1) Any firmpermitted to carry on any of the activities within each of the RAGs set out in column (1) of the table in SUP 16.12.4 R must:

(a)

(i) unless (ii) or (iii) applies, submit to the FSA the duly completed data items or other items applicable to the firm as set out in the provision referred to in column (2) of that table;

(ii) unless (iii) applies, where a firm is required to submit completed data itemsfor more than one RAG, that firm must only submit the data item of the same name and purpose in respect of the lowest numbered RAG applicable to it, RAG 1 being the lowest and RAG10the highest;

(iii) where a firm is, but for this rule, required to submit data items for more than one RAG and this includes the submission of data items in respect of FSA fees, the FOS or FSCS levy, or threshold conditions, that firm must only submit these data items if they belong to the lowest numbered of the RAGs applicable to it;

(iv) in the case of a non-EEA bank, or an EEA bank (whether or not it has permissionfor accepting deposits) other than one with permission for cross border servicesonly, any data items submitted should, unless indicated otherwise, only cover the activities of the branch operation in the United Kingdom;

in the format specified as applicable to the firm in the provision referred to in column (2);

(b) submit this information at the frequency and in respect of the periods set out in the provision referred to in column (3); and

(2) Unless (3) applies, any data item in (1) must be submitted by electronic means made available by the FSA ;

(3) (2) does not apply to:

(a) credit unions solely in relation to the reporting requirement for RAG 1 activities, where SUP 16.3.6 R to SUP 16.3.10 G will apply;

(b) firms in RAG 2 in relation to the reporting requirements for RAG 2 activities; and

(4) A firm that is a member of a financial conglomerate must also submit financial reports as required by SUP 16.12.32 R.

06/07/2009

SUP 16.12.3A

The following is designed to assist firms to understand how the reporting requirements set out in this chapter operate when the circumstances set out in SUP 16.12.3R (1)(a)(ii) apply.

(1) Example 1
A BIPRU 730K firm that undertakes activities in both RAG3and RAG 7
Overlaying the requirements of RAG 3 ( data items ) with the requirements of RAG 7 shows the following:

RAG 3 (SUP 16.12.11 R) data items

RAG 7 (SUP 16.12.22A R) data items

Annual reports and accounts

Annual report and accounts of the mixed-activity holding company

Annual report and accounts of the mixed-activity holding company (note 10)

Solvency statement

Balance sheet

Balance Sheet

Income statement

Capital adequacy

Credit risk

Market risk

Market risk - supplementary

Operational risk

Large exposures

UK integrated group large exposures

Solo consolidation data

Pillar 2 questionnaire

Non-EEA sub-group

Professional indemnity insurance

Threshold Conditions

Training and Competence

COBS data

Client money and client assets

Fees and levies

CFTC

IRB portfolio risk

Securitisation: non-trading book

Daily Flows (if it is an ILAS BIPRU firm)

Enhanced Mismatch Report (if it is an ILAS BIPRU firm)

Liquidity Buffer Qualifying Securities (if it is an ILAS BIPRU firm)

Funding Concentration (if it is an ILAS BIPRU firm)

Pricing data (if it is an ILAS BIPRU firm)

Retail and corporate funding (if it is an ILAS BIPRU firm)

Currency Analysis (if it is a ILAS BIPRU firm)

Systems and Controls Questionnaire (if it is a non-ILAS BIPRU firm)

Securitisation: trading book

From this, the additional reports that are required are:

(a) [deleted]

(b) Professional indemnity insurance, where RAG 7 firms complete Section E of the RMAR, and therefore a RAG3 firm should complete that;

(d) Training and competence data, where RAG3 firms should also complete Section G of RMAR;

(e) Conduct of business data, where RAG3 firms should complete Section H of RMAR.

(f) [deleted]

(g) [deleted]

The reporting frequency and submission times for items (b), (d) and (e) above are then derived from the rules applicable to BIPRU firms in SUP 16.12.23 R and SUP 16.12.24 R. Threshold conditions and fees and levies reports do not need to be submitted as they are not required under the lowest numbered of the two RAGs in this example, see SUP 16.12.3R (1)(a)(iii).

(2) Example 2
A UK bank in RAG 1 that also carries on activities in RAG 5
Again, overlaying the RAG 1 reporting requirements with the requirements for a RAG 5 firm gives the following :

RAG 1 requirements (SUP 16.12.5 R)

RAG 5 requirements (SUP 16.12.18A R)

Annual report and accounts

Annual report and accounts of the mixed-activity holding company (note 9)

Solvency statement (note 10)

Balance sheet

Balance Sheet

Income statement

Capital adequacy

Capital Adequacy

Credit risk

Market risk

Market risk -supplementary

Operational risk

Large exposures

UK integrated group large exposures

Liquidity (other than stock)

Liquidity - stock

Forecast data

Solo consolidation data

Interest rate gap report

[deleted]

Non-EEA sub-group

Sectoral information, including arrears and impairment

Maturity analysis of assets and deposits

IRB portfolio risk

Securitisation: non-trading book

Daily Flows (if it is an ILAS BIPRU firm)

Enhanced Mismatch Report (if it is an ILAS BIPRU firm)

Liquidity Buffer Qualifying Securities (if it is an ILAS BIPRU firm)

Funding Concentration (if it is an ILAS BIPRU firm)

Pricing data (if it is an ILAS BIPRU firm)

Retail and corporate funding (if it is an ILAS BIPRU firm)

Currency Analysis (if it is an ILAS BIPRU firm)

Securitisation: trading book

Lending - Business flow and rates

Residential Lending to individuals - New business profile

Lending - Arrears analysis

Mortgage administration - Business profile

Mortgage Administration - Arrears analysis

Analysis of loans to customers

Provisions analysis

Fees and levies

In this case, it is more obvious that the firm's reporting requirement in RAG 1 is not all the data items listed above. However, for the purposes of this exercise, it is the list of potential data items that is important. Thus comparing RAG 1 with RAG 5, the additional reporting requirements are:

(a) Lending - Business flow and rates, where Section D MLAR is required;

(b) Residential Lending to individuals - New business profile, where Section E MLAR is required;

(d) Mortgage administration - Business profile, where Section G MLAR is required;

(e) Mortgage Administration - Arrears analysis, where Section H MLAR is required

(f) Analysis of loans to customers, where section A3 of MLAR is required

(g) Provisions analysis, where Section B2 of MLAR is required; and

Fees and levies are not applicable as they are not required to be submitted under the lowest numbered RAG in this example. The reporting frequency and submission times for items (a) to (g) above are then derived from the rules applicable to RAG 5 firms in SUP 16.12.18 R.

31/12/2010

SUP 16.12.3B

Firms' attention is drawn to SUP 16.3.25 G regarding a single submission for all firms in the group.

06/07/2009

SUP 16.12.4

Table of applicable rules containing data items, frequency and submission periods

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

RAG number

Regulated Activities

Provisions containing:

applicable data items

reporting frequency/ period

Due date

RAG 1

• accepting deposits
• issuing electronic money
• meeting of repayment claims
• managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds)

SUP 16.12.5 R

SUP 16.12.6 R

SUP 16.12.7 R

RAG 2.1

• effecting contracts of insurance
• carrying out contracts of insurance
• entering as provider into a funeral plan contract

SUP 16.12.8 R

RAG 2.2

• managing the underwriting capacity of a Lloyds syndicate as a managing agent at Lloyds
• advising on syndicate participation at Lloyds
• arranging deals in contracts of insurance written at Lloyds

SUP 16.12.9 R

RAG 3

• dealing in investment as principal
• dealing in investments as agent
• advising on investments (excluding retail investment activities)
• arranging (bringing about) deals in investments (excluding retail investment activities)

SUP 16.12.10 R SUP 16.12.11 R

SUP 16.12.10 R SUP 16.12.12 R

SUP 16.12.10 R SUP 16.12.13 R

RAG 4

• managing investments
• establishing, operating or winding up a regulated collective investment scheme
• establishing, operating or winding up an unregulated collective investment scheme
• establishing, operating or winding up a stakeholder pension scheme
• establishing, operating or winding up a personal pension scheme

SUP 16.12.14 R SUP 16.12.15 R

SUP 16.12.14 R SUP 16.12.16 R

SUP 16.12.14 R SUP 16.12.17 R

RAG 5

• home finance administration or home finance providing activity

SUP 16.12.18A R

RAG 6

• acting as trustee of an authorised unit trust
• safeguarding and administration of assets (without arranging)
• arranging safeguarding and administration of assets
• acting as depository or sole director of an OEIC

SUP 16.12.19 R

SUP 16.12.20 R

SUP 16.12.21 R

RAG 7

• retail investment activities
• advising on pensions transfers & opt-outs
• arranging (bringing about deals) in retail investments

SUP 16.12.22A R

SUP 16.12.23 R

SUP 16.12.24 R

RAG 8

• making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments
• operating a multilateral trading facility

SUP 16.12.25A R

SUP 16.12.26 R

SUP 16.12.27 R

RAG 9

• home finance mediation activity
• insurance mediation activity (non-investment insurance contracts)

SUP 16.12.28A R

RAG 10

• the activities of an RIE/RCH

SUP 16.12.29 G

30/06/2010

SUP 16.12.4A

RAG 1 includes an incoming EEA firm exercising a BCD right through a UK branch.

06/07/2009

Group liquidity reporting

SUP 16.12.4B

Reporting at group level for liquidity purposes by firms falling within BIPRU 12 (Liquidity) is by reference to defined liquidity groups. Guidance about the different types of defined liquidity groups and related material is set out in SUP 16 Annex 26 (Guidance on designated liquidity groups in SUP 16.12).

01/12/2009

Regulated Activity Group 1

SUP 16.12.5

The applicable data items and forms or reports referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out according to firm type in the table below:

Description of data item

Prudential category of firm, applicable data items and reporting format (Note 1)

UK bank

Building society

Non-EEA bank

EEA bank that has permission to accept deposits, other than one with permission for cross border services only

EEA bank that does not have permission to accept deposits, other than one with permission for cross border services only

Electronic money institutions

Credit union

Dormant account fund operator
(note 15)

Annual report and accounts

No standard format

No standard format, but in English

No standard format

Annual report and accounts of the mixed-activity holding company (note 9)

No standard format

Solvency statement (note 10)

No standard format

Balance sheet

FSA001 (note 2)

FSA020

CQ; CY

Income statement

FSA002 (note 2)

FSA002

FSA021

CQ; CY

Capital adequacy

FSA003 (note 2)

FSA022

CQ; CY

Credit risk

FSA004 (note 2)

Market risk

FSA005 (notes 2, 4)

FSA023

Market risk -supplementary

FSA006 (note 5)

Operational risk

FSA007 (notes 2, 6)

Large exposures

FSA008 (note 2)

FSA024

CQ; CY

UK integrated group large exposures

FSA018 (note 12)

Liquidity (other than stock)

FSA011

FSA025

CQ; CY

Forecast data

FSA014 (note 11)

Solo consolidation data

FSA016 (note 7)

Interest rate gap report

FSA017

ELMI questions

FSA026

Non-EEA sub-group

FSA028 (note 8)

Sectoral information, including arrears and impairment

FSA015

Maturity analysis of assets and deposits

FSA044 (note 11)

IRB portfolio risk

FSA045 (note 13)

Securitisation: non-trading book

FSA046 (note 14)

Daily Flows

FSA047 (Notes 16, 20 and 22)

FSA047 (Notes 16, 18, 20 and 22)

Enhanced Mismatch Report

FSA048 (Notes 16, 20 and 22)

FSA048 (Notes 16, 18, 20 and 22)

Liquidity Buffer Qualifying Securities

FSA050 (Notes 17, 21 and 22)

FSA050 (Notes 17, 19, 21 and 22)

Funding Concentration

FSA051 (Notes 17, 21 and 22)

FSA051 (Notes 17, 19, 21 and 22)

Pricing data

FSA052 (Notes 17, 21 and 22)

FSA052 (Notes 17, 19, 21 and 22)

Retail and corporate funding

FSA053 (Notes 17, 21 and 22)

FSA053 (Notes 17, 19, 21 and 22)

Currency Analysis

FSA054 (Notes 17, 21 and 22)

FSA054 (Notes 17, 19, 21 and 22)

Securitisation: trading book

FSA058 (Note 23)

Note 1

When submitting the completed data item required, a firm must use the format of the data item set out in SUP 16 Annex 24 R, except for credit union reports that are in SUP 16 Annex 14. Guidance notes for completion of the data items are contained in SUP 16 Annex 25 G (or Ann 15 G for credit unions).

Note 2

Firms that are members of a UK consolidation group subject to the capital resources requirement at stage 1 of BIPRU 8 Annex 5 are also required to submit this data item on a UK consolidation group basis. Firms' attention is drawn to SUP 16.3.25 G regarding a single submission for all firms in the group.

Note 3

[deleted]

Note 4

This applies to a firm that is required to submit data item FSA003 and, at any time within the 12 months up to its latest accounting reference date ("the relevant period"), was reporting data itemFSA004 ("Firm A") or not reporting this item ("Firm B"). In the case of Firm A it must report this data item if one or both of its last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold was exceeded. In the case of Firm B it must report this item if both the last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold has been exceeded. The threshold is exceeded where data element 93A in data item FSA003 is greater than £50 million, or its currency equivalent, at the relevant reporting date for the firm.

Note 5

Only applicable to firms with a VaR model permission

Note 6

This is only applicable to a firm that has adopted, in whole or in part, either the standardised approach, alternative standardised approach, or advanced measurement approach under BIPRU 6.

Note 7

Only applicable to a firm that has a solo consolidation waiver.

Note 8

This will be applicable to firms (other than building societies) that are members of a UK consolidation group, on a half-yearly reporting date. Firms' attention is drawn to SUP 16.3.25 G regarding a single submission for all firms in the group.

Note 9

Only applicable to a firm whose ultimate parent is a mixed-activity holding company.

Note 10

Only applicable to a firm that is a partnership, when the report must be submitted by each partner.

Note 11

Members of a UK consolidation group should only submit this data item at the UK consolidation group level.

Note 12

Members of a UK integrated group should only submit this data item at the UK integrated group level.

Note 13

Only applicable to firms that have an IRB permission

Note 14

Only applicable to firms that hold securitisation positions, or are the originator or sponsor of securitisations of non-trading book exposures.

Note 15

Only applies to a dormant account fund operator that does not fall into any of the other prudential categories in this table.

Note 16

A firm must complete this item separately on each of the following bases that are applicable.
(1) It must complete it on a solo basis (including on the basis of the firm's UK branch). Therefore even if it has a solo consolidation waiver it must complete the item on an unconsolidated basis by reference to the firm alone.
(2) If it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a DLG by default and is a UK lead regulated firm, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.
(3) If it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a UK DLG by modification, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.
(4) If it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a non-UK DLG by modification, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.

Note 17

A firm must complete this item separately on each of the following bases that are applicable.
(1) It must complete it on a solo basis (including on the basis of the firm's UK branch) unless it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a UK DLG by modification. Therefore even if it has a solo consolidation waiver it must complete the item on an unconsolidated basis by reference to the firm alone.
(2) If it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a UK DLG by modification, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.

Note 18

(1) If the firm has a whole-firm liquidity modification it must complete this item on the basis of the whole firm (or at any other reporting level the whole-firm liquidity modification may require) and not just its UK branch.
(2) Otherwise the firm must complete this item by reference to the activities of its branch operation in the United Kingdom in accordance with SUP 16.12.3R (1)(a)(iv).

Note 19

(1) If the firm has a whole-firm liquidity modification there is no obligation to report this item.
(2) Otherwise the firm must complete this item by reference to the activities of its branch operation in the United Kingdom in accordance with SUP 16.12.3R (1)(a)(iv).

Note 20

(1) This item must be reported in the reporting currency.
(2) If any data element is in a currency or currencies other than the reporting currency, all currencies (including the reporting currency) must be combined into a figure in the reporting currency.
(3) In addition, all material currencies (which may include the reporting currency) must each be recorded separately (translated into the reporting currency). However if:
(a) the reporting frequency is (whether under a rule or under a waiver) quarterly or less than quarterly; or
(b) the only material currency is the reporting currency;
(3) does not apply.
(4) If there are more than three material currencies for this data item, (3) only applies to the three largest in amount. A firm must identify the largest in amount in accordance with the following procedure.
(a) For each currency, take the largest of the asset or liability figure as referred to in the definition of material currency.
(b) Take the three largest figures from the resulting list of amounts.
(5) The date as at which the calculations for the purposes of the definition of material currency are carried out is the last day of the reporting period in question.
(6) The reporting currency for this data item is whichever of the following currencies the firm chooses, namely USD (the United States Dollar), EUR (the euro), GBP (sterling), JPY (the Japanese Yen), CHF (the Swiss Franc), CAD (the Canadian Dollar) or SEK (the Swedish Krona).

Note 21

Note 20 applies, except that paragraph (3) does not apply, meaning that material currencies must not be recorded separately.

Note 22

Any changes to reporting requirements caused by a firm receiving an intra-group liquidity modification or a whole-firm liquidity modification (or a variation to one) do not take effect until the first day of the next reporting period applicable under the changed reporting requirements for the data item in question if the firm receives that intra-group liquidity modification, whole-firm liquidity modification or variation part of the way through such a period. If the change is that the firm does not have to report a particular data item or does not have to report it at a particular reporting level, the firm must nevertheless report that item or at that reporting level for any reporting period that has already begun. This paragraph is subject to anything that the intra-group liquidity modification or a whole-firm liquidity modification says to the contrary.

Note 23

Only applicable to firms that hold securitisation positions, or are the originator or sponsor of securitisationsof trading book exposures.

31/12/2010

SUP 16.12.6

The applicable reporting frequencies for submission of data items and periods referred to in SUP 16.12.5 R are set out in the table below according to firm type. Reporting frequencies are calculated from a firm's accounting reference date, unless indicated otherwise.

Data item

Unconsolidated UK banks and building societies

Solo consolidated UK banks and building societies

Report on aUK consolidation groupor, as applicable, defined liquidity groupbasis by UK banks and building societies

Other members of RAG 1

Annual report and accounts

Annual

Annual report and accounts of the mixed-activity holding company

Annual

Solvency statement

Annual

Quarterly

Annually (note 2)

FSA001

Quarterly

Half yearly

FSA002

Quarterly

Half yearly

FSA003

Quarterly or monthly (note 1)

Half yearly

FSA004

Quarterly

Half yearly

FSA005

Quarterly

Half yearly

FSA006

Quarterly

FSA007

Annually (note 3)

FSA008

Quarterly

FSA011

Quarterly

FSA014

Half yearly

FSA015

Quarterly

Half yearly

FSA016

Half yearly

FSA017

Quarterly

Half yearly

FSA018

Quarterly

FSA020

Half yearly

FSA021

Half yearly

FSA022

Half yearly

FSA023

Half yearly

FSA024

Half yearly

FSA025

Half yearly

FSA026

Half yearly

FSA028

Half yearly

FSA044

Quarterly

Half yearly

Quarterly

FSA045

Quarterly

Half yearly

FSA046

Quarterly

FSA047

Daily, weekly, monthly or quarterly (Notes 4, 6 and 9)

Daily, weekly, monthly or quarterly (Notes 4,5, 6 and 9)

Daily, weekly, monthly or quarterly (Notes 4, 8 and 9)

Daily, weekly, monthly or quarterly (Notes 4,7 and 9)

FSA048

Daily, weekly, monthly or quarterly (Notes 4, 6 and 9)

Daily, weekly, monthly or quarterly (Notes 4,5, 6 and 9)

Daily, weekly, monthly or quarterly (Notes 4, 8 and 9)

Daily, weekly, monthly or quarterly (Notes 4,7 and 9)

FSA050

Monthly (Note 4)

Monthly (Notes 4 and 5)

Monthly (Note 4)

FSA051

Monthly (Note 4)

Monthly (Notes 4 and 5)

Monthly (Note 4)

FSA052

Weekly or monthly (Notes 4 and 10)

Weekly or monthly (Notes 4, 5 and 10)

Weekly or monthly (Notes 4 and 11)

Weekly or monthly (Notes 4 and 10)

FSA053

Quarterly (Note 4)

Quarterly (Notes 4 and 5)

Quarterly (Note 4)

FSA054

Quarterly (Note 4)

Quarterly (Notes 4 and 5)

Quarterly (Note 4)

FSA058

Quarterly

Note 1

Monthly submission only applicable if the firm has been notified in writing that it is required to report (when, on an annual review, it has two consecutive quarterly submissions of FSA003 showing data element 93A being greater than £50 million, or its currency equivalent, and also greater than 50% of data element 70A or, during 2007, it has two consecutive quarterly submissions of FSA009 showing data element 27A and data element 33A combined being greater than £50 million, or its currency equivalent, and also greater than 50% of data element 36A.

Note 2

The annual report required from a credit union by SUP 16.12.5 R must be made up for the same period as the audited accounts published by the credit union in accordance with section 3A of the Friendly and Industrial and Provident Societies Act 1968 (see CRED 14 Annex 1 G). CRED 14.10.10 R (2)(a) states that the audited accounts referred to in SUP 16.12.5 R are to be made up for the period beginning with the date of the credit union's registration or with the date to which the credit union's last annual accounts were made up, and ending on the credit union's most recent financial year end.

Note 3

The reporting date for this data item is six months after a firm's most recent accounting reference date.

Note 4

Reporting frequencies and reporting periods for this data item are calculated on a calendar year basis and not from a firm's accounting reference date. In particular:
(1) A week means the period beginning on Saturday and ending on Friday.
(2) A month begins on the first day of the calendar month and ends on the last day of that month.
(3) Quarters end on 31 March, 30 June, 30 September and 31 December.
(4) Daily means each business day.
All periods are calculated by reference to London time.
Any changes to reporting requirements caused by a firm receiving an intra-group liquidity modification or a whole-firm liquidity modification (or a variation to one) do not take effect until the first day of the next reporting period applicable under the changed reporting requirements if the firm receives that intra-group liquidity modification, whole-firm liquidity modification or variation part of the way through such a period, unless the whole-firm liquidity modification or intra-group liquidity modification says otherwise.

Note 5

As specified in SUP 16.12.5 R, solo consolidation has no application to liquidity reporting. Therefore it does not make any difference to the reporting of this item whether or not the firm is solo consolidated.

Note 6

If the report is on a solo basis (and the firm is a UK firm) the reporting frequency is as follows:
(1) if the firm does not have an intra-group liquidity modification the frequency is:
(a) weekly if the firm is a standard frequency liquidity reporting firm; and
(b) monthly if the firm is a low frequency liquidity reporting firm;
(2) if the firm is a group liquidity reporting firm in a non-UK DLG by modification (firmlevel) the frequency is:
(a) weekly if the firm is a standard frequency liquidity reporting firm; and
(b) monthly if the firm is a low frequency liquidity reporting firm;
(3) the frequency is quarterly if the firm is a group liquidity reporting firm in a UK DLG by modification.

Note 7

(1) If the report is on a solo basis (and the firm is not a UK firm) the reporting frequency is as follows:
(a) weekly if the firm is a standard frequency liquidity reporting firm; and
(b) monthly if the firm is a low frequency liquidity reporting firm.
(2) If the firm has a whole-firm liquidity modification (1) does not apply and instead the frequency of solo reporting is quarterly (or whatever other frequency the whole-firm liquidity modification requires).

Note 8

(1) If the report is by reference to the firm's DLG by default the reporting frequency is:
(a) weekly if the group liquidity standard frequency reporting conditions are met;
(b) monthly if the group liquidity low frequency reporting conditions are met.
(2) If the report is by reference to the firm's UK DLG by modification the reporting frequency is:
(a) weekly if the group liquidity standard frequency reporting conditions are met;
(b) monthly if the group liquidity low frequency reporting conditions are met.
(3) If the report is by reference to the firm's non-UK DLG by modification the reporting frequency is quarterly.

Note 9

(1) If the reporting frequency is otherwise weekly, the item is to be reported on every business day if (and for as long as) there is a firm-specific liquidity stress or market liquidity stress in relation to the firm, branch or group in question.
(2) If the reporting frequency is otherwise monthly, the item is to be reported weekly if (and for as long as) there is a firm-specific liquidity stress or market liquidity stress in relation to the firm, branch or group in question.
(3) A firm must ensure that it would be able at all times to meet the requirements for daily or weekly reporting under paragraph (1) or (2) even if there is no firm-specific liquidity stress or market liquidity stress and none is expected.

Note 10

If the report is on a solo basis (including by reference to the firm's UK branch) the reporting frequency is as follows:
(1) weekly if the firm is a standard frequency liquidity reporting firm; and
(2) monthly if the firm is a low frequency liquidity reporting firm.

Note 11

If the report is by reference to the firm's UK DLG by modification the reporting frequency is:
(1) weekly if the group liquidity standard frequency reporting conditions are met;
(2) monthly if the group liquidity low frequency reporting conditions are met.

31/12/2010

SUP 16.12.7

The applicable due dates for submission referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out in the table below. The due dates are the last day of the periods given in the table below following the relevant reporting frequency period set out in SUP 16.12.6 R, unless indicated otherwise.

Data item

Daily

Weekly

Monthly submission

Quarterly submission

Half yearly submission

Annual submission

Annual report and accounts

80 business days (note 1)
7 months (note 2)

Annual report and accounts of the mixed-activity holding company

7 months

Solvency statement

3 months

1 month

7 months

FSA001

FSA002

FSA003

FSA004

FSA005

FSA006

FSA007

2 months

FSA008

20 business days (note 3)
45 business days (note 4)

[deleted]

FSA011

15 business days

[deleted]

FSA014

30 business days (note 3);
45 business days (note 4)

FSA015

30 business days

FSA016

FSA017

FSA018

FSA020

FSA021

FSA022

FSA023

FSA024

FSA025

FSA026

FSA028

FSA044

FSA045

FSA046

20 business days (Note 3), 45 business days (Note 4)

FSA047

22.00 hours (London time) on the business day immediately following the last day of the reporting period for the item in question

15 business days

15 business days or one Month (Note 5)

FSA048

22.00 hours (London time) on the business day immediately following the last day of the reporting period for the item in question

15 business days

15 business days or one Month (Note 5)

FSA050

15 business days

FSA051

15 business days

FSA052

22.00 hours (London time) on the second business day immediately following the last day of the reporting period for the item in question

15 business days

FSA053

15 business days

FSA054

15 business days

FSA058

20 business days (Note 3), 45 business days (Note 4)

Note 1

Applicable to UK banks, dormant account fund operators and electronic money institutions.

Note 2

Applicable to non-EEA banks

Note 3

Applicable to unconsolidated and solo consolidated reports

Note 4

Applicable to UK consolidation group reports

Note 5

It is one Month if the report relates to a non-UK DLG by modification or the firm has a whole-firm liquidity modification.

31/12/2010

Regulated Activity Group 2.1

SUP 16.12.8

(1) The financial reporting requirements for RAG 2.1 activities for insurers, excluding friendly societies, are set out in IPRU(INS).

(2) The financial reporting requirements for RAG 2.1 activities for friendly societies are set out in IPRU(FSOC).

(3) A UK insurance special purpose vehicle must submit a copy of its annual audited financial statements within 3 months of its accounting reference date, but the report is only required if it was audited as a result of a statutory provision other than under the Act.

01/01/2008

Regulated Activity Group 2.2

SUP 16.12.9

The applicable data items referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out according to type of firm in the table below.
The applicable reporting frequencies for submission of data items and periods referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out in the table below and are calculated from a firm's accounting reference date, unless indicated otherwise.
The applicable due dates for submission referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out in the table below. The due dates are the last day of the periods given in the table below following the relevant reporting frequency period.

Member's adviser (note 3)

the Society (note 1)

Description of data item and data item

Frequency

Submission deadline

Description of data item

Frequency

Submission deadline

Annual report and accounts

Annually

6 month's after the Society's accounting reference date

Annual Lloyd's return

Annually

6 months after the Society's accounting reference date

Syndicate accounts and reports (note 2)

Annually

6 months after the Society's accounting reference date

Quarterly reporting statement

Quarterly

15 business days after the quarter end

Balance Sheet

FSA001 (notes 15, 20) or

Quarterly or half yearly

(note 14)

FSA029

Quarterly (note 14)

(note 14)

Income Statement

FSA002 (note20), or

Quarterly or half yearly (note 14)

(note 14)

FSA030

Quarterly

(note 14)

Capital Adequacy

FSA003 (notes 4, 20) or

Monthly, quarterly or half yearly (note 14)

(note 14)

FSA033 (note 12) or

Quarterly

(note 14)

FSA034 (note 13) or

Quarterly

(note 14)

FSA035 (note 13)

Quarterly

(note 14)

Credit Risk

FSA004 (notes 5, 20)

Quarterly or half yearly (note 14)

(note 14)

Market Risk

FSA005 (notes 6, 20)

Quarterly or half yearly (note 14)

(note 14)

Large Exposures

FSA008 (Notes 20, 21)

Quarterly

20 business days (note 19)

Note 1

The Society must prepare its reports in the format specified in IPRU(INS) Appendix 9.11, unless Note 2 applies.

Note 2

The Society must ensure that the annual syndicate accounts and reports are prepared in accordance with the Insurance Accounts Directive (Lloyd's Syndicate and Aggregate Accounts) Regulations 2008 (S.I. 2008/1950).

Note 3

A member's adviser must prepare its reports in accordance with, and in the format set out in, SUP 16 Annex 10 and as required by section 6 of that annex. Guidance notes for the completion of the reports is contained in SUP 16 Annex 11.

Note 4

Only firms subject to IPRU(INV) 4 report data item FSA003.

Note 5

This applies to a firm that is required to submit data item FSA003 and, at anytime within the 12 months up to its latest accounting reference date ("the relevant period"), was reporting data item FSA004 ("Firm A") or not reporting this item ("Firm B").

In the case of Firm A it must report this data item if one or both of its last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold was exceeded.

In the case of Firm B it must report this item if both the last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold has been exceeded.

The threshold is exceeded where data element 77A in data item FSA003 is greater than £10 million, or its currency equivalent, at the relevant reporting date for the firm.

Note 6

This applies to a firm that is required to submit data item FSA003 and, at anytime within the 12 months up to its latest accounting reference date ("the relevant period"), was reporting data item FSA005 ("Firm A") or not reporting this item ("Firm B").

In the case of Firm A it must report this data item if one or both of its last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold was exceeded.

In the case of Firm B it must report this item if both the last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold has been exceeded.

The threshold is exceeded where data element 93A in data item FSA003 is greater than £50 million, or its currency equivalent, at the relevant reporting date for the firm.

Note 7

[deleted]

Note 8

[deleted]

Note 9

[deleted]

Note 10

[deleted]

Note 11

[deleted]

Note 12

FSA033 is only applicable to firms subject to IPRU(INV) 3

Note 13

Only applicable to firms subject to IPRU(INV) 5. FSA034 must be completed by a firm not subject to the exemption in IPRU(INV) 5.2.3(2)R.

FSA035 must be completed by a firm subject to the exemption in IPRU(INV) 5.2.3(2)R.

Note 14

BIPRU 50K firms report half yearly on 30 business days submission, all other BIPRU firms on unconsolidated basis report quarterly on 20 business days submission. All UK consolidation group reports report half yearly on 45 business days submission. All other firms report monthly on 20 business days submission.

Note 15

This data item only applies to BIPRU firms.

Note 16

[deleted]

Note 17

[deleted]

Note 18

[deleted]

Note 19

UK consolidation group reports have 45 business days submission.

Note 20

Firms that are members of a UK consolidation group are also required to submit FSA001, FSA002, FSA003, FSA004, FSA005 and FSA008 on a UK consolidation group basis.

Note 21

This will not be applicable to BIPRU limited activity firms or BIPRU limited licence firms unless they have a waiver under BIPRU 6.1.2 G.

31/12/2010

SUP 16.12.9A

A Member's adviser that is also a BIPRU investment firm will also fall under one of the higher number RAGs that apply to BIPRU investment firms . That means that it will have to report a number of data items in addition to the ones that it has to supply under RAG 2.2.

01/12/2009

Regulated Activity Group 3

SUP 16.12.10

(1) SUP 16.12.11 R to SUP 16.12.13 R do not apply to:

(a) a lead regulated firm (except in relation to data items 47 to 55 (inclusive));

(b) an OPS firm;

(d) a service company.

(2) A lead regulated firm and an OPS firm must submit a copy of its annual report and audited accounts within 80 business days from its accounting reference date.

(3) A service company must submit a copy of its annual audited financial statements within 6 months from its accounting reference date. However, the firm need only submit this if the report was audited as a result of a statutory provision other than the Act.

01/12/2009

SUP 16.12.11

The applicable data items referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out according to firm type in the table below:

Description of data item

Firms' prudential category and applicable data items (note 1)

BIPRU firms (note 17)

Firms other than BIPRU firms

730K

125K and UCITS investment firms

50K

IPRU(INV) Chapter 3

IPRU(INV) Chapter 5

IPRU(INV) Chapter 9

IPRU(INV) Chapter 13

UPRU

Annual report and accounts

No standard format

No standard format (note 19)

No standard format

Annual report and accounts of the mixed-activity holding company (note 10)

No standard format

Solvency statement

No standard format (note 11)

No standard format (note 20)

No standard format (note 11)

Balance sheet

FSA001 (note 2)

FSA029 (note 18)

FSA029

FSA029 (note 15) or Section A RMAR (note 15)

FSA029

Income statement

FSA002 (note 2)

FSA030 (note 18)

FSA030

FSA030 (note 15) or Section B RMAR (note 15)

FSA030

Capital adequacy

FSA003 (note 2)

FSA033 (note 18)

FSA034 or FSA035 (note 14)

FSA031

FSA032 (note 15) or Sections D1 and D2 RMAR (note 15)

FSA036

Credit risk

FSA004 (notes 2, 3)

Market risk

FSA005 (notes 2, 4)

Market risk - supplementary

FSA006 (note 5)

Operational risk

FSA007 (notes 2, 6, 7)

Large exposures

FSA008 (Notes 2, 6)

UK integrated group large exposures

FSA018 (note 12)

Solo consolidation data

FSA016 (note 25)

Pillar 2 questionnaire

FSA019 (note 8)

Non-EEA sub-group

FSA028 (note 9)

Threshold conditions

Section F RMAR (note 21)

Client money and client assets

FSA039

FSA039 (note 18)

FSA039

Section C RMAR (note 21) or FSA039

FSA039

CFTC

FSA040
(note 24)

IRB portfolio risk

FSA045 (note 22)

Securitisation: non-trading book

FSA046 (note 23)

Daily Flows

FSA047 (Notes 26, 29 and 31)

Enhanced Mismatch Report

FSA048 (Notes 26, 29 and 31)

Liquidity Buffer Qualifying Securities

FSA050 (Notes 27, 30 and 31)

Funding Concentration

FSA051 (Notes 27, 30 and 31)

Pricing data

FSA052 (Notes 27, 30 and 31)

Retail and corporate funding

FSA053 (Notes 27, 30 and 31)

Currency Analysis

FSA054 (Notes 27, 30 and 31)

Systems and Controls Questionnaire

FSA055 (Note 28)

Securitisation: trading book

FSA058 (Note 32)

Note 1

When submitting the completed data item required, a firm must use the format of the data item set out in SUP 16 Annex 24. Guidance notes for completion of the data items are contained in SUP 16 Annex 25.

Note 2

Firms that are members of a UK consolidation group are also required to submit this report on a UK consolidation group basis.

Note 3

This applies to a firm that is required to submit data item FSA003 and, at any time within the 12 months up to its latest accounting reference date ("the relevant period"), was reporting data item FSA004 ("Firm A") or not reporting this item ("Firm B").

In the case of Firm A it must report this data item if one or both of its last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold was exceeded.

In the case of Firm B it must report this item if both the last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold has been exceeded.

Thethreshold is exceeded where data element 77A in data item FSA003 is greater than £10 million, or its currency equivalent, at the relevant reporting date for the firm.

Note 4

This applies to a firm that is required to submit data item FSA003 and, at anytime within the 12 months up to its latest accounting reference date ("the relevant period"), was reporting data item FSA005 ("Firm A") or not reporting this item ("Firm B").

In the case of Firm A it must report this data item if one or both of its last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold was exceeded.

In the case of Firm B it must report this item if both the last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold has been exceeded.

The threshold is exceeded where data element 93A in data item FSA003 is greater than £50 million, or its currency equivalent, at the relevant reporting date for the firm.

Note 5

Only applicable to firms with a VaR model permission.

Note 6

This will not be applicable to BIPRU limited activity firms or BIPRU limited licence firms unless they have a waiver under BIPRU 6.1.2 G.

Note 7

This is only applicable to a firm that has adopted, in whole or in part,either the standardised approach, alternative standardised approach, or advanced measurement approach underBIPRU 6

Note 8

Only applicable to BIPRU investment firms that:
(a) are subject to consolidated supervision under BIPRU 8, except those that are either included within the consolidated supervision of a group that includes a UK credit institution, or that have been granted an investment firm consolidation waiver; or

(b) have been granted an investment firm consolidation waiver;or

(c) are not subject to consolidated supervision under BIPRU 8.

A BIPRU investment firm under (a) mustcomplete the report on the basis of its UK consolidation group. A BIPRU investment firm under (b) or (c) mustcomplete the report on the basis of its solo position.

Note 9

This will be applicable to firms that are members of a UK consolidation group on the reporting date.

Note 10

Only applicable to a firm whose ultimate parent is a mixed activity holding company.

Note 11

Only applicable to a firm that is a sole trader or a partnership, when the report must be submitted by each partner.

Note 12

Members of a UK integrated group should only submit this data item at the UK integrated group level.

Note 13

This does not apply to a firm subject to IPRU(INV) Chapter 13 which is an exempt CAD firm.

Note 14

FSA034 must be completed by a firm not subject to the exemption in IPRU(INV) 5.2.3(2)R.
FSA035 must be completed by a firm subject to the exemption in IPRU(INV) 5.2.3(2)R.

Note 15

FSA029, FSA030 and FSA032 must be completed bya firm subject to IPRU(INV) Chapter 13 which is an exempt CAD firm. Section A or Section B RMAR and Sections D1 and D2 RMAR only apply to a firm subject to IPRU(INV) Chapter 13 which is not an exempt CAD firm.

Note 16

[deleted]

Note 17

An exempt BIPRU commodity firm will, by virtue of the definition of BIPRU TP 15, be exempt from completing FSA003 (and thus FSA004, FSA005, FSA006 and FSA007) for the duration of the transitional provision. It is however required to submit all other data items applicable according to the firm's BIPRU classification including, for the avoidance of doubt, BIPRU TP 16.

Note 18

Except if the firm is an adviser, local or traded options market maker (as referred to in IPRU(INV) 3-60(4)R.

Note 19

In the case of an adviser, local or traded options market maker (as referred to in IPRU(INV) 3-60(4)R), it is only required from partnerships and bodies corporate, and then only if the report was audited as a result of a statutory provision other than under the Act.

Note 20

Only required in the case of an adviser, local or traded options market maker (as referred to in IPRU(INV) 3-60(4)R) that is a sole trader.

Note 21

[deleted]

Note 22

Only applicable to firms that have an IRB permission.

Note 23

Only applicable to firms that hold securitisation positions, or are the originator or sponsor of securitisations. of non-trading book exposures.

Note 24

Only applicable to firms granted a Part 30 exemption order and operating an arrangement to cover forward profits on the London Metals Exchange.

Note 25

Only applicable to a firm that has a solo consolidation waiver.

Note 26

A firm must complete this item separately on each of the following bases (if applicable).
(1) It must complete it on a solo basis. Therefore even if it has a solo consolidation waiver it must complete the item on an unconsolidated basis by reference to the firm alone.
(2) If it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a DLG by default and is a UK lead regulated firm, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.
(3) If it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a UK DLG by modification, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.
(4) If it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a non-UK DLG by modification, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.

Note 27

A firm must complete this item separately on each of the following bases that are applicable.
(1) It must complete it on a solo basis unless it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a UK DLG by modification. Therefore even if it has a solo consolidation waiver it must complete the item on an unconsolidated basis by reference to the firm alone.
(2) If it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a UK DLG by modification, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.

Note 28

If it is a non-ILAS BIPRU firm, it must complete it on a solo basis. Therefore even if it has a solo consolidation waiver it must complete the item on an unconsolidated basis by reference to the firm alone.

Note 29

Note 30

Note 29 applies, except that paragraph (3) does not apply, meaning that material currencies must not be recorded separately.

Note 31

Any changes to reporting requirements caused by a firm receiving an intra-group liquidity modification (or a variation to one) do not take effect until the first day of the next reporting period applicable under the changed reporting requirements for the data item in question if the firm receives that intra-group liquidity modification or variation part of the way through such a period. If the change is that the firm does not have to report a particular data item or does not have to report it at a particular reporting level, the firm must nevertheless report that item or at that reporting level for any reporting period that has already begun. This paragraph is subject to anything that the intra-group liquidity modification says to the contrary.

Note 32

Only applicable to firms that hold securitisation positions, or are the originator or sponsor of securitisationsof trading book exposures.

31/12/2010

SUP 16.12.11A

The columns in the table in SUP 16.12.11 R that deal with BIPRU 50K firms and BIPRU 125K firms cover some liquidity items that only have to be reported by an ILAS BIPRU firm. In fact a BIPRU 50K firm and a BIPRU 125K firm cannot be an ILAS BIPRU firm. One reason for drafting the table in this way is that the classification of firms into ILAS BIPRU firms and non-ILAS BIPRU firms is not based on the classification into BIPRU 50K firms, BIPRU 125K firms and BIPRU 730K firms and the drafting of the table emphasises that. Also, the table covers consolidated reports and the conditions about what sort of group has to supply what type of liquidity report do not always depend on how the individual firm is classified.

01/12/2009

SUP 16.12.12

The applicable reporting frequencies for data items referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out in the table below according to firm type. Reporting frequencies are calculated from a firm's accounting reference date, unless indicated otherwise.

Data Item

BIPRU 730K firm

BIPRU 125K firm and UCITS investment firm

BIPRU 50K firm

UK consolidation group or defined liquidity group

Firm other than BIPRU firms

Annual report and accounts

Annually

Annual report and accounts of the mixed-activity holding company

Annually

Solvency statement

Annually

FSA001

Quarterly

Half yearly

FSA002

Quarterly

Half yearly

FSA003

Monthly

Quarterly

Half yearly

FSA004

Quarterly

Half yearly

FSA005

Quarterly

Half yearly

FSA006

Quarterly

FSA007

Annual (note 4)

FSA008

Quarterly

FSA016

Half yearly

FSA018

Quarterly

FSA019

Annually

FSA028

Half yearly

FSA029

Quarterly

FSA030

Quarterly

FSA031

Quarterly

FSA032

Quarterly

FSA033

Quarterly

FSA034

Quarterly

FSA035

Quarterly

FSA036

Quarterly

FSA039

Half yearly

FSA040

Quarterly

FSA045

Quarterly

Half yearly

FSA046

Quarterly

FSA047

Daily, weekly, monthly or quarterly (Notes 5, 6 and 8)

Daily, weekly, monthly or quarterly (Notes 5, 7 and 8)

FSA048

Daily, weekly, monthly or quarterly (Notes 5, 6 and 8)

Daily, weekly, monthly or quarterly (Notes 5, 7 and 8)

FSA050

Monthly (Note 5)

FSA051

Monthly (Note 5)

FSA052

Weekly or monthly (Notes 5 and 9)

Weekly or monthly (Notes 5 and 10)

FSA053

Quarterly (Note 5)

FSA054

Quarterly (Note 5)

FSA055

Annually (Note 5)

FSA058

Quarterly

Section A RMAR

Half yearly (note 2) Quarterly (note 3)

Section B RMAR

Half yearly (note 2) Quarterly (note 3)

Section C RMAR

Half yearly (note 2) Quarterly (note 3)

Section D1 and D2 RMAR

Half yearly (note 2) Quarterly (note 3)

Section F RMAR

Half yearly

Note 1

[deleted]

Note 2

Annual regulated business revenue up to and including £5 million.

Note 3

Annual regulated business revenue over £5 million.

Note 4

The reporting date for this data item is six months after a firm's most recent accounting reference date.

Note 5

Reporting frequencies and reporting periods for this data item are calculated on a calendar year basis and not from a firm's accounting reference date. In particular:

(1) A week means the period beginning on Saturday and ending on Friday.

(2) A month begins on the first day of the calendar month and ends on the last day of that month.

(3) Quarters end on 31 March, 30 June, 30 September and 31 December.

(4) Daily means each business day.

All periods are calculated by reference to London time.

Any changes to reporting requirements caused by a firm receiving an intra-group liquidity modification (or a variation to one) do not take effect until the first day of the next reporting period applicable under the changed reporting requirements if the firm receives that intra-group liquidity modification or variation part of the way through such a period, unless the intra-group liquidity modification says otherwise.

Note 6

If the report is on a solo basis the reporting frequency is as follows:

(1) if the firm does not have an intra-group liquidity modification the frequency is:

(a) weekly if the firm is a standard frequency liquidity reporting firm; and

(b) monthly if the firm is a low frequency liquidity reporting firm;

(2) if the firm is a group liquidity reporting firm in a non-UK DLG by modification (firm level) the frequency is:

(a) weekly if the firm is a standard frequency liquidity reporting firm; and

(b) monthly if the firm is a low frequency liquidity reporting firm;

(3) the frequency is quarterly if the firm is a group liquidity reporting firm in a UK DLG by modification.

Note 7

(1) If the report is by reference to the firm's DLG by default the reporting frequency is:

(a) weekly if the group liquidity standard frequency reporting conditions are met;

(b) monthly if the group liquidity low frequency reporting conditions are met.

(2) If the report is by reference to the firm's UK DLG by modification the reporting frequency is:

(a) weekly if the group liquidity standard frequency reporting conditions are met;

(b) monthly if the group liquidity low frequency reporting conditions are met.

(3) If the report is by reference to the firm's non-UK DLG by modification the reporting frequency is quarterly.

Note 8

(1) If the reporting frequency is otherwise weekly, the item is to be reported on every business day if (and for as long as) there is a firm-specific liquidity stress or market liquidity stress in relation to the firm or group in question.

(2) If the reporting frequency is otherwise monthly, the item is to be reported weekly if (and for as long as) there is a firm-specific liquidity stress or market liquidity stress in relation to the firm or group in question.

(3) A firm must ensure that it would be able at all times to meet the requirements for daily or weekly reporting under paragraph (1) or (2) even if there is no firm-specific liquidity stress or market liquidity stress and none is expected.

Note 9

If the report is on a solo basis the reporting frequency is as follows:

(1) weekly if the firm is a standard frequency liquidity reporting firm; and

(2) monthly if the firm is a low frequency liquidity reporting firm.

Note 10

If the report is by reference to the firm's UK DLG by modification the reporting frequency is:

(1) weekly if the group liquidity standard frequency reporting conditions are met;

(2) monthly if the group liquidity low frequency reporting conditions are met.

31/12/2010

SUP 16.12.13

Data item

Daily

Weekly

Monthly

Quarterly

Half yearly

Annual

Annual report and accounts

80 business days

Annual report and accounts of the mixed-activity holding company

7 months

Solvency statement

3 months

FSA001

20 business days

30 business days (note 1)
45 business days (note 2)

FSA002

20 business days

30 business days (note 1)
45 business days (note 2)

FSA003

15 business days

20 business days

30 business days (note 1)
45 business days (note 2)

FSA004

20 business days

30 business days (note 1)
45 business days (note 2)

FSA005

20 business days

30 business days (note 1)
45 business days (note 2)

FSA006

20 business days

FSA007

2 months

FSA008

20 business days (note 1);
45 business days (note 2)

FSA016

30 business days

FSA018

45 business days

FSA019

2 months

FSA028

FSA029

FSA030

FSA031

FSA032

FSA033

FSA034

FSA035

FSA036

FSA039

FSA040

FSA045

30 business days (note 1), 45 business days (note 2)

FSA046

20 business days (Note 1), 45 business days (Note 2)

FSA047

22.00 hours (London time) on the business day immediately following the last day of the reporting period for the item in question

15 business days

15 business days or one Month (Note 3)

FSA048

22.00 hours (London time) on the business day immediately following the last day of the reporting period for the item in question

15 business days

15 business days or one Month (Note 3)

FSA050

15 business days

FSA051

15 business days

FSA052

22.00 hours (London time) on the second business day immediately following the last day of the reporting period for the item in question

FSA053

FSA054

FSA055

FSA058

20 business days (Note 1), 45 business days (Note 2)

Section A RMAR

30 business days

Section B RMAR

30 business days

Section C RMAR

30 business days

Section D1 and D2 D6 RMAR

30 business days

Section F RMAR

30 business days

Note 1

For unconsolidated and solo-consolidated reports.

Note 2

For UK consolidation group reports.

Note 3

It is one Month if the report relates to a non-UK DLG by modification.

31/12/2010

Regulated Activity Group 4

SUP 16.12.14

(1) SUP 16.12.15 R to SUP 16.12.17 R do not apply to:

(a) a lead regulated firm (except in relation to data items 47 to 55 (inclusive));

(b) an OPS firm;

(2) A lead regulated firm and an OPS firm must submit a copy of its annual report and audited accounts within 80 business days from its accounting reference date.

01/12/2009

SUP 16.12.15

The applicable data items referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R according to type of firm are set out in the table below:

Description of data item

Firms' prudential category and applicable data items (note 1)

BIPRU

Firms other than BIPRU firms

730K

125K and UCITS investment firms

50K

IPRU(INV) Chapter 3

IPRU(INV) Chapter 5

IPRU(INV) Chapter 9

IPRU(INV) Chapter 13

UPRU

Annual report and accounts

No standard format(note 13)

Annual report and accounts of the mixed-activity holding company (note 10)

No standard format

Solvency statement (note 11

No standard format

Balance sheet

FSA001 (note 2)

FSA029

FSA029 (note 15) or Section A RMAR (note 15)

FSA029 (note 16)

Income statement

FSA002 (note 2)

FSA030

FSA030 (note 15) or Section B RMAR (note 15)

FSA030 (note 16)

Capital adequacy

FSA003 (note 2)

FSA033

FSA034 or FSA035 (note 14)

FSA031

Section D1 and D2 RMAR or FSA032 (note 15)

FSA036

Credit risk

FSA004 (notes 2, 3)

Market risk

FSA005 (notes 2, 4)

Market risk - supplementary

FSA006 (note 5)

Operational risk

FSA007 (notes 2, 6, 7)

Large exposures

FSA008 (Notes 2, 6)

UK integrated group large exposures

FSA018 (note 12)

Solo consolidation data

FSA016 (note 20)

Pillar 2 questionnaire

FSA019 (note 8)

Non-EEA sub-group

FSA028 (note 9)

Threshold conditions

Section F RMAR (note 15)

Volumes and type of business (note 21)

FSA038

Client money and client assets

FSA039

Section C RMAR (note 15) or FSA039

FSA039

Asset managers that use hedge fund techniques (note 21)

FSA041

UCITS (note 22)

FSA042

IRB portfolio risk

FSA045 (note 18)

Securitisation: non-trading book

FSA046 (note 19)

Daily Flows

FSA047 (Notes 23, 26 and 28)

Enhanced Mismatch Report

FSA048 (Notes 23, 26 and 28)

Liquidity Buffer Qualifying Securities

FSA050 (Notes 24, 27 and 28)

Funding Concentration

FSA051 (Notes 24, 27 and 28)

Pricing data

FSA052 (Notes 24, 27 and 28)

Retail and corporate funding

FSA053 (Notes 24, 27 and 28)

Currency Analysis

FSA054 (Notes 24, 27 and 28)

Systems and Controls Questionnaire

FSA055 (Note 25)

Securitisation: trading book

FSA058 (Note 29)

Note 1

When submitting the completed data item required, a firm must use the format of the data item set out in SUP 16 Annex 24 R. Guidance notes for completion of the data items are contained in SUP 16 Annex 25 G.

Note 2

Firms that are members of a UK consolidation group are also required to submit this report on a UK consolidation group basis.

Note 3

This applies to a firm that is required to submit data item FSA003 and at anytime within the 12 months up to its latest accounting reference date ("the relevant period"), was reporting data item FSA004 ("Firm A") or not reporting this item ("Firm B").

In the case of Firm A it must report this data item if one or both of its last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold was exceeded.

In the case of Firm B it must report this item if both the last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold has been exceeded.

The threshold is exceeded where data element 77A in data item FSA003 is greater than £10 million, or its currency equivalent, at the relevant reporting datefor the firm.

Note 4

This applies to a firm that is required to submit data item FSA003 and at any time within the 12 months up to its latest accounting reference date ("the relevant period"), was reporting data item FSA005 ("Firm A") or not reporting this item ("Firm B").

In the case of Firm A it must report this data item if one or both of its last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold was exceeded.

In the case of Firm B it must report this item if both the last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold has been exceeded.

The threshold is exceeded where data element 93A in data item FSA003 is greater than £50 million, or its currency equivalent, at the relevant reporting date for the firm.

Note 5

Only applicable to firms with a VaR model permission.

Note 6

This will not be applicable to BIPRU limited activity firms or BIPRU limited licence firms unless they have a waiver under BIPRU 6.1.2 G.

Note 7

This is only applicable to a firm that has adopted, in whole or in part, either the standardised approach, alternative standardised approach, or advanced measurement approachunder BIPRU 6 .

Note 8

Only applicable to BIPRU investment firms that :

(a) are subject to consolidated supervision under BIPRU 8, except those that are either included within the consolidated supervision of a group that includes a UK credit institution, or that have been granted an investment firm consolidation waiver;or
(b) have been granted an investment firm consolidation waiver;
or
(c) are not subject to consolidated supervision under BIPRU 8.

A BIPRU investment firm under (a) must complete the report on the basis of its UK consolidation group. A BIPRU investment firm under (b) or (c) must complete the report on the basis of its solo position.

Note 9

This will be applicable to firms that are members of a UK consolidation group on the reporting date.

Note 10

Only applicable to a firm whose ultimate parent is a mixed-activity holding company.

Note 11

Only applicable to a firm that is a sole trader or a partnership, when the report must be submitted by each partner.

Note 12

Members of a UK integrated group should only submit this data item at the UK integrated group level.

Note 13

This data item is applicable to all firms in this table except a firm subject to IPRU(INV) Chapter 13 which is not an exempt CAD firm.

Note 14

FSA034 must be completed by a firm not subject to the exemption in IPRU(INV) 5.2.3(2)R.
FSA035 must be completed by a firm subject to the exemption in IPRU(INV) 5.2.3(2)R.

Note 15

FSA029, FSA030 and FSA032 must be completed by a firm subject to IPRU(INV) Chapter 13 which is an exempt CAD firm.
Section A, B, C or F RMAR and Sections D1 and D2 RMAR only apply to a firm subject to IPRU(INV) Chapter 13 which is not an exempt CAD firm.

Note 16

[deleted]

Note 17

[deleted]

Note 18

Only applicable to firms that have an IRB permission.

Note 19

Only applicable to firms that hold securitisation positions, or are the originator or sponsor of securitisations of non-trading book exposures.

Note 20

Only applicable to a firm that has a solo consolidation waiver.

Note 21

Only applicable to firms that have a managing investments permission.

Note 22

Only applicable to firms that have permission for establishing, operating or winding up a regulated collective investment scheme.

Note 23

A firm must complete this item separately on each of the following bases (if applicable).

(1) It must complete it on a solo basis. Therefore even if it has a solo consolidation waiver it must complete the item on an unconsolidated basis by reference to the firm alone.

(2) If it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a DLG by default and is a UK lead regulated firm, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.

(3) If it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a UK DLG by modification, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.

(4) If it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a non-UK DLG by modification, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.

Note 24

A firm must complete this item separately on each of the following bases that are applicable.

(1) It must complete it on a solo basis unless it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a UK DLG by modification. Therefore even if it has a solo consolidation waiver it must complete the item on an unconsolidated basis by reference to the firm alone.

(2) If it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a UK DLG by modification, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.

Note 25

Note 26

(1) This item must be reported in the reporting currency.

(2) If any data element is in a currency or currencies other than the reporting currency, all currencies (including the reporting currency) must be combined into a figure in the reporting currency.

(3) In addition, all material currencies (which may include the reporting currency) must each be recorded separately (translated into the reporting currency). However if:

(a) the reporting frequency is (whether under a rule or under a waiver) quarterly or less than quarterly; or
(b) the only material currency is the reporting currency;

(3) does not apply.
(4) If there are more than three material currencies for this data item, (3) only applies to the three largest in amount. A firm must identify the largest in amount in accordance with the following procedure.
(a) For each currency, take the largest of the asset or liability figure as referred to in the definition of material currency.
(b) Take the three largest figures from the resulting list of amounts.
(5) The date as at which the calculations for the purposes of the definition of material currency are carried out is the last day of the reporting period in question.

(6) The reporting currency for this data item is whichever of the following currencies the firm chooses, namely USD (the United States Dollar), EUR (the euro), GBP (sterling), JPY (the Japanese Yen), CHF (the Swiss Franc), CAD (the Canadian Dollar) or SEK (the Swedish Krona).

Note 27

Note 26 applies, except that paragraph (3) does not apply, meaning that material currencies must not be recorded separately.

Note 28

Note 29

Only applicable to firms that hold securitisation positions, or are the originator or sponsor of securitisationsof trading book exposures.

31/12/2010

SUP 16.12.15A

The columns in the table in SUP 16.12.15 R that deal with BIPRU 50K firms and BIPRU 125K firms cover some liquidity items that only have to be reported by an ILAS BIPRU firm. In fact a BIPRU 50K firm and a BIPRU 125K firm cannot be an ILAS BIPRU firm. One reason for drafting the table in this way is that the classification of firms into ILAS BIPRU firms and non-ILAS BIPRU firms is not based on the classification into BIPRU 50K firms, BIPRU 125K firmsand BIPRU 730K firms and the drafting of the table emphasises that. Also, the table covers consolidated reports and the conditions about what sort of group has to supply what type of liquidity report do not always depend on how the individual firm is classified.

01/12/2009

SUP 16.12.16

The applicable reporting frequencies for data items referred to in SUP 16.12.15 R are set out in the table below according to firm type. Reporting frequencies are calculated from a firm's accounting reference date, unless indicated otherwise.

Data item

Firms' prudential category

BIPRU 730K firm

BIPRU 125K firm and UCITS investment firm

BIPRU 50K firm

UK consolidation group or defined liquidity group

Firm other than BIPRU firms

Annual report and accounts

Annually

Annual report and accounts of the mixed-activity holding company

Annually

Solvency statement

Annually

FSA001

Quarterly

Half yearly

FSA002

Quarterly

Half yearly

FSA003

Monthly

Quarterly

Half yearly

FSA004

Quarterly

Half yearly

FSA005

Quarterly

Half yearly

FSA006

Quarterly

FSA007

Annual(note 4)

Annual (note 4)

FSA008

Quarterly

FSA016

Half yearly

FSA018

Quarterly

FSA019

Annually

FSA028

Half yearly

FSA029

Quarterly

FSA030

Quarterly

FSA031

Quarterly

FSA032

Quarterly

FSA033

Quarterly

FSA034

Quarterly

FSA035

Quarterly

FSA036

Quarterly

FSA038

Half yearly

FSA039

Half yearly

FSA041

Annually

FSA042

Quarterly

FSA045

Quarterly

Half yearly

FSA046

Quarterly

FSA047

Daily, weekly, monthly or quarterly (Notes 5, 6 and 8)

Daily, weekly, monthly or quarterly (Notes 5, 7 and 8)

FSA048

Daily, weekly, monthly or quarterly (Notes 5, 6 and 8)

Daily, weekly, monthly or quarterly (Notes 5, 7 and 8)

FSA050

Monthly (Note 5)

FSA051

Monthly (Note 5)

FSA052

Weekly or monthly (Notes 5 and 9)

Weekly or monthly (Notes 5 and 10)

FSA053

Quarterly (Note 5)

FSA054

Quarterly (Note 5)

FSA055

Annually (Note 5)

FSA058

Quarterly

Section A RMAR

Half yearly (note 2) Quarterly (note 3)

Section B RMAR

Half yearly (note 2) Quarterly (note 3)

Section C RMAR

Half yearly (note 2) Quarterly (note 3)

Section D1 and D2 RMAR

Half yearly (note 2) Quarterly (note 3)

Section F RMAR

Half yearly

Note 1

[deleted]

Note 2

Annual regulated business revenue up to and including £5 million.

Note 3

Annual regulated business revenue over £5 million.

Note 4

The reporting date for this data item is six months after a firm's most recent accounting reference date.

Note 5

Reporting frequencies and reporting periods for this data item are calculated on a calendar year basis and not from a firm's accounting reference date. In particular:

(1) A week means the period beginning on Saturday and ending on Friday.

(2) A month begins on the first day of the calendar month and ends on the last day of that month.

(3) Quarters end on 31 March, 30 June, 30 September and 31 December.

(4) Daily means each business day.

All periods are calculated by reference to London time.

Any changes to reporting requirements caused by a firm receiving an intra-group liquidity modification (or a variation to one) do not take effect until the first day of the next reporting period applicable under the changed reporting requirements if the firm receives that intra-group liquidity modification or variation part of the way through such a period, unless the intra-group liquidity modification says otherwise.

Note 6

Note 7

(1) If the report is by reference to the firm's DLG by default the reporting frequency is:

(a) weekly if the group liquidity standard frequency reporting conditions are met;

(b) monthly if the group liquidity low frequency reporting conditions are met.

(2) If the report is by reference to the firm's UK DLG by modification the reporting frequency is:

(a) weekly if the group liquidity standard frequency reporting conditions are met;

(b) monthly if the group liquidity low frequency reporting conditions are met.

(3) If the report is by reference to the firm's non-UK DLG by modification the reporting frequency is quarterly.

Note 8

(1) If the reporting frequency is otherwise weekly, the item is to be reported on every business day if (and for as long as) there is a firm-specific liquidity stress or market liquidity stress in relation to the firm or group in question.

(2) If the reporting frequency is otherwise monthly, the item is to be reported weekly if (and for as long as) there is a firm-specific liquidity stress or market liquidity stress in relation to the firm or group in question.

(3) A firm must ensure that it would be able at all times to meet the requirements for daily or weekly reporting under paragraph (1) or (2) even if there is no firm-specific liquidity stress or market liquidity stress and none is expected.

Note 9

Note 10

If the report is by reference to the firm's UK DLG by modification the reporting frequency is:

(1) weekly if the group liquidity standard frequency reporting conditions are met;

(2) monthly if the group liquidity low frequency reporting conditions are met.

31/12/2010

SUP 16.12.17

Data item

Daily

Weekly

Monthly

Quarterly

Half yearly

Annual

Annual report and accounts

80 business days

Annual report and accounts of the mixed-activity holding company

7 months

Solvency statement

3 months

FSA001

20 business days

30 business days (note 2); 45 business days (note 3 )

FSA002

20 business days

30 business days (note 2); 45 business days (note 3)

FSA003

15 business days

20 business days

30 business days (note 2); 45 business days (note 3)

FSA004

20 business days

30 business days (note 2); 45 business days (note 3)

FSA005

20 business days

30 business days (note 2); 45 business days (note 3)

FSA006

20 business days

FSA007

2 months

FSA008

20 business days (note 2); 45 business days (note 3)

FSA016

30 business days

FSA018

45 business days

FSA019

2 months

FSA028

FSA029

FSA030

FSA031

FSA032

FSA033

FSA034

FSA035

FSA036

FSA038

FSA039

FSA041

FSA042

FSA045

30 business days (note 2); 45 business days (note 3)

FSA046

20 business days (Note 2), 45 business days (Note 3)

FSA047

22.00 hours (London time) on the business day immediately following the last day of the reporting period for the item in question

15 business days

15 business days or one Month (Note 4)

FSA048

22.00 hours (London time) on the business day immediately following the last day of the reporting period for the item in question

15 business days

15 business days or one Month (Note 4)

FSA050

15 business days

FSA051

15 business days

FSA052

22.00 hours (London time) on the second business day immediately following the last day of the reporting period for the item in question

FSA053

FSA054

FSA055

FSA058

20 business days (Note 2), 45 business days (Note 3)

Section A RMAR

30 business days

Section B RMAR

30 business days

Section C RMAR

30 business days

Section D1 and D2 RMAR

30 business days

Section F RMAR

30 business days

Note 1

[deleted]

Note 2

For unconsolidated and solo-consolidated reports.

Note 3

For UK consolidation group reports.

Note 4

It is one Month if the report relates to a non-UK DLG by modification.

31/12/2010

Regulated Activity Group 5

SUP 16.12.18

(1) SUP 16.12.18A R does not apply to:

(a) a lead regulated firm;

(b) an OPS firm;

(2) A lead regulated firm and an OPS firm must submit a copy of its annual report and audited accounts within 80 business days from its accounting reference date.

01/01/2008

SUP 16.12.18A

The applicable data items, reporting frequencies and submission deadlines referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out in the table below. Reporting frequencies are calculated from a firm's accounting reference date , unless indicated otherwise. The due dates are the last day of the periods given in the table below following the relevant reporting frequency period.

Description of data item

Data item (note 1)

Frequency

Submission deadline

Annual report and accounts

No standard format

Annually

80 business days

Balance Sheet

Sections A.1 and A.2 MLAR

Quarterly

20 business days

Income Statement

Sections B.0 and B.1 MLAR

Quarterly

20 business days

Capital Adequacy

Section C MLAR

Quarterly

20 business days

Lending - Business flow and rates

Section D MLAR

Quarterly

20 business days

Residential Lending to individuals - New business profile

Section E MLAR

Quarterly

20 business days

Lending - Arrears analysis

Section F MLAR

Quarterly

20 business days

Mortgage administration - Business profile

Section G MLAR

Quarterly

20 business days

Mortgage Administration - Arrears analysis

Section H MLAR

Quarterly

20 business days

Analysis of loans to customers

Section A3 MLAR

Quarterly

20 business days

Provisions analysis

Section B2 MLAR

Quarterly

20 business days

Fees and levies

Section J MLAR

Annually

30 business days

Sale and rent back

Section K MLAR

Annually

30 business days

Note 1

When submitting the completed data item required, a firm must use the format of the data item set out in SUP 16 Annex 19A. Guidance notes for the completion of the data items is set out in SUP 16 Annex 19B.

30/06/2010

Regulated Activity Group 6

SUP 16.12.19

(1) SUP 16.12.19A R to SUP 16.12.21 R do not apply to:

(a) a lead regulated firm;

(b) an OPS firm;

(2) A lead regulated firm and an OPS firm must submit a copy of its annual report and audited accounts within 80 business days from its accounting reference date.

01/01/2008

SUP 16.12.19A

The applicable data items referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out according to type of firm in the table below:

Description of data item

Firm's prudential category and applicable data item (note 1)

IPRU(INV) Chapter 3

IPRU(INV) Chapter 5

IPRU(INV) Chapter 9

IPRU(INV) Chapter 13

UPRU

Annual report and accounts

No standard format

Solvency statement (note 6)

No standard format

Balance sheet

FSA029

FSA029 or Section A RMAR (note 7)

FSA029

Income statement

FSA030

FSA030 or Section B RMAR (note 7)

FSA030

Capital adequacy

FSA033

FSA034 or FSA035 (note 4)

FSA031

FSA032 (note 5) or Section D1 and D2 RMAR (note 7)

FSA036

Threshold conditions

Section F RMAR

Client money and client assets

FSA039

Section C RMAR (note 7) or FSA039

FSA039

Note 1

Note 2

This does not apply to a firm subject to IPRU(INV) Chapter 13 which is an exempt CAD firm.

Note 3

[deleted]

Note 4

FSA034 must be completed by a firm not subject to the exemption in IPRU(INV) 5.2.3(2)R.
FSA035 must be completed by a firm subject to the exemption in IPRU(INV) 5.2.3(2)R.

Note 5

FSA032 must be completed by a firm subject to IPRU(INV) Chapter 13 which is an exempt CAD firm.

Note 6

Only applicable to a firm that is a partnership, when the report must be submitted by each partner.

Note 7

FSA029 and FSA030 only apply to a firm subject to IPRU(INV) Chapter 13 which is an exempt CAD firm and Sections A and B RMAR only apply to a firm subject to IPRU(INV) Chapter 13 which is not an exempt CAD firm.

06/07/2009

SUP 16.12.20

The applicable reporting frequencies for submission of data items referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out in the table below. Reporting frequencies are calculated from a firm's accounting reference date, unless indicated otherwise.

Annual report and accounts

Annually

Annual reconciliation

Annually

Solvency statement

Annually

FSA029

Quarterly

FSA030

Quarterly

FSA031

Quarterly

FSA032

Quarterly

FSA033

Quarterly

FSA034

Quarterly

FSA035

Quarterly

FSA036

Quarterly

FSA039

Half yearly

Section A RMAR

Half yearly (note 2)
Quarterly (note 3)

Section B RMAR

Half yearly (note 2)
Quarterly (note 3)

Section C RMAR

Half yearly (note 2)
Quarterly (note 3)

Section D1 and D2 RMAR

Half yearly (note 2)
Quarterly (note 3)

Section F RMAR

Half yearly

Note 1

[deleted]

Note 2

Annual regulated business revenue up to and including £5 million.

Note 3

Annual regulated business revenue over £5 million.

06/07/2009

SUP 16.12.21

Data item

Quarterly

Half yearly

Annual

Annual report and accounts

80 business days

Solvency statement

3 months

FSA029

FSA030

FSA031

FSA032

FSA033

FSA034

FSA035

FSA036

FSA039

FSA040

Section A RMAR

Section B RMAR

Section C RMAR

Section D1 and D2 RMAR

30 business days

Section F RMAR

30 business days

06/04/2010

Regulated Activity Group 7

SUP 16.12.22

(1) SUP 16.12.22A R to SUP 16.12.24 R do not apply to:

(a) a lead regulated firm (except in relation to data items 47 to 55 (inclusive));

(b) an OPS firm;

(2) A lead regulated firm and an OPS firm must submit a copy of its annual report and audited accounts within 80 business days from its accounting reference date.

01/12/2009

SUP 16.12.22A

The applicable data items referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out according to type of firm in the table below:

Description of Data item

Firms' prudential category and applicable data item (note 1)

BIPRU 730K firm

BIPRU 125K firm and UCITS investment firm

BIPRU 50K firm

Exempt CAD firms subject to IPRU(INV) Chapter 13

Firms (other than exempt CAD firms) subject to IPRU(INV)Chapter 13

Firms that are also in one or more of RAGs 1 to 6 and not subject to IPRU(INV) Chapter 13

Annual report and accounts

No standard format

Annual report and accounts of the mixed-activity holding company (note 10)

No standard format

Solvency statement

No standard format (note 11)

Balance Sheet

FSA001 (note 2)

Section A RMAR

Income Statement

FSA002 (note 2)

Section B RMAR

Capital Adequacy

FSA003 (note 2)

FSA032

Section D1 and D2 RMAR

Credit risk

FSA004 (notes 2, 3)

Market risk

FSA005 (notes 2, 4)

Market risk - supplementary

FSA006 (note 5)

Operational risk

FSA007 (notes 2, 6, 7)

Large exposures

FSA008 (Notes 2, 6)

UK integrated group large exposures

FSA018 (note 12)

Solo consolidation data

FSA016

Pillar 2 questionnaire

FSA019 (note 8)

Non-EEA sub-group

FSA028 (note 9)

Professional indemnity insurance (note 15)

Section E RMAR

Threshold Conditions

Section F RMAR

Training and Competence

Section G RMAR

COBS data

Section H RMAR

Client money and client assets

Section C RMAR

Fees and levies

Section J RMAR

IRB portfolio risk

FSA045 (note 13)

Securitisation: non-trading book

FSA046 (note 14)

Daily Flows

FSA047 (Notes 16, 19 and 21)

Enhanced Mismatch Report

FSA048 (Notes 16, 19 and 21)

Liquidity Buffer Qualifying Securities

FSA050 (Notes 17, 20 and 21)

Funding Concentration

FSA051 (Notes 17, 20 and 21)

Pricing data

FSA052 (Notes 17, 20 and 21)

Retail and corporate funding

FSA053 (Notes 17, 20 and 21)

Currency Analysis

FSA054 (Notes 17, 20 and 21)

Systems and Controls Questionnaire

FSA055 (Note 18)

Securitisation: trading book

FSA058 (Note 22)

Note 1

When submitting the completed data item required, a firm must use the format of the data item set out in SUP 16 Annex 24 R, or SUP 16 Annex 18A R in the case of the RMAR. Guidance notes for completion of the data items are contained in SUP 16 Annex 25 G, or SUP 16 Annex 18B G in the case of the RMAR.

Note 2

Firms that are members of a UK consolidation group are also required to submit this report on a UK consolidation group basis.

Note 3

This applies to a firm that is required to submit data item FSA003 and, at any tine within the 12 months up to its latest accounting reference date ("the relevant period"), was reporting data item FSA004 ("Firm A") or not reporting this item ("Firm B").

In the case of Firm A it must report this data item if one or both of its last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold was exceeded.

In the case of Firm B it must report this item if both the last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold has been exceeded.

The threshold is exceeded where data element 77A in data item FSA003 is greater than £10 million, or its currency equivalent, at the relevant reporting date for the firm.

Note 4

This applies to a firm that is required to submit data item FSA003 and, at any time within the 12 months up to its latest accounting reference date ("the relevant period"), was reporting data item FSA005 ("Firm A") or not reporting this item ("Firm B").

In the case of Firm A it must report this data item if one or both of its last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold was exceeded.

In the case of Firm B it must report this item if both the last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold has been exceeded.

The threshold is exceeded where data element 93A in data item FSA003 is greater than £50 million, or its currency equivalent, at the relevant reporting date for the firm.

Note 5

Only applicable to firms with a VaR model permission.

Note 6

This will not be applicable to BIPRU limited activity firms or BIPRU limited licence firms unless they have a waiver under BIPRU 6.1.2 G.

Note 7

This is only applicable to a firm that has adopted, in whole or in part, either the standardised approach, alternative standardised approach, or advanced measurement approach under BIPRU 6.

Note 8

Only applicable to BIPRU investment firms that:
(a) are subject to consolidated supervision under BIPRU 8, except those that are either included within the consolidated supervision of a group that includes a UK credit institution, or that have been granted an investment firm consolidation waiver; or

(b) have been granted an investment firm consolidation waiver; or

(c) are not subject to consolidated supervision under BIPRU 8.

A BIPRU investment firm under (a) must complete the report on the basis of its UK consolidation group. A BIPRU investment firm under (b) or (c) must complete the report on the basis of its solo position.

Note 9

This will be applicable to firms that are members of a UK consolidation group on the reporting date.

Note 10

Only applicable to a firm whose ultimate parent is a mixed-activity holding company.

Note 11

Only applicable to firms that have an IRB permission to use the IRB approach and BIPRU 4.

Note 12

Members of a UK integrated group should only submit this data item at the UK integrated group level.

Note 13

Only applicable to firms that have an IRB permission.

Note 14

Only applicable to firms that hold securitisation positions, or are the originator or sponsor of securitisations of non-trading book exposures.

Note 15

This item only applies to firms that are subject to an FSA requirement to hold professional indemnity insurance and are not exempt CAD firms.

Note 16

A firm must complete this item separately on each of the following bases (if applicable).

(1) It must complete it on a solo basis. Therefore even if it has a solo consolidation waiver it must complete the item on an unconsolidated basis by reference to the firm alone.

(2) If it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a DLG by default and is a UK lead regulated firm, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.

(3) If it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a UK DLG by modification, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.

(4) If it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a non-UK DLG by modification, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.

Note 17

A firm must complete this item separately on each of the following bases that are applicable.

(1) It must complete it on a solo basis unless it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a UK DLG by modification. Therefore even if it has a solo consolidation waiver it must complete the item on an unconsolidated basis by reference to the firm alone.

(2) If it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a UK DLG by modification, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.

Note 18

Note 19

(1) This item must be reported in the reporting currency.

(2) If any data element is in a currency or currencies other than the reporting currency, all currencies (including the reporting currency) must be combined into a figure in the reporting currency.

(3) In addition, all material currencies (which may include the reporting currency) must each be recorded separately (translated into the reporting currency). However if:

(a) the reporting frequency is (whether under a rule or under a waiver) quarterly or less than quarterly; or

(b) the only material currency is the reporting currency;

(3) does not apply.

(4) If there are more than three material currencies for this data item, (3) only applies to the three largest in amount. A firm must identify the largest in amount in accordance with the following procedure.

(a) For each currency, take the largest of the asset or liability figure as referred to in the definition of material currency.

(b) Take the three largest figures from the resulting list of amounts.

(5) The date as at which the calculations for the purposes of the definition of material currency are carried out is the last day of the reporting period in question.

(6) The reporting currency for this data item is whichever of the following currencies the firm chooses, namely USD (the United States Dollar), EUR (the euro), GBP (sterling), JPY (the Japanese Yen), CHF (the Swiss Franc), CAD (the Canadian Dollar) or SEK (the Swedish Krona).

Note 20

Note 19 applies, except that paragraph (3) does not apply, meaning that material currencies must not be recorded separately.

Note 21

Note 22

Only applicable to firms that hold securitisation positions, or are the originator or sponsor of securitisations of trading book exposures.

31/12/2010

SUP 16.12.22B

The columns in the table in SUP 16.12.22A R that deal with BIPRU 50K firms and BIPRU 125K firms cover some liquidity items that only have to be reported by an ILAS BIPRU firm. In fact a BIPRU 50K firm and a BIPRU 125K firm cannot be an ILAS BIPRU firm. One reason for drafting the table in this way is that the classification of firms into ILAS BIPRU firms and non-ILAS BIPRU firms is not based on the classification into BIPRU 50K firms, BIPRU 125K firms and BIPRU 730K firms and the drafting of the table emphasises that. Also, the table covers consolidated reports and the conditions about what sort of group has to supply what type of liquidity report do not always depend on how the individual firm is classified.

01/12/2009

SUP 16.12.23

The applicable reporting frequencies for data items referred to in SUP 16.12.22A R are set out in the table below. Reporting frequencies are calculated from a firm's accounting reference date, unless indicated otherwise.

Data item

Frequency

Unconsolidated BIPRU investment firm

Solo consolidated BIPRU investment firm

UK Consolidation Group or defined liquidity group

Annual regulated business revenue up to and including £5 million

Annual regulated business revenue over £5 million

Annual reports and accounts

No standard format

Annual accounts of the mixed-activity holding company

No standard format

Solvency statement

No standard format

FSA001

Quarterly or half yearly (note 1)

Half yearly

FSA002

Quarterly or half yearly (note 1)

Half yearly

FSA003

Monthly, quarterly or half yearly (note 2)

Half yearly

FSA004

Quarterly or half yearly (note 1)

Half yearly

FSA005

Quarterly or half yearly (note 1)

Half yearly

FSA006

Quarterly

FSA007

Annually
(note 3)

FSA008

Quarterly

FSA016

Half yearly

FSA018

Quarterly

FSA019

Annually

FSA028

Half yearly

FSA032

Quarterly

FSA045

Quarterly or half yearly (note 1)

Half yearly

FSA046

Quarterly

FSA047

Daily, weekly, monthly or quarterly (Notes 4, 5 and 7)

Daily, weekly, monthly or quarterly (Notes 4, 5, 7 and 10)

Daily, weekly, monthly or quarterly (Notes 4, 6 and 7)

FSA048

Daily, weekly, monthly or quarterly (Notes 4, 5 and 7)

Daily, weekly, monthly or quarterly (Notes 4, 5, 7 and 10)

Daily, weekly, monthly or quarterly (Notes 4, 6 and 7)

FSA050

Monthly (Note 4)

Monthly (Notes 4 and 10)

Monthly (Note 4)

FSA051

Monthly (Note 4)

Monthly (Notes 4 and 10)

Monthly (Note 4)

FSA052

Weekly or monthly (Notes 4 and 8)

Weekly or monthly (Notes 4, 8 and 10)

Weekly or monthly (Notes 4 and 9)

FSA053

Quarterly (Note 4)

Quarterly (Notes 4 and 10)

Quarterly (Note 4)

FSA054

Quarterly (Note 4)

Quarterly (Notes 4 and 10)

Quarterly (Note 4)

FSA055

Annually (Note 4)

Annually (Notes 4 and 10)

Annually (Note 4)

FSA058

Quarterly

Section A RMAR

Half yearly

Quarterly

Section B RMAR

Half yearly

Quarterly

Section C RMAR

Half yearly

Quarterly

Section D1 and D2 RMAR

Half yearly

Quarterly

Section E RMAR

Half yearly

Quarterly

Section F RMAR

Half yearly

Section G RMAR

Half yearly

Section H RMAR

Half yearly

Section J RMAR

Annually

Note 1:

BIPRU 730K firms and BIPRU 125K firms - quarterly;
BIPRU 50K firms - half yearly.

Note 2

BIPRU 730K firms - monthly;
BIPRU 125K firms - quarterly;
BIPRU 50K firms - half yearly.

Note 3

The reporting date for this data item is six months after a firm's most recent accounting reference date.

Note 4

Reporting frequencies and reporting periods for this data item are calculated on a calendar year basis and not from a firm's accounting reference date. In particular:

(1) A week means the period beginning on Saturday and ending on Friday.

(2) A month begins on the first day of the calendar month and ends on the last day of that month.

(3) Quarters end on 31 March, 30 June, 30 September and 31 December.

(4) Daily means each business day.

All periods are calculated by reference to London time.

Any changes to reporting requirements caused by a firm receiving an intra-group liquidity modification (or a variation to one) do not take effect until the first day of the next reporting period applicable under the changed reporting requirements if the firm receives that intra-group liquidity modification or variation part of the way through such a period, unless the intra-group liquidity modification says otherwise.

Note 5

Note 6

(1) If the report is by reference to the firm's DLG by default the reporting frequency is:

(a) weekly if the group liquidity standard frequency reporting conditions are met;

(b) monthly if the group liquidity low frequency reporting conditions are met.

(2) If the report is by reference to the firm's UK DLG by modification the reporting frequency is:

(a) weekly if the group liquidity standard frequency reporting conditions are met;

(b) monthly if the group liquidity low frequency reporting conditions are met.

(3) If the report is by reference to the firm's non-UK DLG by modification the reporting frequency is quarterly.

Note 7

(1) If the reporting frequency is otherwise weekly, the item is to be reported on every business day if (and for as long as) there is a firm-specific liquidity stress or market liquidity stress in relation to the firm or group in question.

(2) If the reporting frequency is otherwise monthly, the item is to be reported weekly if (and for as long as) there is a firm-specific liquidity stress or market liquidity stress in relation to the firm or group in question.

(3) A firm must ensure that it would be able at all times to meet the requirements for daily or weekly reporting under paragraph (1) or (2) even if there is no firm-specific liquidity stress or market liquidity stress and none is expected.

Note 8

If the report is on a solo basis the reporting frequency is as follows:

(1) weekly if the firm is a standard frequency liquidity reporting firm; and
(2) monthly if the firm is a low frequency liquidity reporting firm.

Note 9

If the report is by reference to the firm's UK DLG by modification the reporting frequency is:

(1) weekly if the group liquidity standard frequency reporting conditions are met;

(2) monthly if the group liquidity low frequency reporting conditions are met.

Note 10

As specified in SUP 16.12.22A R, solo consolidation has no application to liquidity reporting. Therefore it does not make any difference to the reporting of this item whether or not the firm is solo consolidated.

31/12/2010

SUP 16.12.24

Data Item

Daily

Weekly

Monthly

Quarterly

Half yearly

Annual

Annual reports and accounts

80 business days

Annual report and accounts of the mixed-activity holding company

7 months

Solvency statement

3 months

FSA001

20 business days

30 business days (note 1); 45 business days (note 2)

FSA002

20 business days

30 business days (note 1); 45 business days (note 2)

FSA003

15 business days

20 business days

30 business days (note 1); 45 business days (note 2)

FSA004

20 business days

30 business days (note 1); 45 business days (note 2)

FSA005

20 business days

30 business days (note 1); 45 business days (note 2)

FSA006

20 business days

FSA007

2 months

FSA008

20 business days (note 1); 45 business days (note 2)

FSA016

30 business days

FSA018

45 business days

FSA019

2 months

FSA028

30 business days

FSA032

20 business days

FSA045

20 business days

30 business days (note 1), 45 business days (note 2)

FSA046

20 business days (Note 1), 45 business days (Note 2)

FSA047

22.00 hours (London time) on the business day immediately following the last day of the reporting period for the item in question

15 business days

15 business days or one Month (Note 3)

FSA048

22.00 hours (London time) on the business day immediately following the last day of the reporting period for the item in question

15 business days

15 business days or one Month (Note 3)

FSA050

15 business days

FSA051

15 business days

FSA052

22.00 hours (London time) on the second business day immediately following the last day of the reporting period for the item in question

FSA053

FSA054

FSA055

FSA058

20 business days (Note 1), 45 business days (Note 2)

Section A RMAR

30 business days

Section B RMAR

30 business days

Section C RMAR

30 business days

Section D1 and D2 RMAR

30 business days

Section E RMAR

30 business days

Section F RMAR

30 business days

Section G RMAR

30 business days

Section H RMAR

30 business days

Section J RMAR

30 business days

Note 1

For unconsolidated and solo consolidated reports

Note 2

For UK consolidation group reports

Note 3

It is one Month if the report relates to a non-UK DLG by modification.

31/12/2010

Regulated Activity Group 8

SUP 16.12.25

(1) SUP 16.12.25A R does not apply to:

(a) a lead regulated firm (except in relation to data items 47 to 55 (inclusive));

(b) an OPS firm;

(d) a service company.

(2) A lead regulated firm and an OPS firm must submit a copy of its annual report and audited accounts within 80 business days from its accounting reference date.

(3) A service company must submit a copy of its annual audited financial statements (only if the report was audited as a result of a statutory provision other than under the Act) within 6 months from its accounting reference date.

01/12/2009

SUP 16.12.25A

The applicable data items referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out according to type of firm in the table below:

Description of data item

Firms' prudential category and applicable data item (note 1)

BIPRU

Firms other than BIPRU firms

730K

125K

50K

IPRU(INV) Chapter 3

IPRU(INV) Chapter 5

IPRU(INV) Chapter 9

IPRU(INV) Chapter 13

UPRU

Annual report and accounts

No standard format

Annual report and accounts of the mixed-activity holding company (note 10)

No standard format

Solvency statement (note 11)

No standard format

Balance sheet

FSA001 (note 2)

FSA029

Section A RMAR (note 17)or FSA029

Income statement

FSA002 (note 2)

FSA030

Section B RMAR (note 17)or FSA030

FSA030

Capital adequacy

FSA003 (note 2)

FSA033

FSA034 or FSA035 (note 14)

FSA031

Section D1 and D2 RMAR (note 17) or FSA 032 (note 15)

FSA036

Credit risk

FSA004 (note 2, 3)

Market risk

FSA005 (notes 2, 4)

Market risk - supplementary

FSA006 (note 5)

Operational risk

FSA007 (notes 2, 6, 7)

Large exposures

FSA008 (Notes 2, 6)

UK Integrated group large exposures

FSA018 (note 12)

Solo consolidation data

FSA016
(note 20)

Pillar 2 questionnaire

FSA019 (note 8)

Non-EEA sub-group

FSA028 (note 9)

Threshold conditions

Section F RMAR (note 17)

Client money and client assets

FSA039

FSA039 or Section C RMAR (note 17)

IRB portfolio risk

FSA045 (note 18)

Securitisation: non-trading book

FSA046 (note 19)

Daily Flows

FSA047 (Notes 21, 24 and 26)

Enhanced Mismatch Report

FSA048 (Notes 21, 24 and 26)

Liquidity Buffer Qualifying Securities

FSA050 (Notes 22, 25 and 26)

Funding Concentration

FSA051 (Notes 22, 25 and 26)

Pricing data

FSA052 (Notes 22, 25 and 26)

Retail and corporate funding

FSA053 (Notes 22, 25 and 26)

Currency Analysis

FSA054 (Notes 22, 25 and 26)

Systems and Controls Questionnaire

FSA055 (Note 23)

Securitisation: trading book

FSA058 (Note 27)

Note 1:

Note 2

Firms that are members of a UK consolidation group are also required to submit this report on a UK consolidation group basis.

Note 3

This applies to a firm that is required to submit data item FSA003 and, at any time within the 12 months up to its latest accounting reference date ("the relevant period"), was reporting data item FSA004 ("Firm A") or not reporting this item ("Firm B").

In the case of Firm A it must report this data item if one or both of its last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold was exceeded.

In the case of Firm B it must report this item if both the last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold has been exceeded.

The threshold is exceeded where data element 77A in data item FSA003 is greater than £10 million, or its currency equivalent, at the relevant reporting date for the firm.

Note 4

This applies to a firm that is required to submit data item FSA003 and, at any time within the 12 months up to its latest accounting reference date ("the relevant period"), was reporting data item FSA005 ("Firm A") or not reporting this item ("Firm B").

In the case of Firm A it must report this data item if one or both of its last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold was exceeded.

In the case of Firm B it must report this item if both the last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold has been exceeded.

The threshold is exceeded where data element 93A in data item FSA003 is greater than £50 million, or its currency equivalent, at the relevant reporting date for the firm.

Note 5

Only applicable to firms with a VaR model permission.

Note 6

This will not be applicable to BIPRU limited activity firms or BIPRU limited licence firms unless they have a waiver under BIPRU 6.1.2 G.

Note 7

This is only applicable to a firm that has adopted, in whole or in part, either the standardised approach, alternative standardised approach, or advanced measurement approachunder BIPRU 6.

Note 8

Only applicable to BIPRU investment firms that :

(a) are subject to consolidated supervision under BIPRU 8, except those that are either included within the consolidated supervision of a group that includes a UK credit institution, or that have been granted an investment firm consolidation waiver; or

(b) have been granted an investment firm consolidation waiver; or

(c) are not subject to consolidated supervision under BIPRU 8.

A BIPRU investment firm under (a) must complete the report on the basis of its UK consolidation group. A BIPRU investment firm under (b) or (c) must complete the report on the basis of its solo position.

Note 9

This will be applicable to firms that are members of a UK consolidation group on the reporting date.

Note 10

Only applicable to a firm whose ultimate parent is a mixed-activity holding company.

Note 11

Only applicable to a firm that is a sole trader or a partnership, when the report must be submitted by each partner.

Note 12

Members of a UK integrated group should only submit this data item at the UK integrated group level.

Note 13

This does not apply to firm subject to IPRU(INV) Chapter 13 which is an exempt CAD firm.

Note 14

FSA034 must be completed by a firm not subject to the exemption in IPRU(INV) 5.2.3(2)R.
FSA035 must be completed by a firm subject to the exemption in IPRU(INV) 5.2.3(2) R.

Note 15

FSA032 must be completed by a firm subject to IPRU(INV) Chapter 13 which is an exempt CAD firm.

Note 16

[deleted]

Note 17

This is only applicable to a firm subject to IPRU(INV) Chapter 13 that is not an exempt CAD firm.

Note 18

Only applicable to firms that have an IRB permission.

Note 19

Only applicable to firms that hold securitisation positions, or are the originator or sponsor of securitisations of non-trading book exposures.

Note 20

Only applicable to a firm that has a solo consolidation waiver.

Note 21

A firm must complete this item separately on each of the following bases (if applicable).
(1) It must complete it on a solo basis. Therefore even if it has a solo consolidation waiver it must complete the item on an unconsolidated basis by reference to the firm alone.
(2) If it a group liquidity reporting firm in a DLG by default and is a UK lead regulated firm, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.
(3) If it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a UK DLG by modification, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.
(4) If it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a non-UK DLG by modification, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.

Note 22

Note 23

Note 24

Note 25

Note 24 applies, except that paragraph (3) does not apply, meaning that material currencies must not be recorded separately.

Note 26

Note 27

Only applicable to firms that hold securitisation positions, or are the originator or sponsor of securitisationsof trading book exposures.

31/12/2010

SUP 16.12.25B

The columns in the table in SUP 16.12.25A R that deal with BIPRU 50K firms and BIPRU 125K firms cover some liquidity items that only have to be reported by an ILAS BIPRU firm. In fact a BIPRU 50K firm and a BIPRU 125K firm cannot be an ILAS BIPRU firm. One reason for drafting the table in this way is that the classification of firms into ILAS BIPRU firms and non-ILAS BIPRU firms is not based on the classification into BIPRU 50K firms, BIPRU 125K firms and BIPRU 730K firms and the drafting of the table emphasises that. Also, the table covers consolidated reports and the conditions about what sort of group has to supply what type of liquidity report do not always depend on how the individual firm is classified.

01/12/2009

SUP 16.12.26

The applicable reporting frequencies for data items referred to in SUP 16.12.25A R are set out according to the type of firm in the table below. Reporting frequencies are calculated from a firm's accounting reference date, unless indicated otherwise.

Data item

BIPRU 730K firm

BIPRU 125K firm

BIPRU 50K firm

UK consolidation group or defined liquidity group

Firms other than BIPRU firms

Annual reports and accounts

Annually

Annual report and accounts of the mixed-activity holding company

Annually

Solvency statement

Annually

FSA001

Quarterly

Half yearly

FSA002

Quarterly

Half yearly

FSA003

Monthly

Quarterly

Half yearly

FSA004

Quarterly

Half yearly

FSA005

Quarterly

Half yearly

FSA006

Quarterly

FSA007

Annually(note 4)

Annually (note 4)

FSA008

Quarterly

FSA016

Half yearly

FSA018

Quarterly

FSA019

Annually

FSA028

Half yearly

FSA029

Quarterly

FSA030

Quarterly

FSA031

Quarterly

FSA032

Quarterly

FSA033

Quarterly

FSA034

Quarterly

FSA035

Quarterly

FSA036

Quarterly

FSA039

Half yearly

FSA045

Quarterly

Half yearly

FSA046

Quarterly

FSA047

Daily, weekly, monthly or quarterly (Notes 5, 6 and 8)

Daily, weekly, monthly or quarterly (Notes 5, 7 and 8)

FSA048

Daily, weekly, monthly or quarterly (Notes 5, 6 and 8)

Daily, weekly, monthly or quarterly (Notes 5, 7 and 8)

FSA050

Monthly (Note 5)

FSA051

Monthly (Note 5)

FSA052

Weekly or monthly (Notes 5 and 9)

Weekly or monthly (Notes 5 and 10)

FSA053

Quarterly (Note 5)

FSA054

Quarterly (Note 5)

FSA055

Annually (Note 5)

FSA058

Quarterly

Section A RMAR

Half yearly (note 2) Quarterly (note 3)

Section B RMAR

Half yearly (note 2) Quarterly (note 3)

Section C RMAR

Half yearly (note 2) Quarterly (note 3)

Section D1 and D2 RMAR

Half yearly (note 2) Quarterly (note 3)

Section F RMAR

Half yearly

Note 1

[deleted]

Note 2

Annual regulated business revenue up to and including £5 million.

Note 3

Annual regulated business revenue over £5 million.

Note 4

The reporting date for this data item is six months after a firm's most recent accounting reference date.

Note 5

Reporting frequencies and reporting periods for this data item are calculated on a calendar year basis and not from a firm's accounting reference date. In particular:
(1) A week means the period beginning on Saturday and ending on Friday.
(2) A month begins on the first day of the calendar month and ends on the last day of that month.
(3) Quarters end on 31 March, 30 June, 30 September and 31 December.
(4) Daily means each business day.
All periods are calculated by reference to London time.
Any changes to reporting requirements caused by a firm receiving an intra-group liquidity modification (or a variation to one) do not take effect until the first day of the next reporting period applicable under the changed reporting requirements if the firm receives that intra-group liquidity modification or variation part of the way through such a period, unless the intra-group liquidity modification says otherwise.

Note 6

If the report is on a solo basis the reporting frequency is as follows:
(1) if the firm does not have an intra-group liquidity modification the frequency is:
(a) weekly if the firm is a standard frequency liquidity reporting firm; and
(b) monthly if the firm is a low frequency liquidity reporting firm;
(2) if the firm is a group liquidity reporting firm in a non-UK DLG by modification (firm level) the frequency is:
(a) weekly if the firm is a standard frequency liquidity reporting firm; and
(b) monthly if the firm is a low frequency liquidity reporting firm;
(3) the frequency is quarterly if the firm is a group liquidity reporting firm in a UK DLG by modification.

Note 7

Note 8

(1) If the reporting frequency is otherwise weekly, the item is to be reported on every business day if (and for as long as) there is a firm-specific liquidity stress or market liquidity stress in relation to the firm or group in question.
(2) If the reporting frequency is otherwise monthly, the item is to be reported weekly if (and for as long as) there is a firm-specific liquidity stress or market liquidity stress in relation to the firm or group in question.
(3) A firm must ensure that it would be able at all times to meet the requirements for daily or weekly reporting under paragraph (1) or (2) even if there is no firm-specific liquidity stress or market liquidity stress and none is expected.

Note 9

If the report is on a solo basis the reporting frequency is as follows:
(1) weekly if the firm is a standard frequency liquidity reporting firm; and
(2) monthly if the firm is a low frequency liquidity reporting firm.

Note 10

31/12/2010

SUP 16.12.27

Data item

Daily

Weekly

Monthly

Quarterly

Half yearly

Annual

Annual accounts

80 business days

Annual reconciliation

80 business days

Annual reports and accounts of the mixed-activity holding company

7 months

Solvency statement

3 months

FSA001

20 business days

30 business days (note 1);45 business days (note 2)

FSA002

20 business days

30 business days (note 1);45 business days (note 2)

FSA003

20 business days

30 business days (note 1);45 business days (note 2)

FSA004

20 business days

30 business days note 1);45 business days (note 2)

FSA005

20 business days

30 business days (note 1);45 business days (note 2)

FSA006

20 business days

30 business days (note 1);45 business days (note 2)

FSA007

2 months

FSA008

20 business days (note 1);45 business days (note 2)

FSA016

30 business days

FSA018

45 business days

FSA019

2 months

FSA028

FSA029

FSA030

FSA031

FSA032

FSA033

FSA034

FSA035

FSA036

FSA039

FSA040

FSA045

30 business days (note 1); 45 business days (note 2)

FSA046

20 business days (Note 1), 45 business days (Note 2)

FSA047

22.00 hours (London time) on the business day immediately following the last day of the reporting period for the item in question

15 business days

15 business days or one Month (Note 5)

FSA048

22.00 hours (London time) on the business day immediately following the last day of the reporting period for the item in question

15 business days

15 business days or one Month (Note 5)

FSA050

15 business days

FSA051

15 business days

FSA052

22.00 hours (London time) on the second business day immediately following the last day of the reporting period for the item in question

FSA053

FSA054

FSA055

FSA058

20 business days (Note 1), 45 business days (Note 2)

Section A RMAR

30 business days

Section B RMAR

30 business days

Section C RMAR

30 business days

Section D1 and D2 RMAR

30 business days

Section F RMAR

30 business days

Note 1

For unconsolidated and solo consolidated reports.

Note 2

For UK consolidation group reports

Note 3

It is one Month if the report relates to a non-UK DLG by modification.

31/12/2010

Regulated Activity Group 9

SUP 16.12.28

(1) SUP 16.12.28A R does not apply to:

(a) a lead regulated firm;

(b) an OPS firm;

(d) a third party processor in respect of any home finance activity.

(2) A lead regulated firm and an OPS firm must submit a copy of its annual report and audited accounts within 80 business days from its accounting reference date.

06/07/2009

SUP 16.12.28A

The applicable data items, reporting frequencies and submission deadlines referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out in the table below. Reporting frequencies are calculated from a firm's accounting reference date, unless indicated otherwise. The due dates are the last day of the periods given in the table below following the relevant reporting frequency period.

Description of data item

Data item (note 1)

Frequency

Submission deadline

Annual regulated business revenue up to and including £5 million

Annual regulated business revenue over £5 million

Balance Sheet

Section A RMAR

Half yearly

Quarterly

30 business days

Income Statement

Section B RMAR

Half yearly

Quarterly

30 business days

Capital Adequacy

Section D1 RMAR

Half yearly

Quarterly

30 business days

Professional indemnity insurance
(note 2)

Section E RMAR

Half yearly

Quarterly

30 business days

Threshold Conditions

Section F RMAR

Half yearly

30 business days

Training and Competence

Section G RMAR

Half yearly

30 business days

COBS data

Section H RMAR

Half yearly

30 business days

Supplementary product sales data

Section I RMAR

Half yearly

Annually

30 business days

Client money and client assets

Section C RMAR

Half yearly

Quarterly

30 business days

Fees and levies

Section J RMAR

Annually

30 business days

Note 1

When submitting the completed data item required, a firm must use the format of the data item set out in SUP 16 Annex 18A. Guidance notes for the completion of the data items is set out in SUP 16 Annex 18B.

Note 2

This item only applies to firms that may be subject to an FSA requirement to hold professional indemnity insurance and are not exempt CAD firms.

06/07/2009

Regulated Activity Group 10

SUP 16.12.29

Recognised bodies (RIEs and RCHs) have separate reporting requirements agreed between the recognised body and the FSA.

01/01/2008

Authorised professional firms

SUP 16.12.30

(1) An authorised professional firm, other than one that must comply with IPRU(INV) 3, 5 or 13 in accordance with IPRU(INV) 2.1.4R, must submit an annual questionnaire, contained in SUP 16 Annex 9R, unless:

(a) its only regulated activities are one or more of:

(i) insurance mediation;

(ii) mortgage mediation;

(iii) retail investment;

(iv) mortgage lending;

(v) mortgage administration; or

(b) its "main business" as determined by IPRU(INV) 2.1.2R(3) is advising on, or arranging deals in, packaged products, or managing investments for private customers;

in which case the authorised professional firm must complete the appropriate report specified in SUP 16.12.31 R.

(2) The due date for submission of the annual questionnaire is four months after the firm's accounting reference date.

(3) An authorised professional firm must also, where applicable, submit the other report to the FSA in accordance with SUP 16.12.31 R in respect of the other regulated activities it undertakes under (1)(a).

06/07/2009

SUP 16.12.30A

An authorised professional firm that must comply with IPRU(INV) 3, 5, 10 or 13 in accordance with IPRU(INV) 2.1.4R must submit the relevant reports in SUP 16.12.4 R to SUP 16.12.29 G, according to the regulated activity groups that its business falls into.

01/01/2008

SUP 16.12.31

Table of data items from an authorised professional firm

Report

Return (note 1)

Frequency

Due date

Adequate information relating to the following activities:

RMAR (Note 3)

Half yearly (quarterly for sections A to E for larger firms, subject to Note 3 exemptions) (note 2)

For half yearly report: 30 business days after period end For quarterly report: 30 business days after quarter end

(1) insurance mediation activity;

(2) mortgage mediation activity;

(3) retail investment activity;

(4) advising on, or arranging deals in, packaged products, or managing investments for private customers where these activities are the authorised professional firm's "main business" as determined by IPRU(INV) 2.1.2 R (3)

Adequate information relating to mortgage lending and mortgage administration.

MLAR

Quarterly

20 business days after quarter end

Note 1

When giving the report required, a firm must use the return indicated. The RMAR and MLAR are located at SUP 16 Annex 18A and SUP 16 Annex 19A respectively. Guidance on the completion of the data items are located at SUP 16 Annex 18B and SUP 16 Annex 19B respectively.

Note 2

For the purposes of RMAR reporting, a larger firm is a firm whose annual regulated business revenue in its previous financial year was greater than £5m. Annual regulated business revenue for these purposes is a firm's total revenue relating to insurance mediation activity, mortgage mediation activity and retail investment activity.

Note 3

A firm which submits an MLAR is not required to submit sections A and B of the RMAR.

Note 4

Reporting dates are calculated from a firm's accounting reference date.

01/01/2008

Financial conglomerates

SUP 16.12.32

(1) A firm that is a member of a financial conglomerate must submit financial reports to the FSA in accordance with the table in SUP 16.12.33 R if:

(a) it is at the head of an FSA regulated EEA financial conglomerate; or

(b) its Part IV permission contains a relevant requirement.

(2) In (1)(b), a relevant requirement is one which:

(a) applies SUP 16.12.33 R to the firm; or

(b) applies SUP 16.12.33 R to the firm unless the mixed financial holding company of the financial conglomerate to which the firm belongs submits the report required under this rule (as if the rule applied to it).

01/01/2008

SUP 16.12.33

Financial reports from a member of a financial conglomerate (see SUP 16.12.32 R)

Content of Report

Form (Note 1)

Frequency

Due Date

Calculation of supplementary capital adequacy requirements in accordance with one of the four technical calculation methods

Note 2

Note 5

Identification of significant risk concentration levels

Note 3

Yearly

4 months after year end

Identification of significant intra-group transactions

Note 4

Yearly

4 months after year end

Report on compliance with GENPRU 3.1.35 R where it applies

Note 6

Note 5

Note 1

When giving the report required, a firm must use the form indicated, if any.

Note 2

If Part 1 of GENPRU 3 Annex 1(method 1), Part 2 of GENPRU 3 Annex 1 (method 2), or Part 3 of GENPRU 3 Annex 1 (method 3) applies, there is no specific form. Adequate information must be provided, and each financial conglomerate for which the FSA is the co-ordinator must discuss with the FSA how to do this.

If Part 4 of GENPRU 3 Annex 1 applies (method 4):
(1) a banking and investment services conglomerate must use FSA003; and

(2) an insurance conglomerate must use:
(a) (where SUP 16.12.32R (1)(a) applies), Forms 1, 2 and 3 in Appendix 9.1 of IPRU(INS) prepared in accordance with IPRU (INS) 9.35(1); or
(b) (in any other case),the Insurance Group Capital Adequacy Reporting Form (Form 95) in Appendix 9.9 of IPRU(INS)

For the purposes of (b), rules 9.40(1), 9.40(1A), 9.40(3) and 9.40(4) of IPRU(INS) apply as they would if the insurance conglomerate were an insurance group.

Note 3

Rather than specifying a standard format for each financial conglomerate to use, each financial conglomerate for which the FSA is the co-ordinator must discuss with the FSA the form of the information to be reported. This should mean that usual information management systems of the financial conglomerate can be used to the extent possible to generate and analyse the information required.
When reviewing the risk concentration levels, the FSA will in particular monitor the possible risk of contagion in the financial conglomerate, the risk of a conflict of interests, the risk of circumvention of sectoral rules, and the level or volume of risks.

Note 4

For the purposes of this reporting requirement, an intra-group transaction will be presumed to be significant if its amount exceeds 5% of the total amount of capital adequacy requirements at the level of the financial conglomerate.
Rather than specifying a standard format for each financial conglomerate to use, each financial conglomerate for which the FSA is the co-ordinatormust discuss with the FSA the form of the information to be reported. This should mean that usual information management systems of the financial conglomerate can be used to the extent possible to generate and analyse the information required.
When reviewing the intra-group transactions, the FSA will in particular monitor the possible risk of contagion in the financial conglomerate, the risk of a conflict of interest, the risk of circumvention of sectoral rules, and the level or volume of risks.

Note 5

The frequency and due date will be as follows:
(1) banking and investment services conglomerate: frequency is half-yearly with due date 45 business days after period end
(2) insurance conglomerate: frequency is yearly with due date four months after period end for the capital adequacy return and three months after period end for the report on compliance with GENPRU 3.1.35 R where it applies.

Note 6

Adequate information must be added as a separate item to the relevant form for sectoral reporting.

06/07/2009

SUP 16.13

Reporting under the Payment Services Regulations

23/07/2010

Application

SUP 16.13.1

This section applies to authorised payment institutions and small payment institutions (see SUP 16.1.1A D).

23/07/2010

Purpose

SUP 16.13.2

The purpose of this section is to give directions to authorised payment institutions and small payment institutions under regulation 82 (Reporting requirements) of the Payment Services Regulations in relation to:

(1) the information in respect of their provision of payment services and their compliance with requirements imposed by or under Parts 2 to 6 of the Payment Services Regulations that they must provide to the FSA ; and

(2) the time at which and the form in which they must provide that information.

23/07/2010

Reporting requirement

SUP 16.13.3

(1) An authorised payment institution or a small payment institution must submit to the FSA the duly completed return applicable to it as set out in column (2) of the table in SUP 16.13.4D.

(2) An authorised payment institution or a small payment institution must submit the return referred to in (1):

(a) in the format specified as applicable in column (3) of the table in SUP 16.13.4D;

(b) at the frequency and in respect of the periods specified in column (4) of that table;

(d) by electronic means made available by the FSA .

23/07/2010

SUP 16.13.4

The table below sets out the format, reporting frequency and due date for submission in relation to regulatory returns that apply to authorised payment institutions and small payment institutions.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

Type of firm

Return

Format

Reporting Frequency

Due date

Authorised Payment Institution

Authorised Payment Institution Capital Adequacy Return

FSA056 (Note 1)

Annual (Note 2)

30 business days (Note 3)

Small Payment Institution

Payment Services Directive Transactions

FSA057 (Note 4)

Annual (Note 5)

1 month (Note 3)

Note 1

When submitting the completed return required, the authorised payment institution must use the format of the return set out in SUP 16 Annex 27A D. Guidance notes for the completion of the return are set out in SUP 16 Annex 27B G.

Note 2

This reporting frequency is calculated from an authorised payment institution's accounting reference date.

Note 3

The due dates are the last day of the periods given in column (5) of the table above following the relevant reporting frequency period set out in column (4) of the table above.

Note 4

When submitting the completed return required, the small payment institution must use the format of the return set out in SUP 16 Annex 28A D. Guidance notes for the completion of the return are set out in SUP 16 Annex 28B G.

Note 5

This reporting frequency is calculated from 31 December each calendar year.

23/07/2010

SUP 16 Annex 6R

Persistency report

01/12/2004

This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:
Persistency Report - Forms/sup/sup_chapter16_annex6r.pdf

31/12/2007

SUP 16 Annex 9R

Annual questionnaire for authorised professional firms

01/12/2004

This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:
Annual Questionnaire for Authorised Professional Firms - Forms/sup/sup_chapter16_annex9r.pdf

06/07/2007

SUP 16 Annex 10

Securities and Futures firms' reporting forms and requirements applying to their completion

01/12/2004

This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:

Securities and Futures Firms' Reporting Forms and Requirements Applying to their Completion - Forms/sup/sup_chapter16_annex10r.pdf

01/05/2008

SUP 16 Annex 11

Guidance Notes on Completion of Securities and Futures Firms Reporting Forms

01/12/2004

This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:

Guidance notes on completion of securities and futures firms' reporting forms - Forms/sup/sup_chapter16_annex11g.pdf

01/05/2007

SUP 16 Annex 12

Reports from trustees of AUTs and depositaries of ICVCs

01/12/2004

This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:
Reports from trustees of AUTs and depositaries - Forms/sup/sup_chapter16_annex12g.pdf

18/04/2002

SUP 16 Annex 13

Return cover sheet

01/12/2004

This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:

Return Cover Sheet - Forms/sup/sup_chapter16_annex13r.pdf

18/04/2002

SUP 16 Annex 14

Quarterly and annual returns for Credit Unions

01/12/2004

This annex consists only of one or more forms.

Quarterly return - Forms/sup/sup_chapter16_annex14r.pdf

18/04/2002

SUP 16 Annex 15

Notes on completing the quarterly and annual returns for Credit Unions

01/12/2004

This annex consists only of one or more forms.

Notes on completing the Quarterly Return (CQ) for credit unions - Forms/sup/sup_chapter16_annex15g.pdf

01/01/2007

SUP 16 Annex 16A

Standing data (See SUP 16.10.4 R)

01/04/2005

SUP 16 Annex 16A.1

A: Communications with a firm

1. Name of the firm
2. Trading name(s) of the firm
3.
4. Registered office
5. Principal place of business
6. Website address
7. Complaints contact and complaints officer
8. The name and email address of the primary compliance contact

B: Information about a firm on the FSA Register
9.
10.
11.

C: Other information about a firm
12.
13.
14. Name and address of firm's auditor
15.
16. Accounting reference date
17. Locum

04/10/2010

SUP 16 Annex 18

Annex 18

01/12/2004

SUP 16 Annex 18A

Retail Mediation Activities Return ('RMAR')

01/04/2005

This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:

Retail Mediation Activities Return ('RMAR') - Sup Chapter 16 Annex 18A R

06/04/2010

SUP 16 Annex 18B

Notes for Completion of the Retail Mediation Activities Return ('RMAR')

01/04/2005

This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:

Notes for Completion of the Retail Mediation Activities Return ('RMAR') - SUP Chapter 16 Annex 18b G

30/06/2010

SUP 16 Annex 19A

Mortgage Lending and Administration Return ('MLAR')

01/04/2005

This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:

Mortgage Lending and Administration Return ('MLAR') - Sup Chapter 16 Annex 19A R

06/10/2010

SUP 16 Annex 19B

Notes for Completion of the Mortgage Lending and Administration Return ('MLAR')

01/04/2005

This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:

Notes for Completion of the Mortgage Lending and Administration Return ('MLAR') - Sup Chapter 16 Annex 19B G

06/10/2010

SUP 16 Annex 20

Products covered by the reporting requirement in SUP 16.11

01/04/2005

This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:

Products covered by the reporting requirement in SUP 16.11 - Sup Chapter 16 Annex 20 G

30/06/2010

SUP 16 Annex 21

Reporting Fields

01/04/2005

This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:

Reporting Fields - Sup Chapter 16 Annex 21 R

30/06/2010

SUP 16 Annex 24

Data items for SUP 16.12

06/01/2010

This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:
Data items for SUP 16.12 Sup Chapter 16 Annex 24 R

31/12/2010

SUP 16 Annex 25

Guidance notes for data items in SUP 16 Annex 24R

06/01/2010

This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:
Guidance notes for data items in SUP 16 Annex 24R - Sup Chapter 16 Annex 25g

01/01/2011

SUP 16 Annex 26

Guidance on designated liquidity groups in SUP 16.12

01/12/2009

Purpose of this guidance

The purpose of this Annex is to explain the different types of defined liquidity group dealt with in SUP 16.12 (Integrated Regulatory Reporting) and what a group liquidity reporting firm is.

Defined liquidity groups are relevant to liquidity reporting by ILAS BIPRU firms. Liquidity reporting under SUP 16.12 relates to a firm on a solo or branch basis and in addition by reference to a firm's defined liquidity group.

The two main types of designated liquidity groups

Defined liquidity groups are divided into two types:

(1)

a DLG by default; and

(2)

a DLG by modification (this type is subdivided into other types as explained in this Annex).

DLG by default

Broadly speaking, a firm's DLG by default is made up of the members of the firm's group on which it relies for liquidity or that rely on the firm. It also includes certain funding vehicles. It covers each entity:

(1)

that provides or is committed to provide material support to the firm against liquidity risk; or

(2)

to which the firm provides or is committed to provide material support against liquidity risk; or

(3)

that has reasonable grounds to believe that the firm would supply such support, and vice versa.

Paragraph (b) of the definition of DLG by default deals with a case in which there are several UK ILAS BIPRU firms in the same group. The effect is this. Say that there are two UK ILAS BIPRU firms, A and B in the group. Say that A relies on, or is relied on by, companies M, N, O and P. B relies on, or is relied on by, companies P, Q, R and S. The result is that A and B have the same DLG by default, which is made up of companies A, B, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S.

There is an exclusion relating to participations. Say that 70% of B is owned by unconnected third party shareholders and that A and B rely on each other. A will report on the basis of a group made up of A, B, M, N, O and P. B will report on the basis of a group made up of A, B, P, Q, R and S.

The full definition is set out in the Glossary.

The definition applies automatically. It does not depend, for example, on the firm getting a waiver under BIPRU 12 (Liquidity). However, in practice it is likely that the firm and the FSA will agree who is in the firm's DLG by default.

A DLG by default is only relevant to a UK lead regulated firm.

10.

A firm may have a DLG by default and a DLG by modification at the same time.

Types of DLG by modification

11.

A DLG by modification only applies to a firm with an intra-group liquidity modification. BIPRU 12.8 has more about intra-group liquidity modifications.

12.

Every firm subject to BIPRU 12 (Liquidity) is subject to the overall liquidity adequacy rule. The effect of that rule is that every firm is required to be self-sufficient in terms of liquidity adequacy and to be able to satisfy that rule relying on its own liquidity resources.

13.

The FSA recognises that a firm may be part of a wider group which manages its liquidity on a group-wide basis. This is recognised by an intra-group liquidity modification. A DLG by modification arises out of the intra-group liquidity modification.

14.

There are two types of DLG by modification:

(1)

a DLG by modification (firm level); and

(2)

a non-UK DLG by modification (DLG level).

Types of DLG by modification (firm level)

15.

If the firm obtains an intra-group liquidity modification it will permit the firm to rely on liquidity support from elsewhere in its group for the purposes of the overall liquidity adequacy rule. A DLG by modification (firm level) is made up of the group members on which the firm can rely for these purposes, together with the firm itself. It is called 'firm level' because it relates to the way that the overall liquidity adequacy rule is applied to the firm.

16.

There are two types of DLG by modification (firm level):

(1)

a UK DLG by modification; and

(2)

a non-UK DLG by modification (firm level).

17.

It is not possible for a firm to have both types.

18.

A UK DLG by modification is made up solely of UK ILAS BIPRU firms. That means that the intra-group liquidity modification will permit the firm to rely on liquidity support from other specified UK ILAS BIPRU firms elsewhere in its group, but no one else.

19.

A non-UK DLG by modification (firm level) is defined to mean any kind of DLG by modification (firm level) except for a UK DLG by modification. In practice though an intra-group liquidity modification setting up a non-UK DLG by modification (firm level) will be expected to allow the firm to rely on support from a parent undertaking which is constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom or on subsidiary undertakings of that parent which are themselves constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom. These parents and their subsidiaries (together with the firm itself) will make up the non-UK DLG by modification (firm level). It is not envisaged that a non-UK DLG by modification (firm level) will include UK members (other than the firm itself). That is why this type of defined liquidity group is called a non-UK DLG by modification (firm level).

Non-UK DLG by modification (DLG level)

20.

It is envisaged that if a firm has a UK DLG by modification, the intra-group liquidity modification will apply the overall liquidity adequacy rule to the UK DLG by modification as a whole. The starting position is that the UK DLG by modification should be self-sufficient for liquidity purposes.

21.

However, the intra-group liquidity modification may permit the UK DLG by modification to rely on liquidity support from elsewhere in the group. In this case this other part of the group, together with the UK DLG by modification, forms the non-UK DLG by modification (DLG level). It is called 'DLG level' because it relates to the way that the overall liquidity adequacy rule is applied to the firm's DLG.

22.

It is not envisaged that a firm with a non-UK DLG by modification (firm level) will have a non-UK DLG by modification (DLG level).

23.

It is envisaged that the only group members on which the non-UK DLG by modification (firm level) will be able to rely for these purposes will be foreign parents and others described in paragraph 19 of SUP 16 Annex26G . That is why it is called a non-UK DLG by modification (DLG level).

Combinations of DLG

24.

That means that the types of DLG by modification a firm may have are these:

(1)

a UK DLG by modification and nothing else; or

(2)

a non-UK DLG by modification (firm level) and nothing else; or

(3)

a UK DLG by modification and non-UK DLG by modification (DLG level).

Group liquidity reporting firm

25.

The defined term group liquidity reporting firm is also used in connection with reporting at the level of a defined liquidity group. Its purpose is to identify the firms on which the reporting obligation falls.

26.

The general principle is that reporting is done by UK ILAS BIPRU firms. In the case of a DLG by modification, the reporting will be done by UK ILAS BIPRU firms that have been granted the intra-group liquidity modification.

27.

However there may be other types members of the defined liquidity group. For example, say that UK ILAS BIPRU firm A has a defined liquidity group made up of companies B, C, D and E. Say that B is an authorised person but is not a UK ILAS BIPRU firm, that C is a UK company that is not authorised and that D and E are foreign and not authorised. A, B, C, D and E are all members of the defined liquidity group. However B, C, D and E do not have to report on the defined liquidity group under SUP 16.12. That obligation falls on A. A is the group liquidity reporting firm.

06/04/2010

SUP 16 Annex 27

Annex 27

23/07/2010

SUP 16 Annex 27A

Authorised Payment Institution Capital Adequacy Return

23/07/2010

This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:

Authorised Payment Institution Capital Adequacy Return - SUP 16 Annex 27A D

23/07/2010

SUP 16 Annex 27B

Notes on Completing FSA056 (Authorised Payment Institution Capital Adequacy Return - SUP 16 Annex 27 AD)

23/07/2010

This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:

Notes on Completing FSA056 (Authorised Payment Institution Capital Adequacy Return - SUP 16 Annex 27 AD) - SUP 16 Annex 27B G

23/07/2010

SUP 16 Annex 28

23/07/2010

SUP 16 Annex 28A

Small Payment Institution Return

23/07/2010

This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:

Small Payment Institution Return - SUP 16 Annex 28A D

23/07/2010

SUP 16 Annex 28B

Notes on Completing FSA057 (Payment Services Directive Transactions)

23/07/2010

This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:

Notes on Completing FSA057 (Payment Services Directive Transactions) - SUP 16 Annex 28B G

23/07/2010

SUP 17

Transaction reporting

SUP 17.1

Application

01/12/2004

Who?

SUP 17.1.1

This chapter applies to:

(1) a MiFID investment firm;

(2) a third country investment firm; and to

(3) a person who is the operator of an approved reporting mechanism or of a regulated market or MTF that is used by a firm to report transactions to the FSA; and

(4) a firm acting in its capacity as a manager or operator of:

(a) a collective investment undertaking; or

(b) a pension scheme; or

(d) a personal pension scheme; or

(e) a stakeholder pension scheme.

01/11/2007

SUP 17.1.2

Article 32(7) of MiFID requires the FSA to apply the transaction reporting requirements in Article 25 to the UK branches of EEA investment firms and branches of credit institutions in respect of reportable transactions arising in the course of services provided in the UK.

01/11/2007

SUP 17.1.3

Article 32(7) of MiFID provides that the branch of a UK firm operating from an establishment in another EEA state must satisfy the transaction reporting requirements of the competent authority in that other Member State in respect of reportable transactions arising in the course of services provided in that other Member State.

01/11/2007

SUP 17.1.3A

In line with guidance from CESR, the FSA acknowledges that, from a practical point of view, it would be burdensome for branches of investment firms to be obliged to report their transactions to two competent authorities. Therefore, all transactions executed by branches may be reported to the competent authority of the Host State, if the investment firm elects to do so. In these cases transaction reports should follow the rules of the competent authority to which the report is made. However, where an investment firm chooses to report to two competent authorities, this choice will not be challenged by the FSA .

05/11/2007

What?

SUP 17.1.4

A firm which executes a transaction:

(1) in any financial instrument admitted to trading on a regulated market or a prescribed market (whether or not the transaction was carried out on such a market); or

(2) in any OTC derivative the value of which is derived from, or which is otherwise dependent upon, an equity or debt-related financial instrument which is admitted to trading on a regulated market or on a prescribed market;

must report the details of the transaction to the FSA .
[Note: article 25(3) of MiFID].

01/11/2007

SUP 17.1.4A

SUP 17.1.4 R (2) does not apply to a transaction in any OTC derivative the value of which is derived from, or which is otherwise dependent upon, multiple equity or multiple debt-related financial instruments except where the multiple financial instruments are all issued by the same issuer.

21/09/2009

Where?

SUP 17.1.5

This chapter applies in respect of transactions which are to be reported to the FSA .

05/11/2007

Status of EU provisions as rules in certain instances

SUP 17.1.6

In this chapter, paragraphs marked "EU", including SUP 17 Annex 1 EU, shall apply to a firm as if those provisions were rules to the extent that it executes a transaction in a financial instrument which is specified by SUP 17.1.4 R. but which is beyond the scope of article 25(3) of MiFID.

01/11/2007

Guidance on the reporting of certain transactions

SUP 17.1.7

(1) The movement, reallocation or transfer of financial instruments within the accounts of one legal entity will be reportable where the movement, reallocation or transfer is as a result of an agreement to transfer rights in a financial instrument to which this chapter applies between clients of the firm or between the firm (or a member of its group) and a client, and where the movement, reallocation or transfer involves a transaction within the meaning of Article 5 of the MiFID Regulation.

(2) For a rolling spread bet, only the initial opening of the betting contract and the final closure of the contract need to be reported. Openings and closings for technical purposes such as daily roll-over, which are intended to maintain a particular spread bet position, need not be reported. Final closings of a portion of a bet should be reported as required by SUP 17.2.7 R.

01/11/2007

SUP 17.2

Making transaction reports

01/11/2007

Transaction reports made through third party agents

SUP 17.2.1

A firm may rely on a third party acting on the firm's behalf to make a transaction report to the FSA .
[Note: article 25(5) of MiFID]

01/11/2007

SUP 17.2.2

The FSA will treat a firm as acting in accordance with SUP 17.2.1 R in circumstances where the firm enters into a transaction with another person in the course of providing a service of portfolio management on behalf of one or more clients, provided it:

(1) enters into the transaction in the exercise of a discretion conferred on it by an investment mandate or does so having specifically recommended the transaction to its client;

(2) has reasonable grounds to be satisfied that the other person will, in respect of the transaction, make a transaction report to the FSA (or to another competent authority) which, as to content, will include all such information as would have been contained in a transaction report by the firm (other than as to the identity of the firm's client).

01/11/2007

Approved reporting mechanisms, regulated markets or MTFs

SUP 17.2.3

A firm is relieved of its obligation to make a transactionreport if the transaction is instead reported directly to the FSA by an approved reporting mechanism, or by a regulated market or MTF through whose systems the transaction was completed.
[Note: article 25(5) of MiFID]

05/11/2007

SUP 17.2.3A

The regulated markets and MTFs that report transactions undertaken on their systems to the FSA are listed on the FSA's website at: www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/Regulated/Returns/mtr/liffe_feed/index.shtml.

05/11/2007

Verifying that transaction reports will be made

SUP 17.2.4

The FSA will expect a firm which seeks to rely upon the waiver in SUP 17.2.3 R to take reasonable steps to verify that transaction reports will be made in accordance with the standards laid down in this chapter and in particular should ascertain and remain satisfied that:

(1) the provider of the transaction reporting facility maintains an automated reporting system which the firm is able to access through the efficient inputting of transactions into the system;

(2) the terms of the agreement between itself and the relevant trade matching or reporting system, regulated market or MTF, make appropriate provision obliging the provider of the transaction reporting service to make transaction reports on its behalf;

(3) the arrangements provide for confirmation in each case that a transaction report has been made on its behalf.

01/11/2007

Compliance byapproved reporting mechanisms or MTFs with the provisions of this Chapter

SUP 17.2.5

(1) The operator of, an approved reporting mechanism, or the operator of an MTF or a market operator through whose systems a reportable transaction is to be completed and which has, pursuant to SUP 17.2.3 R, agreed to make transaction reports to the FSA on behalf of a firm, must:

(a) make reports to the FSA in respect of each to which the agreement relates;
(b) ensure such reports contain the reporting fields specified in SUP 17 Annex 1, where applicable; and
(c) ensure that, once received from the reporting firm, such reports are submitted to the FSA within the time limit for making reports.

(2) The obligations of the operator under this rule do not affect the liability of the reporting firm for ensuring the accuracy of the information contained in the transaction report that it submits to the operator.

05/11/2007

SUP 17.2.6

(1) A transaction report should distinguish each individual transaction, using the firm's identifying code.

(2) Reporting obligations under this chapter do not affect any obligation to report transactions under the rules of any market, trading system, matching or reporting system or exchange, whether or not that market, system or exchange is a regulated market.

01/11/2007

Time period for making reports

SUP 17.2.7

A firm must report the required details of the transaction to the FSA as quickly as possible and by not later than the close of the working day following the day upon which that transaction took place.
[Note: article 25(3) of MiFID]

01/11/2007

SUP 17.3

Reporting channels

01/11/2007

SUP 17.3.1

The reports of transactions in financial instrument shall be made in an electronic form except under exceptional circumstances, when they may be made in a medium which allows for the storing of the information in a way accessible for future reference by the competent authorities other than an electronic form, and the methods by which those reports are made shall satisfy the following conditions:

(a)

they ensure the safety and confidentiality of the data reported;

(b)

they incorporate mechanisms for identifying and correcting errors in a transaction report;

(c)

they incorporate mechanisms for authenticating the source of the transaction report;

(d)

they include appropriate precautionary measures to enable the timely resumption of reporting in the case of system failure;

(e)

they are capable of reporting the information required under Article 13 of the MiFID Regulation in the format specified in SUP 17 Annex 1 EU required by the FSA and in accordance with this paragraph, within the time-limits set out in SUP 17.2.7 R.

[Note: article 12(1) of the MiFID Regulation]

01/11/2007

Methods of a firm reporting transactions either directly or through a third party acting on its behalf

Approval and monitoring of trade matching and reporting systems

SUP 17.3.3

A trade matching or reporting system shall be approved by the FSA for the purposes of Article 25(5) of MiFID if the arrangements for reporting transactions established by that system comply with SUP 17.3.1EU and are subject to monitoring by a competent authority in respect of their continuing compliance.

[Note: article 12(2) of the MiFID Regulation]

01/11/2007

SUP 17.3.4

The approved reporting mechanisms arelisted on the FSA's website at:http://www.fsa.gov.uk/pages/Doing/Regulated/Returns/mtr/arms/index.shtml.
[Note: These systems will be listed following the approval of a trade matching or reporting system].

05/11/2007

SUP 17.3.5

Section 412A of the Act contains provisions which are concerned with the manner in which the FSA will carry out its approval and monitoring of trade matching or reporting systems.

01/11/2007

Receipt of transaction reports by the FSA

SUP 17.3.6

A report is made to the FSA when it is received by the FSA . The delivery of a report by a MiFID investment firm to a reporting person, channel or system by the close of the working day following the day of the transaction does not amount to the making of a report to the FSA .

01/11/2007

SUP 17.4

Information in transaction reports

01/11/2007

Information to appear in transaction reports

SUP 17.4.1

Reports of transactions made in accordance with Articles 25 (3) and (5) of MiFID shall contain the information specified in SUP 17 Annex 1 EU which is relevant to the type of financial instrument in question and which the FSA declares is not already in its possession or is not available to it by other means.

[Note: article 13(1) of the MiFID Regulation.]

01/11/2007

SUP 17.4.2

The reports referred to in SUP 17.4.1 EU shall, in particular include details of the names and the numbers of the instruments bought or sold, the quantity, the dates and times of execution and the transaction prices and means of identifying the firms concerned.
[Note: article 25(4) of MiFID]

01/11/2007

Data retention

SUP 17.4.3

A firm must keep at the disposal of the FSA , for at least five years, the relevant data relating to all transactions in financial instruments which it has carried out, whether on own account or on behalf of a client. In the case of transactions carried out on behalf of clients, the records shall contain all the information and details of the identity of the client, and the information required under the money laundering directive.
[Note: article 25(2) of MiFID]

01/11/2007

Maintenance of information by firm

SUP 17.4.4

The requirement to keep information at the disposal of the FSA means that a firm should maintain that information in such a form that it can readily be gathered and transmitted to the FSA upon request. Where more than one firm has given effect to a transaction, each firm should be considered to have carried out the transaction for the purposes of SUP 17.4.3 R and should keep the records, even where only one firm makes a transaction report as contemplated in this Chapter.

01/11/2007

SUP 17 Annex 1

Minimum content of a transaction report

01/11/2007

List of fields for reporting purposes
[Note: This table includes information required under MiFID Article 25(4) and contains additional FSA requirements permitted under Articles 13(3) and (4) of the MiFID Regulation]
Where appropriate, firms should complete these fields in the formats described, or these formats must be contained in the fields that their approved reporting mechanism will use when sending a transaction report to the FSA on behalf of a firm.

Field Identifier

Description

1. Reporting Firm Identification

A unique code to identify the firm which executed the transaction.

This code should be the FSA reference number of the firm or the Swift Bank Identifier Code (BIC).

2. Trading Day

The trading day on which the transaction was executed.

3. Trading Time

The time at which the transaction was executed, reported in London local time.

The time should be specified in hours, minutes and seconds (hhmmss). Where it is not possible to input seconds, '00' may be entered in this field.

4. Buy/Sell Indicator

Identifies whether the transaction was a buy or sell from the perspective of the reporting MiFID investment firm.

5. Trading Capacity

Identifies whether the firm executed the transaction

on its own account (either on its own behalf or on behalf of a client) (that is as principal);

for the account and on behalf of a client (that is as agent);

[text moved to row below]

Where the firm has executed a transaction in an agency cross capacity (that is where the firm has acted as agent for both the selling and the buying counterparties) and the firm has chosen to submit a single report to the FSA representing both of these transactions this field should be used to indicate that the firm has executed the transaction in such a capacity.

Where a firm has executed a transaction in an agency cross capacity, it may submit two reports rather than a single report, in which case this field should indicate that the firm is acting on behalf of a client.

Where the firm has executed a transactionin a principal cross capacity (that is where the firm has simultaneously executed a buy and sell transaction as principal in a single product at the same price and quantity) and the firm has chosen to submit a single report to the FSA representing both of these transactions this field should be used to indicate that the firm has executed the transaction in such a capacity.

Where a firm has executed a transaction in a principal cross capacity, and prefers to submit two reports rather than a single report, this field should indicate that the firm is acting on its own account.

6. Instrument Identification

This shall consist of:

a unique code, decided by the FSA, identifying the financial instrument which is the subject of the transaction;

The unique code should be an ISO 6166 ISIN. This code must always be used for, but is not limited to, reporting transactions in warrants.

or, if the financial instrument in question does not have a unique identification code, the report must include the name of the instrument or, in the case of a derivative contract; the characteristics of the derivative.

The FSA considers that where the financial instrument in question (which includes derivatives) is admitted to trading on a market where the ISO 6166 ISIN is not the industry method of identification, it will be sufficient to insert in this field the code assigned to the instrument by that market.

or, in the case of an OTC derivative, the characteristics of the OTC derivative.

Where an OTC derivative is the subject of the transaction a full description of the OTC derivative should be provided.

7. Instrument code type

The code type used to report the instrument.

Where the subject of the transaction is a financial instrument admitted to trading on a market this field should indicate whether that financial instrument has been identified using an ISO 6166 ISIN or, where the ISIN is not the industry method of identification for that market, a code assigned to that financial instrument by that market.

8. Underlying Instrument Identification

The instrument identification applicable to the security that is the underlying asset in a derivative contract as well as the transferable security included within article 4(1)(18(c)) of MiFID.

This field is only mandatory when the transaction involves an OTC derivative and the underlying is a single equity or single debt financial instrument admitted to trading on a regulated market or prescribed market.

9. Underlying instrument identification code type

The code type used to report the underlying instrument.

Firms do not need to complete this field since the FSA already has access to this information.

10. Instrument Type

The harmonised classification of the financial instrument that is the subject of the transaction.

This field is only mandatory when the transaction involves an OTC derivative or a financial instrument admitted to trading on a market where the ISIN is not the industry method of identification. This field must be used to indicate the instrument type of the underlying financial instrument, e.g. equity, bond, index, or other.

11. Maturity Date

The maturity date of a bond or other form of securitized debt, or the exercise date / maturity date of a derivative contract.

This field is only mandatory when the transaction involves an OTC derivative or a financial instrument admitted to trading on a market where the ISIN is not the industry method of identification.Where the derivative type is spreadbet on an equity option or contract for difference on an equity option, this field must be used to indicate the expiry of the option.

12. Derivative Type

The harmonised description of the derivative type.

This field is only mandatory when the transaction involves an OTC derivative or a financial instrument admitted to trading on a market where the ISIN is not the industry method of identification, and must indicate the derivative type, e.g. option, future, contract for difference (other than a contract for difference on an equity option), contract for difference on an equity option, complex derivative, warrant, spreadbet (other than a spreadbet on an equity option), spreadbet on an equity option, credit default swap or other swap.

13. Put/Call

Specification whether an option or any other financial instrument is a put or call.

This field is only mandatory when (i) the transaction involves an OTC derivative or a financial instrument admitted to trading on a market where the ISIN is not the industry method of identification; and (ii) the derivative type is option , warrant, spreadbet on an equity option or contract for difference on an equity option. Where the financial instrument is a spreadbet on an equity option or a contract for difference on an equity option this field should be used to indicate the put/call status of the equity option.

14. Strike Price

The strike price of an option or other financial instrument.

15. Price Multiplier

The number of units of the financial instrument in question which are contained in a trading lot; for example, the number of derivatives or securities represented by one contract.

This field is only mandatory where the transaction involves an OTC derivative.

16. Unit Price

The price per security or derivative contract excluding commission and (where relevant) accrued interest. In the case of a debt instrument, the price may be expressed either in terms of currency or as a percentage.

17. Price Notation

The currency in which the price is expressed. If, in the case of a bond or other form of securitized debt, the price is expressed as a percentage, that percentage shall be included.

The ISO 4217 currency code must be used. The major currency must be used (e.g. pounds rather than pence). If the price is expressed as a percentage of nominal value then the ISO 4217 currency code of the nominal value must be used.

18. Quantity

The number of units of the financial instruments, the nominal value of bonds, or the number of derivative contracts included in the transaction.

19. Quantity notation

An indication as to whether the quantity is the number of units of financial instruments, the nominal value of bonds, or the number of derivative contracts.

Firms do not need to complete this field since the FSA already has access to this information.

20. Counterparty

Identification of the counterparty to the transaction. That identification shall consist of:

where the counterparty is a MiFID investment firm, a unique code for that firm, to be determined by the FSA ; or

where the counterparty is a regulated market or MTF or an entity acting as its central counterparty, the unique harmonised identification code for that market, MTF or entity acting as central counterparty, as specified in the list published by the competent authority of the home Member State of that entity in accordance with Article 13(2).

The FSA has determined that where an FSA reference number or a Swift Bank Identification Code (BIC) exists for the counterparty, one of these codes must be used, or in the case that a counterparty has neither an FSA reference number or a BIC, a unique internal code allocated by the reporting firm must be used and that unique internal code must be used consistently across all instrument types and platforms for that counterparty.

21. Venue Identification

Identification of the venue where the transaction was executed. That identification shall consist in:

where the venue is a trading venue: its unique harmonised identification code,

Where the venue is a regulated market, prescribed market or an MTF (or, where appropriate, an equivalent venue outside the EEA), the four character Swift Market Identifier Code ISO 10383 must be used. However, where the venue has been identified as a systematic internaliser, a Swift Bank Identification Code (BIC) should be used.

where the transaction is made off market or the subject of the transaction is an OTC derivative this should be made clear.

22. Transaction Reference Number

A unique identification number for the transaction provided by the MiFID investment firm or a third party reporting on its behalf

23. Cancellation Flag

An indication as to whether the transaction was cancelled.

24. Customer/Client Identification

This field contains the identification of the client or customer on whose behalf the reporting firm was acting.

For agency transactions a customer/client identifier is required to identify the client on whose behalf the transaction has been conducted. Where an FSA reference number or a Swift Bank Identification Code (BIC) exists, one of these codes must be used or, in the case that a customer/client has neither an FSA reference number or a BIC, a unique internal code allocated by the reporting firm must be used and that unique internal code must be used consistently across all instrument types and platforms for that counterparty.

25. Any other fields

Any other mandatory fields required by the reporting system.

21/09/2009

SUP 18

Transfers of business

SUP 18.1

Application

01/12/2004

SUP 18.1.1

This chapter provides guidance in relation to business transfers.

(1) SUP 18.2 applies to any firm or to any member of Lloyd's proposing to transfer the whole or part of its business by an insurance business transfer scheme or to accept such a transfer. SUP 18.2.31 G to SUP 18.2.41 G also applyto the independent expert making the scheme report.

(2) SUP 18.3 applies to any firm proposing to accept certain transfers of insurance business taking place outside the United Kingdom.

(3) SUP 18.4 applies to any friendly societies proposing to amalgamate under section 85 of the Friendly Societies Act 1992, to any friendly society proposing to transfer engagements under section 86 of that Act to another body and to any body (whether or not it is a friendly society) proposing to accept such a transfer. SUP 18.4 also provides guidance to those wishing to make representations to the FSA about an application for confirmation of an amalgamation or transfer.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.1.2

Guidance on building society transfers and mergers is given in the Building Societies Regulatory Guide.

01/01/2007

Introduction

SUP 18.1.3

Insurance business transfers are subject to Part VII of the Act and must be approved by the court under section 111. The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Control of Business Transfers)(Requirements on Applicants) Regulations 2001 (SI 2001/3625) also apply. These regulations set out minimum requirements for publicising schemes, notifying certain interested parties directly (subject to the discretion of the court), and giving information to anyone who requests it.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.1.4

An insurance business transfer scheme is defined in section 105 of the Act and the definition has been extended to transfers from members of Lloyd's to reflect the effect of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Control of Transfers of Business Done at Lloyd's) Order 2001(SI 2001/3626). With certain exclusions (relating to some schemes approved under foreign legislation, some novations of reinsurance or some captive insurers), it includes, in broad terms, any scheme to transfer insurance business from one firm (other than a friendly society) or members of Lloyd's to another body (which may be a friendly society), if:

(1)

(a) the transferor is an "UK authorised person" and the business is being carried on in one or more EEA States; or

(b) the business is reinsurance carried on in the United Kingdom; or

(2) in each case, the transferred business will be carried on from an establishment in the EEA.

The business transferred may include liabilities and potential liabilities on expired policies, liabilities on current policies and liabilities on contracts to be written in the period until the transfer takes effect. The parties to schemes approved under foreign legislation or involving novations of reinsurance or a captive insurer can apply to the court for an order sanctioning the scheme.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.1.5

In the opinion of the FSA, a novation or a number of novations would constitutean insurance business transfer only if their number or value were such that the novation was to be regarded as a transfer of part of the business. A novation is an agreement between the policyholder and two insurers whereby a contract with one insurer is replaced by a contract with the other. In the opinion of the FSA, where an insurer agrees to meet the liabilities (this may include undertaking the administration of the policies) of another insurer by means of a reinsurance contract, including Lloyd's reinsurance to close, this would not constitute an insurance business transfer because the contractual liability remains with the original insurer; nor would an arrangement whereby an insurer offers to renew the policies of another insurer on their expiry date.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.1.6

Under section 112 of the Act, the court has wide discretion to transfer property and liabilities to the transferee and to make orders in relation to incidental, consequential and supplementary matters. In the opinion of the FSA, the court has the power in such cases and on such terms as may be appropriate, to transfer the benefit of reinsurance contracts protecting the transferred business and to make such amendments to the terms of those contracts as may be necessary to give effect to that transfer of benefit.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.1.7

Amalgamations of friendly societies and transfers of engagements from friendly societies to other bodies (whether or not friendly societies) are governed by part VIII of the Friendly Societies Act 1992 and Schedule 15 to that Act applies.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2

Insurance business transfers

01/12/2004

Purpose

SUP 18.2.1

Transfers enable firms to manage their affairs more effectively, both for their own benefit and for that of their customers. However they represent an interference in the contracts between a firm and its customers, unless the customers individually consent,, and may also affect the rights of third parties. An important protection is the requirement for the consent of the court. Under section 110 of the Act, the FSA is entitled to be heard by the court. In deciding whether it should appear, the FSA will consider the potential risk to its regulatory objectives of the scheme compared to not implementing the scheme.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.2

The FSA's regulatory objectives include market confidence, financial stability and the protection of consumers. Any or all of these might be impaired if a transfer were approved that led to loss, or perceived loss, to consumers or other market participants. On the other hand a transfer that led to improved security or benefits for consumers would promote the FSA's regulatory objectives. When considering a transfer, the FSA needs to take into account the interests of existing consumers of the transferee and of consumers remaining with the transferor as well as of those whose contracts are being transferred. The guidance in this section is intended to protect consumers. By so doing it promotes the market confidence objective.

06/08/2010

SUP 18.2.3

Under section 5(2) of the Act, in considering what degree of protection may be appropriate for consumers, the FSA must have regard to their need for accurate information. Under Principle 7, a firm must pay due regard to the information needs of clients (the scope of the Principle is not precisely consumers). The extent and nature of the information provided to consumers about a proposed scheme will therefore be a factor for the FSA in determining its attitude to the scheme. For the court process to be an effective protection, consumers and others affected need to learn of the proposed transfer and receive sufficient information on the transfer and its effects in such a form as to enable them to decide if they are likely to be adversely affected, and whether they wish to be heard by the court. The information needed depends on the circumstances and cannot be precisely specified in advance but this chapter contains guidance aimed at ensuring that consumers, the FSA and the court receive adequate information.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.4

Under Principle 11, a firm must deal with the FSA in an open and cooperative way and disclose to the FSA appropriately anything relating to the firm of which the FSA would reasonably expect notice. This chapter contains guidance on the information that the FSA expects to receive from firms and members of Lloyd's in the context of insurance business transfer schemes.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.5

Under Principle 6, a firm must treat customers fairly (the scope of the Principle is not precisely consumers) and, under Principle 8, manage conflicts of interest fairly. A criterion for the FSA in considering a proposed scheme would be whether it appears that either Principle is not being followed. Transfers may have both positive and negative effects on individual consumers. In such circumstances it is for consumers to balance these effects and assess whether the proposed scheme as a whole is in their interests and whether to make representations to the court about the scheme. The FSA's main concern then becomes to ensure that consumers have appropriate information and not to set its judgment over theirs.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.6

A scheme may have a material effect on the transferor or the transferee. The FSA will take any scheme into account in its future regulation of the firms, where it continues to regulate them. This could include, for instance, the exercise of own-initiative powers under section 45 of the Act to vary a firm's Part IV permission, for instance, by requiring a scheme of operations (SUP 7 contains guidance on criteria for varying a firm's Part IV permission).

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.7

For many transfers it is necessary to cooperate with overseas regulators. This section contains guidance on such cooperation.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.8

Section 86(8) of the Friendly Societies Act 1992 requires, where a transferee is a friendly society, that consent to accept the engagements is passed by special resolution in accordance with paragraph 7 of Schedule 12 to that Act. This section includes guidance about the information needed in these circumstances.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.9

Under section 109 of the Act, an insurance business transfer scheme must be accompanied by a scheme report in a form approved by the FSA. This section contains guidance on the form of a scheme report.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.10

Also under section 109 of the Act, the scheme report must be made by a person nominated or approved by the FSA. This section contains guidance on the procedures and general criteria that the FSA proposes to adopt for this purpose.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.11

The FSA has a duty under section 2(3) of the Act "to have regard to the need to use its resources in the most efficient and economic way". The extent to which (if at all) it examines and considers the details of a scheme and the resources it devotes to such consideration will depend on the potential risk to its regulatory objectives.

21/06/2001

Procedure: initial steps

SUP 18.2.12

When an insurance business transfer scheme is being considered, the scheme promoters (including the transferor and, except possibly if it is a new company, the transferee) should discuss the scheme with the FSA as soon as reasonably practical, to enable the FSA to consider what issues are likely to arise, and to enable a practical timetable for the scheme to be agreed. The FSA will wish to consider material issues relating to policyholder rights (such as the reasonable expectations of with-profits policyholders) or policyholder security at the earliest opportunity. In any case the FSA will need time to:

(1) consider the application, if an application by the transferee for a Part IV permission or a variation of permission is necessary ( SUP 6 provides guidance on this);

(2) seek information or approvals from other supervisors (where this applies);

(3) consider what skills are needed to make a proper report on the scheme and what criteria should therefore be applied to the choice of independent expert;

(4) consider whether the promoters' nominee for independent expert is suitable for approval or, if the FSA proposes to nominate someone, who the FSA should nominate; and

(5) consider whether to object to the scheme in the light of the report and other circumstances.

06/10/2007

SUP 18.2.13

The initial information on the schemeprovided to the FSA under SUP 18.2.12 G should include its broad outline and its purpose.The FSA will indicate to the promoters how closely it wishes to monitor the progress of the scheme, including the extent to which it wishes to see draft documentation.

21/06/2001

Independent expert: qualifications

SUP 18.2.14

Under section 109(2) of the Act a scheme report may only be made by a person:

(1) appearing to the FSA to have the skills necessary to enable him to make a proper report; and

(2) nominated or approved for the purpose by the FSA .

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.15

The general principles set out in SUP 5.4.8 G, for suitability of a skilled person, apply also to the independent expert. The FSA expects the independent expert making the scheme report to be a natural person, who:

(1) is independent, that is any direct or indirect interest or connection he has or has had in either the transferor or transferee should not be such as to prejudice his status in the eyes of the court; and

(2) has relevant knowledge, both practical and theoretical, and experience of the types of insurance business transacted by the transferor and transferee.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.16

For a transfer of long-term insurance business the independent expert should be an actuary familiar with the role and responsibilities of the actuarial function holder and (if the relevant insurance business includes with-profits insurance business) a with-profits actuary.

01/10/2005

SUP 18.2.17

For a transfer of general insurance business the independent expert should normally be competent at assessing technical provisions and the uncertainties of the liabilities they represent (such as an actuary). Exceptionally, where issues other than the ability of the transferee to meet the liabilities to be transferred are much more significant in assessing the likely effects of the scheme, this criterion might not be applied. In such a case the independent expert would be expected to take advice from an appropriately qualified practitioner about the adequacy of the financial resources of the transferee.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.18

The independent expert would not normally be expected to be knowledgeable:

(1) about general insurance business if the business being transferred is long-term insurance business only; nor

(2) about long-term insurance business if the business being transferred is general insurance business only;

but, where either the transferor or transferee is a composite, he should understand the relevance of the general insurance business to the security of the long-term insurance business policyholders and vice versa and may need to seek independent specialist advice.

21/06/2001

Independent expert: appointment

SUP 18.2.19

The suitability of a person to act as an independent expert depends on the nature of the scheme and the firms concerned. On the basis of the preliminary information supplied by the scheme promoters (and any other knowledge it has of the circumstances and the firms), the FSA will consider what skills are needed to make a proper report on the scheme and what criteria should therefore be applied to the choice of independent expert. The FSA will inform the promoters of any such criteria it is minded to apply.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.20

Under section 107(2) of the Act, the application to the court may be made by the transferor or the transferee or both. As soon as reasonably practical, the intended applicant should choose their nominee for independent expert in the light of any criteria advised by the FSA and advise the FSA of their choice, unless the FSA wishes them to defer nomination or to make its own nomination. The notification should be accompanied by reasons why the party considers the nominee to be a suitable person to act as independent expert, together with relevant details of his experience and qualifications.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.21

The FSA may wish to have preliminary discussions with the nominee about the transfer to help the FSA determine whether he is suitably qualified to address issues arising from the transfer. The FSA will consider the suitability of the nominee and inform the firm that nominated him whether it approves him. Since the nature of the scheme is a factor in determining the suitability of the nominee, the FSA cannot approve a nominee before the broad outlines of the scheme have been determined. If the FSA rejects a nominee, it will normally inform him and, with the agreement of the nominee, the applicant of the reasons for the rejection.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.22

The FSA may itself nominate the independent expert, either where it indicates that a nomination is not required by the parties, or where it does not approve the parties' own nomination. In either case it will inform the promoters of its nominee.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.23

Firms should co-operate fully with the independent expert and provide him with access to all relevant information and appropriate staff.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.24

The guidance set out in SUP 18.2.25 G to SUP 18.2.30 G derives from the requirements of the Insurance Directives and the associated agreements between EEA regulators. Schedule 12 of the Act implements some of these requirements.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.25

(1) If the transferee is (or will be) an EEA firm (authorised in its Home State to carry on insurance business under the Insurance Directives ) or a Swiss general insurance company, then the FSA has to consult the transferee's Home State regulator, who has 3 months to respond. It will be necessary for the FSA to obtain from the transferee's Home State regulator a certificate confirming that the transferee will meet the Home State's solvency margin requirements (if any) after the transfer.

(2) If the transferee is authorised in the United Kingdom, the FSA will need to certify that the transferee will meet its solvency margin requirements after the transfer. If the FSA has required of a UK firm a financial recovery plan of the kind mentioned in paragraph 1 of article 38 of the Life Directive(2002/83/EC) or paragraph 1 of article 20a of the First Non-Life Directive, the FSA will not issue a certificate for so long as it considers that policyholders' rights are threatened within the meaning of paragraph 1.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.26

The transferor will need to provide the FSA with the information that the Home State regulator requires from FSA . This information includes:

(1) the transfer agreement or a draft, with:

(a) the names and addresses of the transferor and transferee; and

(b) the classes of insurance business and details of the nature of the risks or commitments to be transferred;

(2) for the business to be transferred (both before and after reinsurance):

(a) the amount of technical provisions;

(b) the amount of premiums (in the most recent financial period); and

(3) details of assets to be transferred;

(4) details of any guarantees (including reinsurance), whether provided by the transferor or a third party, to protect the provisions for the business transferred against deterioration; and

(5) the states of the risks or the states of the commitmentsbeing transferred.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.27

If the transferee is not (and will not be) authorised and will be neither an EEA firm nor a Swiss general insurance company, then the FSA will need to consult itsinsurance supervisor in the place where the business is to be transferred. The FSA will need confirmation from this supervisor that the transferee will meet his solvency margin requirements there (if any) after the transfer.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.28

If the transferor is an UK insurerand the business to be transferred includes business carried on from a branch in another EEA State, then the FSA has to consult the Host State regulator, who has 3 months to respond. The FSA will need to be given the information that the Host State regulator requires from it. This information should identify the parties to the transfer and include the transfer agreement or draft transfer agreement or a summary containing relevant information, and describe arrangements for settling claims if the branch is to be closed.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.29

If the transferor is an UK insurer and the business to be transferred includes a long-term insurance contract (other than reinsurance) for which the state of the commitment is an EEA state other than the United Kingdom, then the FSA has to consult the Host State regulator. If the transferor is an UK insurer and the business to be transferred includes a general insurance contract (other than reinsurance) for which the state of the risk is an EEA state other than the United Kingdom, then the FSA must consult the Host State regulator. The FSA will need to be given the information that the Host State regulator requires from it. This information should identify the parties to the transfer and include the transfer agreement or draft transfer agreement or a summary containing relevant information. It would be helpful (especially for long-term insurance business) if a draft of the scheme report was also available. The consent of the Host State regulator to the transfer is required, unless he does not respond within 3 months.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.30

Where the transferor is an UK-deposit insurer and, following the transfer, it will no longer be carrying on insurance business in the United Kingdom, the FSA will need to collaborate with regulatory bodies in the other EEA States in which it is carrying on business to ensure that effective supervision of the business carried on in the EEA continues. The transferor should cooperate with the FSA and the other regulatory bodies in this process and demonstrate that it will meet the requirements of its regulators following the transfer.

21/06/2001

Form of scheme report

SUP 18.2.31

Under section 109 of the Act, a scheme report must accompany an application to the court to approve an insurance business transfer scheme. This report must be made in a form approved by the FSA. The FSA would not expect to approve the form of a scheme report unless it complies with SUP 18.2.33 G and would expect to approve the form of a scheme report that complies. SUP 18.2.32 G and SUP 18.2.34 G to SUP 18.2.41 G provide additional guidance for the independent expert.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.32

There may be matters relating to the scheme or the parties to the transfer that the FSA wishes to draw to the attention of the independent expert. The FSA may also wish the report to address particular issues. The independent expert should therefore contact the FSA at an early stage to establish whether there are such matters or issues. The independent expert should form his own opinion on such issues, which may differ from the opinion of the FSA .

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.33

The scheme report should comply with the applicable rules on expert evidence and contain the following information:

(1) who appointed the independent expert and who is bearing the costs of that appointment;

(2) confirmation that the independent expert has been approved or nominated by the FSA ;

(3) a statement of independent expert's professional qualifications and (where appropriate) descriptions of the experience that fits him for the role;

(4) whether the independent expert has, or has had, direct or indirect interest in any of the parties which might be thought to influence his independence, and details of any such interest;

(5) the scope of the report;

(6) the purpose of the scheme;

(7) a summary of the terms of the scheme in so far as they are relevant to the report;

(8) what documents, reports and other material information the independent expert has considered in preparing his report and whether any information that he requested has not been provided;

(9) the extent to which the independent expert has relied on:

(a) information provided by others; and

(b) the judgment of others;

(10) the people on whom the independent expert has relied and why, in his opinion, such reliance is reasonable;

(11) his opinion of the likely effects of the scheme on policyholders (this term is defined to include persons with certain rights and contingent rights under the policies), distinguishing between:

(a) transferring policyholders;

(b) policyholders of the transferor whose contracts will not be transferred; and

(12) what matters (if any) that the independent expert has not taken into account or evaluated in the report that might, in his opinion, be relevant to policyholders' consideration of the scheme; and

(13) for each opinion that the independent expert expresses in the report, an outline of his reasons.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.34

The purpose of the scheme report is to inform the court and the independent expert therefore has a duty to the court. However reliance will also be placed on it by policyholders, by others affected by the scheme and by the FSA . The amount of detail that it is appropriate to include will depend on the complexity of the scheme, the materiality of the details themselves and the circumstances. For instance where it is clear that no-one will be adversely affected by the transfer, a simple explanation for this conclusion plus the details required by SUP 18.2.33 G might be an adequate report.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.35

The summary of the terms of the scheme should include:

(1) a description of any reinsurance arrangements that it is proposed should pass to the transferee under the scheme; and

(2) a description of any guarantees or additional reinsurance that will cover the transferred business or the business of the transferor that will not be transferred.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.36

The independent expert's opinion of the likely effects of the scheme on policyholders should:

(1) include a comparison of the likely effects if it is or is not implemented;

(2) state whether he considered alternative arrangements and, if so, what;

(3) where different groups of policyholders are likely to be affected differently by the scheme, include comment on those differences he considers may be material to the policyholders; and

(4) include his views on:

(a) the effect of the scheme on the security of policyholders' contractual rights, including the likelihood and potential effects of the insolvency of the insurer;

(b) the likely effects of the scheme on matters such as investment management, new business strategy, administration, expense levels and valuation bases in so far as they may affect:

(i) the security of policyholders' contractual rights;

(ii) levels of service provided to policyholders; or

(iii) for long-term insurance business, the reasonable expectations of policyholders; and

(c) the cost and tax effects of the scheme, in so far as they may affect the security of policyholders' contractual rights, or for long-term insurance business, their reasonable expectations.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.37

The independent expert is not expected to comment on the likely effects on new policyholders, that is, those whose contracts are entered into after the effective date of the transfer.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.38

For any mutual company involved in the scheme, the report should:

(1) describe the effect of the scheme on the proprietary rights of members of the company, including the significance of any loss or dilution of the rights of those members to secure or prevent further changes which could affect their entitlements as policyholders;

(2) state whether, and to what extent, members will receive compensation under the scheme for any diminution of proprietary rights; and

(3) comment on the appropriateness of any compensation, paying particular attention to any differences in treatment between members with voting rights and those without.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.39

For a scheme involving long-term insurance business, the report should:

(1) describe the effect of the scheme on the nature and value of any rights of policyholders to participate in profits;

(2) if any such rights will be diluted by the scheme, how any compensation offered to policyholders as a group (such as the injection of funds, allocation of shares, or cash payments) compares with the value of that dilution, and whether the extent and method of its proposed division is equitable as between different classes and generations of policyholders;

(3) describe the likely effect of the scheme on the approach used to determine:

(a) the amounts of any non-guaranteed benefits such as bonuses and surrender values; and

(b) the levels of any discretionary charges;

(4) describe what safeguards are provided by the scheme against a subsequent change of approach to these matters that could act to the detriment of existing policyholders of either firm;

(5) include the independent expert's overall assessment of the likely effects of the scheme on the reasonable expectations of long-term insurance business policyholders;

(6) state whether the independent expert is satisfied that for each firm the scheme is equitable to all classes and generations of its policyholders; and

(7) state whether, in the independent expert's opinion, for each relevant firm the scheme has sufficient safeguards (such as principles of financial management or certification by a with-profits actuary or actuarial function holder) to ensure that the scheme operates as presented.

01/10/2005

SUP 18.2.40

Where the transfer forms part of a wider chain of events or corporate restructuring, it may not be appropriate to consider the transfer in isolation and the independent expert should seek sufficient explanations on corporate plans to enable him to understand the wider picture. Likewise he will need information on the operational plans of the transferee and, if only part of the business of the transferor is transferred, of the transferor. These will need to have sufficient detail to allow him to understand in broad terms how the business will be run. He would not normally be expected to assess the adequacy of systems and controls in detail.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.41

A transfer may provide for benefits to be reduced for some or all of the policies being transferred. This might happen if the transferor is in financial difficulties. If there is such a proposal, the independent expert should report on what reductions he considers ought to be made, unless either:

(1) the information required is not available and will not become available in time for his report, for instance it might depend on future events; or

(2) otherwise, he is unable to report on this aspect in the time available.

Under such circumstances, the transfer might be urgent and it might be appropriate for the reduction in benefits to take place after the event, by means of an order under section 112 of the Act. The FSA would wish to consider the fairness ofany such reduction and section 113 allows the court to appoint an independent actuary to report to the FSAon any such post-transfer reduction in benefits.

21/06/2001

Notice provisions

SUP 18.2.42

Under the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Control of Business Transfers)(Requirements on Applicants) Regulations 2001 (SI 2001/3625), unless the court directs otherwise, notice of the application must be sent to all policyholders of the parties. It may also be appropriate to give notice to others affected, in particular to:

(1) reinsurers of the transferor where it is proposed that benefits or liabilities under their contracts should pass to the transferee; and

(2) anyone with an interest in the policies being transferred who has notified the transferor of their interest.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.43

The regulations referred to in SUP 18.2.42 G require that notice of the application must be published in:

(1) the London, Edinburgh and Belfast Gazettes; and

(2) unless the court directs otherwise, in:

(a) two national newspapers in the United Kingdom; and

(b) in two national newspapers in any other EEA State that is the state of the risk or the state of the commitment.

Wider publication may be appropriate in some circumstances (especially if not all policyholders are sent notices).

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.44

The regulations referred to in SUP 18.2.44 G require that the FSA approves in advance the notices sent to policyholders and published in the press.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.45

Where a transfer involves members of Lloyd's as transferor or transferee, any notice requirements of the Society will also apply.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.46

The FSA is entitled to be heard by the court on any application for a transfer. A consideration for the FSA in determining whether to oppose a transfer would be itsview on whether adequate steps had been taken to tell policyholdersabout the transfer and whether they had adequate information and time to consider it. The FSA would not normally consider adequate a period of less than six weeks between sending notices to policyholders and the date of the court hearing. Therefore it would be sensible, before requesting the court fora waiver of the publication requirements or the requirement to send statements direct to policyholders, to consult the FSA on itsviews about what waivers might be appropriate and what substitute arrangements might be made. The FSA will take into account the practicality and costs of sending notices to policyholders (especially for firms in financial difficulty), the likely benefits for policyholders of receiving notices and the efficacy of other arrangements proposed for informing policyholders (including additional advertising or, where appropriate, electronic communication). For instance, the FSA would be unlikely to object to a transfer on the grounds that policyholders had not been sent notices, if cover for the policies concerned had expired and the probability of them making a claim was so small as to make the sending disproportionately expensive (particularly if there had been additional advertising). A firm may not be able to send notices to some or all of its policyholders, because it does not have their address, or may not even know their identity. This situation is not uncommon for business written through brokers or other agents. In such a case, alternative ways of informing policyholders need to be considered.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.47

As the consent (or presumed consent) of the Host State is required for a transfer covering contracts for which another EEA State is the state of the risk (for general insurance business) or the state of the commitment (for long-term insurance business), it is advisable to obtain the consent of regulatory body in the Host State to any waiver of publication in that state. The approval of the court will still be required.

21/06/2001

Statement to policyholders

SUP 18.2.48

It would normally be appropriate to include with the notice referred to in SUP 18.2.42 G a statement setting out the terms of the scheme and containing a summary of the scheme report. Ideally every recipient should understand in broad terms from the summary how the scheme is likely to affect him. This objective will be most nearly achieved if the summary is clear and concise while containing sufficient detail for the purpose. A lengthy summary or one that was hard to understand would not be appropriate. Regulations require the scheme report, the notice and the statement to be made available to anyone requesting them. The internet can be used for this purpose if it is suitable for the person making the request.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.49

Where the transferee is a friendly society, the notice should include information about the meeting at which a special resolution in accordance with paragraph 7 of Schedule 12 to the Friendly Societies Act 1992 is to be voted on, including the date of the meeting, how notice of the meeting is to be given to members and the terms of the special resolution. After the meeting the friendly society should inform the FSA whether the special resolution has been passed. The court will also need to be informed, so an appropriateway of informing the FSA may be to include it in the affidavit to the court.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.50

The FSA should be given the opportunity to comment on the statement referred to in SUP 18.2.48 G before it is sent, unless the FSA has informed the promoters in writing that it does not wish to do so.

21/06/2001

FSA assessment of scheme

SUP 18.2.51

The assessment is a continuing process, starting when the scheme promoters first approach the FSA about a proposed scheme. Among the considerations that may be relevant to both the depth of consideration given to, and the FSA's opinion on, a scheme are:

(1) the potential risk posed by the transfer to the regulatory objectives;

(2) the purpose of the scheme;

(3) how the security of policyholders' (who include persons with certain rights and contingent rights under the policies) contractual rights appears to be affected;

(4) how the scheme compares with possible alternatives, particularly those that do not require approval (whether by the court or the FSA );

(5) how policyholders' rights and reasonable expectations appear to be affected;

(6) the compensation offered to policyholders for any loss of rights or expectations;

(7) how for other persons (besides policyholders) who have an interest in policies, their rights and the security of those rights appear to be affected;

(8) the opportunity given to policyholdersto consider the scheme, that is whether they have been properly notified, whether they have had adequate information and whether they have had adequate time to consider that information;

(9) the opinion of the independent expert;

(10) for a transfer that involves members of Lloyd's as transferor or transferee, the effect on the Society;

(11) the views of other regulatory bodies consulted in connection with the proposed transfer; and

(12) any views expressed by policyholders.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.52

The scheme report will be an important factor in the view the FSA forms on a scheme. The FSA will place considerable reliance on the opinions of the independent expert and the reasons for them. However it will form its own view taking into account other information and having regard to its regulatory objectives.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.53

The FSA is likely to object to a scheme if it concludesthat it is unfair to a class of policyholders, unless the policyholders of that class have approved the scheme on the basis of information the FSA considers clear and accurate. Policyholders are not required to vote on a scheme but would, for instance, normally vote on a demutualisation or on a scheme of arrangement under the Companies Act 2006. The FSA is also likely to object to a scheme if it concludes that it has a material adverse effect on policyholders' security. The FSA may wish to satisfy itself that questions of systems and controls are properly addressed. There may also be conduct of business issues, particularly if the market has not fully absorbed the impact of the scheme by its effective date. The FSA would seek to resolve such issues through discussion with the scheme promoters in advance of the application to the court for approval, giving them the opportunity to amend the scheme or documentation, or otherwise to allay the FSA's concerns. Scheme promoters should keep the FSA informed to allow this discussion.

01/10/2009

SUP 18.2.54

The FSA may exercise its other powers under the Act, if it considers this a more effective method of achieving its regulatory objectives.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.55

The FSA is not required under its regulatory objectives to object to a scheme merely because some other scheme might have been in the better interests of policyholders, if the scheme itself is not adverse to their interests. However there may be circumstances where treating customers fairly wouldrequire a firm to consider or to implement an alternative scheme.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.56

Where a transfer involves members of Lloyd's as transferor or transferee, the FSA will consult the Society. Where the business of a syndicate is being transferred, the transfer involves all members participating in the relevant syndicate years.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.57

Regulations require that copies of the application to the court, the scheme report and the statement for policyholders referred to in SUP 18.2.48 G are also given to the FSA. This enables the FSA to consider these and determine whether it wishes to be heard by the court. It might assist the FSA if these items were given to the FSA in draft, in the first instance. This would enable:

(1) the FSA to seek clarification before the documents were finalised; and

(2) if the promoters so choose, allow them to amend the scheme to meet any concerns of the FSA.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.58

For long-term insurance business, the affidavit evidence to the court would normally include copies of reports on the transfer by the actuarial function holder and (if the insurance business includes with-profits business) the with-profits actuary of both firms, which should be provided to the FSA at an early stage. SUP 4.3.17 R (4) requires a firm to request the advice of its with-profits actuary about the likely effect of material changes in its business plans on the rights and reasonable expectations of the relevant classes of its with-profits policyholders. A transfer would be material unless the liabilities transferred were not material relative to the total liabilities of the firm. The advice on a transfer would normally be in the form of a formal report by the with-profits actuary.

01/10/2005

SUP 18.2.59

The scheme promoters should advise the FSA about any material representations made to them in response to the transfer scheme. Where it is proposed that reinsurance arrangements should pass to the transferee under the scheme, the FSA should also be informed about the steps being taken to consult with, or seek the consent of, the reinsurers and the reactions received.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.2.60

The court is likely to wish to know the FSA's opinion on the scheme and, if the FSA does not intend to be heard, the affidavit may include a summary of the views expressed by the FSA. The applicants to the court should provide the FSA with a copy of all the affidavit evidence that they intend to submit to the court.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.3

Insurance business transfers outside the United Kingdom

01/12/2004

Purpose

SUP 18.3.1

Under section 115 of the Act, the FSA has the power to give a certificate confirming that a firm possesses any required minimum margin, to facilitate an insurance business transfer to the firm under overseas legislation from a firm authorised in another EEA State or from a Swiss general insurance company. This section provides guidance on how the FSA would exercise this power and on related matters.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.3.2

Under cooperation agreements between EEA regulators, if it has serious concerns about the proposed transferee, the FSA should inform the regulatory body of the transferor within 3 months of the original request from that regulatory body. The FSA is not obliged to reply, but if it does not, its opinion is taken to be favorable. Although the protocol does not apply to Switzerland, the FSA is required to cooperate with the Swiss regulatory body and would apply similar principles to a proposed transfer from a Swiss general insurance company.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.3.3

The information that the regulatory body of the transferor is required to supply will normally be sufficient for the FSA to determine whether the transfer is likely to have a material effect on the transferee.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.3.4

If the effect of the transfer is not likely to be material and the FSA does not already have serious concerns about the transferee, the FSA can reply favorably.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.3.5

If the effect of the transfer may be material, the FSA will need to consider whether to request a scheme of operations or other information from the proposed transferee to assist in determining whether the likely effect of the transfer is such that the FSA should have serious concerns.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.3.6

If the effect of the transfer may have a material adverse effect on the transferee or the security of policyholders, the FSA will consider whether it is appropriate to exercise its powers under the Act to achieve its regulatory objectives .

21/06/2001

SUP 18.4

Friendly Society transfers and amalgamations

01/12/2004

Purpose

SUP 18.4.1

It is for the committee of management of a friendly society to decide whether to recommend an amalgamation or a transfer of engagements to the society's members. This section provides some guidance on the procedures to be followed and the information to be provided to a friendly society's members so that they are appropriately informed before they exercise their right to vote on the proposals.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.4.2

Friendly societies are encouraged to discuss a proposed transfer or amalgamation with the FSA , at an early stage to help ensure that a workable timetable is developed. This is particularly important where there are notification requirements for supervisory authorities in EEA States other than the United Kingdom, or for an amalgamation where additional procedures are required.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.4.3

The FSA will want to satisfy itselfthat after an amalgamation or a transfer the business will be prudently managed and continue to comply with the Principles. It may therefore require prudential information to be provided. It may request prudential information at an early stage to provide itself with adequate time to assess the information.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.4.4

For a transfer to another friendly society, if the conditions of 87(1) and 87(2) of the Friendly Societies Act 1992 are met a report is required from the appropriate actuary of the transferee to confirm that it will meet the required minimum margin . Where the conditions of 87(1) and 87(3) are met the FSA may require a report from the appropriate actuary of the transferee to confirm that it will have an excess of assets over liabilities.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.4.5

For a transfer of long-term insurance business, the FSA may, under section 88 of the Friendly Societies Act 1992, require a report from an independent actuary on the terms of the proposed transfer and on his opinion of the likely effects of the transfer on long-term policyholder members of either the transferor or (if it is a friendly society) the transferee. A summary is included in the statement sent to members (see SUP 18.4.13 G) and the full report is required to be made available to anyone on payment of a reasonable fee. The general principles in SUP 18.2.32 G to SUP 18.2.40 G apply to the independent actuary's report.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.4.6

Under the Friendly Societies Act 1992 the FSA may not confirm a transfer of engagements unless it is satisfied that the transfer is in the interests of the members of each friendly society participating in the transfer (see SUP 18.4.25 G (2)(b)). Itwill therefore ask that the participating societies' actuaries confirm that the transfer is in the interests of the members.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.4.7

Under the Friendly Societies Act 1992, members will normally have the opportunity to vote on a proposed transfer or amalgamation (SUP 18.4.11 G and SUP 18.4.12 G describe exceptions). A friendly society has to ensure that, before casting their votes, its members are clearly and fully informed of the terms on which the amalgamation or transfer of engagements is to take place and that they have all the information needed to understand how their interests will be affected. If the society's rules permit, delegates can vote except on an "affected members' resolution" under section 86. The FSA may not confirm an amalgamation or a transfer if it considers that information material to the members' decision was not made available to all the members eligible to vote.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.4.8

Amendments to a friendly society's registered rules may be necessary to permit a transfer to it. The FSA will need to be consulted in the usual way about registration of the appropriate rules. Similarly for an amalgamation, each of the amalgamating societies has to approve the memorandum and rules of the new society and the requirements of schedule 3 to the Friendly Societies Act 1992 have to be met. It will be necessary to allow adequate time for these processes.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.4.9

For an amalgamation the successor society, and for a transfer the transferee, may need to apply for permission, or to vary its permission, under Part IVof the Act. The FSA will need time before confirming a transferto consider whether any necessary permission or variation should be given. If the transferee is an EEA firm or a Swiss general insurance company, then confirmation will be needed from its Home State regulator that it meets the Home State's solvency margin requirements (see SUP 18.4.25 G (3)).

21/06/2001

SUP 18.4.10

It is likely that the information sent to members will include a statement explaining the reasons for the amalgamation or transfer and the choice of partner. Although this is not a statutory statement and not subject to FSA approval, the FSA will take the statement into account whenconsidering whether to confirm the amalgamation or transfer. A friendly society will therefore find it helpful to consult the FSA about the content of such a statement.

21/06/2001

FSA discretion

SUP 18.4.11

The FSA has discretion under section 86(3)(b) of the Friendly Societies Act 1992 to allow a transferee society to resolve to undertake to fulfil the engagements of a transferor society by resolution of the committee of management, rather than by special resolution. Among the issues on which the FSA will wish to satisfy itself before exercising this discretion, are that the transfer will be in the interests of the members of both societies and that the transfer will not mean a change of policy by the transferee society. The FSA is unlikely to exercise this discretion unless the transferee is significantly larger than the business to be transferred.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.4.12

The FSA has discretion under section 89 of the Friendly Societies Act 1992 to modify some of the requirements for a transfer of engagements from a friendly society, on the application of a specified number of its members, if it is satisfied that it is expedient to do so in the interests of its members or potential members.

21/06/2001

Schedule 15 statement to members

SUP 18.4.13

Schedule 15 to the Friendly Societies Act 1992 requires a statement to be sent to every member of a friendly society entitled to vote on a transfer or amalgamation. Among other matters this statement has to cover the financial position of the friendly society and every other participant in the transfer or amalgamation. The members should be provided with sufficient financial information about the respective financial positions of the participants to gain an understanding of the relative financial strengths and key features of the participants. The statement has to include a summary of any actuary's report under section 88, though the FSA may direct that the summary is to be provided separately if inclusion appears impractical.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.4.14

The financial information provided under SUP 18.4.13 G would normally contain comparative statements of balance sheets at the same date, and include main investments, reserves and funds or technical provisions, with details of the number of members of each participant as at the balance sheet date and the premium income of the relevant fund of each participant during the financial year to which the balance sheet relates. SUP 18.4.15 G to SUP 18.4.18 G give further guidance on the financial information to be included.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.4.15

If the information relates to a position some time in the past, the information should state that there has been no significant change or include a clear description of the changes. Differences in accounting policies and reporting requirements could lead to the loss of some comparability between participants. Such differences and their estimated financial effects (if any) should be explained.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.4.16

The information should state whether any of the participants has any significant future capital commitments. The FSA will require it to state that the transfer of engagements or amalgamation will not conflict with any contractual commitment by a society, any subsidiary or any body jointly controlled by it and others.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.4.17

Brief details should be given of the date of the last actuarial valuation and the position revealed (surplus/deficit, required minimum margin and free assets) for each participant.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.4.18

The FSA may require confirmation from the auditors of either friendly society involved in the transfer or amalgamation about the reasonableness of any part of the information in the statement. For instance such confirmation would normally be required if the financial information relates to a date more than six months previously.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.4.19

The statement is required to include particulars of:

(1) any interest of the members of the committee of management in the amalgamation or transfer; and

(2) any compensation or other consideration proposed to be paid to committee members or other officers of the society and to the officers of every other society or person participating in the amalgamation or transfer.

Under section 92 of the Friendly Societies Act 1992, any compensation must be approved by a special resolution, separate from any resolution approving other terms of the amalgamation or transfer. This enables members to vote on this as a separate issue.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.4.20

Under schedule 15 to the Friendly Societies Act 1992, the FSA may require the statement to include any other matter. The FSA would normally require inclusion of the terms on which the amalgamation or the transfer of engagements is to be made.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.4.21

The statement should be clearly separate from other information sent to members. It has to be approved by the FSA and if it is not in a self-contained document, the approved element should appear in a separate section.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.4.22

SUP 18 Annex 1 provides an example of the information for members required by Schedule 15.

21/06/2001

Confirmation procedures and criteria

SUP 18.4.23

Under the Friendly Societies Act 1992:

(1) when the members of a transferor society have approved the transfer of its engagements by passing a special resolution and the transferee has approved the transfer (by passing a resolution where the transferee is a friendly society); or

(2) when two or more societies have approved a proposed amalgamation by passing a special resolution;

it, or they jointly, must then obtain confirmation by the FSA of the transfer. Notice of the application will need to be published in one or more of the London, Edinburgh or Belfast Gazettes and other newspapers as directed by the FSA . If the FSA confirms a transfer, then itwill register the society's instrument of transfer after receiving an application on the appropriate form by the transferor society and the transferee. If the FSA confirms an amalgamation, it will register the successor society. All the property, rights and liabilities pass on the transfer date specified by the FSA .

21/06/2001

SUP 18.4.24

For a directive friendly society, if the transfer or amalgamation includes policies where the state of the risk or the state of the commitment is an EEA State other than the United Kingdom, consultation with the Host State regulator is required and SUP 18.2.25 G to SUP 18.2.29 G apply (for an amalgamation they apply as if the business of the amalgamating societies is to be transferred to the successor society). Paragraph 6(1) of Schedule 15 to the Friendly Societies Act 1992 requires publication of the application to the FSA for confirmation of an amalgamation or transfer and the FSA may require the notice of the application to be published in two national newspapers in the Host State.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.4.25

The criteria that the FSA must use in determining whether to confirm a proposed amalgamation or transfer are set out in schedule 15 to the Friendly Societies Act 1992. These criteria include that:

(1) confirmation must not be given if the FSA considers that:

(a) there is a substantial risk that the successor society or transferee will be unable lawfully to carry out the engagements to be transferred to it;

(b) information material to the members' decision about the amalgamation or transfer was not made available to all the members eligible to vote;

(c) the vote on any resolution approving the amalgamation or transfer does not represent the views of the members eligible to vote; or

(d) some relevant requirement of the Friendly Societies Act 1992 or the rules of any of the participating societies was not fulfilled (but it can modify some requirements and direct that certain failures may be disregarded, see SUP 18.4.12 G and SUP 18.4.27 G);

(2) the FSA must be satisfied that:

(a) the transferee or successor society will have any permissions necessary under Part IVof the Act;

(b) for a transfer, it is in the interests of the members of each friendly society participating in it (see SUP 18.4.6 G); and

(c) for a directive friendly society where a transfer includes policies where the state of the risk or the state of the commitment is an EEA State other than the United Kingdom, the Host State regulator has been notified of the transfer and has consented or has not refused consent to the transfer; and

(3) for a transfer, the transferee possesses the required minimum margin after taking the proposed transfer into account or, where it is not required to maintain a required minimum margin , possesses an excess of assets over liabilities (for a transferee that is a Swiss general insurance company or an EEA firm, this is evidenced by a certificate from its home state regulator).

21/06/2001

SUP 18.4.26

If authorisation or a Part IV permission is needed, the FSA will need to consider the application for authorisation or permission in the usual way. If the authorisation or permission is refused, confirmation cannot be given even if all the other criteria are met. As part of the regulatory objective to protect consumers, the FSA may consider whether an amalgamation is in the interests of members.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.4.27

The FSA may (as an alternative to refusing confirmation) direct the society or societies to remedy certain procedural defects in a proposed transfer or amalgamation, and after they have been remedied confirm the application. If it appears to the FSA that failure to meet a "relevant requirement" of the Friendly Societies Act 1992 or the rules of the friendly society could not be material to the members' decision, then it may direct that this failure is to be disregarded.

21/06/2001

Confirmation procedures: representations

SUP 18.4.28

Any interested party has the right to make representations to the FSA about an application for confirmation of a transfer or amalgamation. This includes any person (whether a member of the friendly society or not) who claims that he would be adversely affected by the amalgamation or transfer. The person making the representations should state clearly why he or she claims to be an interested party and the ground or grounds to which the representations are directed.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.4.29

Written representations, or written notice of a person's intention to make oral representations, or both, are required to reach the FSA by the date published in the relevant Gazettes and other newspapers. Those giving notice of intent to make oral representations are advised to state the nature and general grounds of the oral representations they intend to make. Persons who make written representations but subsequently decide also to make oral representations are required, nevertheless, to give notice of that intention, in writing, to the FSA by the same date.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.4.30

The FSA will send copies of all written representations to the society(ies), and will afford them an opportunity to comment on the representations. It may consider the written representations and a society's response to them, before the date set for hearing oral representations. A synopsis of the written representations (probably in the form of a summary of each of the points made and the numbers of persons making each point) and a society's responses will be made available to those participating in the hearing. This is intended to inform those making oral representations of the points already being considered by the FSA .

21/06/2001

SUP 18.4.31

The FSA expects that any documents referred to in a society's comments will be made available by the society for inspection at its registered office and, if reasonably possible, at the venue of the hearing on the date of the hearing. However if a society applies to put documents which it considers to be sensitive to the FSA in confidence, the FSA will balance any disadvantage this might cause interested parties in making representations against the commercial damage that publication of the documents might cause, and may permit the documents or sensitive parts of them not to be available for inspection.

21/06/2001

Confirmation hearing

SUP 18.4.32

Interested parties may be represented and may make collective representations. Such arrangements should be notified to the FSA in advance to enable it to make appropriate arrangements.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.4.33

The hearing referred to in SUP 18.4.30 G will be at a time and place that will be notified to the participants and will be conducted by FSA representatives. The hearing may last longer than one day and may be adjourned. The FSA will try to tell participants when they may expect to make their representations and when the society may be expected to respond.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.4.34

The FSA expects that oral hearings will be held in public though this is not required. At the start members of the general public and the press will be asked to wait outside while participants are asked if any of them has good reason to object to the admission of the general public or the press. Unless an objection by a participant is upheld by the FSA representatives, the press and the general public will then be admitted, within the limits of the space available. However, the FSA representatives may decide that parts of the hearing will be in private if that appears to them to be desirable.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.4.35

The procedure will be informal. All participants will be expected to speak concisely and avoid repetition. The FSA will, as far as practicable, help those who are not professionally represented. Those taking the hearing may question the participants. The sequence of events will normally be broadly:

(1) any preliminary matters (such as the admission of the public or other procedural questions) will be dealt with;

(2) the chair of the hearing will introduce the proceedings;

(3) the society representatives will be invited to speak on the application, including a description of the events at the meeting at which the resolution to amalgamate or transfer was put to the members, a statement of the voting on the resolution, and any other matters which they wish to introduce at that stage;

(4) the other participants will be invited to speak to their representations. The FSA expects to call them in order of a list arranged, so far as possible, by subject matter;

(5) the society representatives will be invited to reply to, or comment on, the points made by the other participants; and

(6) the other participants will be invited to comment on the society replies.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.4.36

The above procedure may be varied according to the circumstances at the hearing, and is intended only as a guide. The hearing may be adjourned if the FSA representatives consider that necessary to enable facts to be checked or additional information to be obtained.

21/06/2001

SUP 18.4.37

The FSA will not decide whether to confirm the transfer or amalgamation at the hearing. A copy of its written decision, including its findings on the points made in representations, will be sent to the society(ies) and to those making representations. It will also be available to any other person on request and may be published.

21/06/2001

SUP 18 Annex 1

Friendly Society transfer or amalgamation (Information requirements related to Schedule 15 Friendly Societies Act 1992) (This belongs to SUP 18.4.22G)

01/12/2004

Transfer/Amalgamation of [Society A] to/with [Society B]

Proposed effective date:

Comparative financial positions

(a) Balance Sheet as at 31 December 20-

Society A

Society B

ASSETS

Land and buildings (4)

Government securities

Equities

Other investments (6)

Fixed assets

Other assets

Cash at bank and in hand

___________

LIABILITIES

Benefit funds [technical provisions] (7)

[Management fund]

Other liabilities and provisions

Reserve funds [Reserves] (8)

___________

NOTES

(1)

The above figures are extracted from the audited accounts [unaudited accounts] of [Society A and Society B] for the year [period] ended:

(2)

There has been no significant change in the financial position of the [participants] [except for ]

(3)

The future capital commitments of [the participants] are:[None of [the participants] has any significant future capital commitments.]

(4)

Land and buildings have been brought into account on the following bases: (include statement of any differences in accounting policies and where material any estimated financial effects)

(5)

Investments have been brought into account on the following bases: (include statement of any differences in accounting policies and where material any estimated financial effects)

(6)

Other investments comprise: (include statement of any differences in accounting policies and where material any estimated financial effects)

(7)

Benefit Funds [Technical Provisions] comprise:(include statement of any differences in accounting policies and where material any estimated financial effects)

(8)

Reserve Funds [Reserves] comprise:

(9)

The membership at [ ] and premium income received during [ ] for each [participant] were:

(10)

Brief summary of the financial position of each [participant] as shown in the last actuarial investigation:

(11)

Summary of independent actuary's report under section 88 of the Friendly Societies Act 1992:

(12)

The interests of committee members of the [participants] in the transfer [amalgamation] are:

(13)

Proposed compensation to be paid to committee members and[/or] to other officers is:

(14)

The terms of the transfer[amalgamation] are:

21/06/2001

SUP 20

Fees Rules

SUP 20.1

The periodic fees rules are set out in FEES 4 (Periodic fees)

01/01/2006

SUP 20.2

The periodic fees rules are set out in FEES 4 (Periodic fees)

01/01/2006

SUP 20.3

The periodic fees rules are set out in FEES 4 (Periodic fees)

01/01/2006

SUP 20.4

The periodic fees rules are set out in FEES 4 (Periodic fees)

01/01/2006

SUP 20.5

The periodic fees rules are set out in FEES 4 (Periodic fees)

01/01/2006

SUP 20.6

The periodic fees rules are set out in FEES 4 (Periodic fees)

01/01/2006

SUP 20.7

The periodic fees rules are set out in FEES 4 (Periodic fees)

01/01/2006

SUP 20 Annex 1

The provisions relating to periodic fees rules are set out in FEES 4 (Periodic fees)

01/01/2006

SUP 20 Annex 2

The provisions relating to periodic fees rules are set out in FEES 4 (Periodic fees)

01/01/2006

SUP 20 Annex 3

The provisions relating to periodic fees rules are set out in FEES 4 (Periodic fees)

01/01/2006

SUP 20 Annex 4

These provisions have been moved to FEES 3 Annex 6R

01/01/2006

SUP 21

Waiver

SUP 21.1

Form of waiver for energy market participants

01/12/2004

SUP 21.1.1

SUP 21 Annex 1 sets out a form of waiver that the FSA will be minded to give to energy market participants in the exercise of its statutory discretion under section 148 of the Act to grant a waiver of its rules.

06/02/2008

SUP 21.1.2

Energy market participants should bear in mind that section 148 of the Act requires that in order to give a waiver of particular rules, the FSA must be satisfied that:

(1) compliance with the rules, or with the rules as unmodified, would be unduly burdensome or would not achieve the purpose for which the rules were made; and

(2) the waiver would not result in undue risk to persons whose interests the rules are intended to protect.

01/02/2004

SUP 21.1.3

Accordingly, the FSA must be satisfied that the statutory criteria will be met in each case where an energy market participant applies for a waiver in the form in SUP 21 Annex 1.

01/02/2004

SUP 21.1.4

In particular, clause 4 of the form of waiver in SUP 21 Annex 1 will not ordinarily be inserted in waivers for energy market participants that will not, at the time the waiver will take effect, clearly satisfy the conditions set out in that clause. For these purposes the FSA will take into account the relative proportions of the energy market participant's assets and revenues that are referable to the various parts of its business, as well as to any other factor that the FSA considers is relevant to an assessment of the prudential risk presented by the energy market participant.

01/02/2004

SUP 21 Annex 1

01/12/2004

This annex consists only of one or more forms. Forms are to be found through the following address:

Form of Waiver: Energy Market Participant - sup_chapter21_annex1g.pdf

01/02/2004

SUP App 1

Prudential categories and sub-categories

SUP App 1.1

Application

01/12/2004

SUP App 1.1.1

This appendix applies to every firm.

21/06/2001

SUP App 1.2

Purpose

01/12/2004

SUP App 1.2.1

The purpose of this appendix is to give guidance on the prudential categories and sub-categories of firm used in the Interim Prudential sourcebooks and the Supervision manual. The prudential categories are defined in the Glossary, and some of the sub-categories are defined there and some in the glossaries of the Interim Prudential sourcebooks.

21/06/2001

SUP App 1.2.2

Prudential requirements for firms are set out in the Prudential Standards part of the Handbook according to their prudential category. Certain reporting requirements and other prudential material are contained in the Supervision manual, for example SUP 16 (Reporting requirements).

01/01/2007

SUP App 1.2.3

If there is any doubt about prudential categorisation, a firm should seek individual guidance from its usual supervisory contact at the FSA and an applicant for authorisation should seek guidance from the Corporate Authorisation department.

21/06/2001

SUP App 1.3

Prudential categories and sub-categories

01/12/2004

SUP App 1.3.1

Prudential categories and sub-categories used in the Prudential sourcebooks and the Supervision manual

Prudential categories (Note 1)

Applicable prudential requirements (Note 2)

Prudential sub-categories

Authorised professional firm*

IPRU(INV) 1 and 2

Bank*

GENPRU, BIPRU and IPRU(BANK)

EEA bank Overseas bank UK bank

BIPRU investment firm

GENPRU and BIPRU

Full scope BIPRU investment firm
BIPRU limited licence firm
BIPRU limited activity firm

Building society*

GENPRU, BIPRU and IPRU(BSOC)

Credit union

CRED 7, 8, 9, and 10

Version 1 credit union
Version 2 credit union

ELMI

ELM

Friendly society

IPRU(FSOC)

Directive friendly society
Incorporated friendly society
Non-directive friendly society
Registered friendly society
Flat rate benefits business friendly society

Home finance administrator

MIPRU

Home finance intermediary

MIPRU

Home finance provider

MIPRU

ICVC*

None, but see COLL

Incoming EEA firm

GENPRU, BIPRU, INSPRU and IPRU(BANK)

EEA bank

Incoming Treaty firm

None (unless another prudential category applies)

Insurance intermediary

MIPRU

Insurer*

IPRU(INS) or IPRU(FSOC), GENPRU, INSPRU and MIPRU

Long term insurer
General insurer
Friendly society (see above)

Investment management firm*

IPRU(INV) 1 and 5

Exempt CAD firm (see also IPRU(INV) 9)
OPS firm
Non-OPS life office
Non-OPS local authority
Individuals admitted to authorisation collectively
Individual whose sole investment business is giving investment advice to institutional or corporate investors
Other

Lead regulated firm

None (unless another prudential category applies)

Media firm*

None

Members' adviser

IPRU(INV) 1 and 4

Personal investment firm*

IPRU(INV) 1 and 13

Category B firm
Category B1 firm
Category B2 firm
Category B3 firm
Exempt CAD firm
Low resource firm
Network
Small personal investment firm

Securities and futures firm*

IPRU(INV) 1 and either 3 or 9
There is a special transitional regime for ex-section 43 lead regulated firms - see transitional rules to IPRU(INV).

IPRU(INV) 3:
Adviser
Arranger
Broad scope firm
Corporate finance advisory firm
Dematerialised instruction transmitter
Derivative fund manager
Energy market participant
Exempt BIPRU commodities firm
Local
Oil market participant
Venture capital firm
Other
IPRU(INV) 9:
Exempt CAD firm

Service company*

IPRU(INV) 1 and 6

Society of Lloyd's*

INSPRU and IPRU(INS)

UCITS firm*

UPRU

UCITS investment firm

GENPRU and BIPRU

UCITS qualifier

None (unless another prudential category applies)

UK ISPV

Underwriting agent

IPRU(INV) 1 and 4

Managing agent
Members' agent

Note 1 = It is possible for a firm to have more than one prudential category. But it cannot have more than one of the prudential categories marked with a '*'.
Note 2 = Only the requirements in the Prudential sourcebooks, and CRED are listed in the column. Requirements in other parts of the Handbook will also apply.

01/04/2009

SUP App 1.4

Relevance of prudential categories

01/12/2004

SUP App 1.4.1

Many, but not all, of the categories are used only in the the Prudential Standards part of the Handbook and the Supervision manual. The prudential category of a firm will normally determine:

(1) which module of the Prudential Standards part of the Handbook is applicable to the firm;

(2) if the firm is subject to the IPRU(INV), which chapter of that sourcebook is applicable to the firm;

(3) whether particular chapters of the Supervision manual are applicable to the firm; and

(4) if the firm is subject to SUP 3 (Auditors), SUP 16 (Reporting) or SUP 17 (Transaction reporting), which parts of those chapters apply to the firm.

01/01/2007

SUP App 1.4.2

In some cases, a firm may also fall within a prudential sub-category. This will determine which provisions within a particular sourcebook or chapter apply to the firm.

21/06/2001

SUP App 1.4.3

If a firm is part of a group, each authorised member of the group will have its own prudential category. Firms should refer to the provisions of the relevant module of the Prudential Standards part of the Handbook to determine whether and, if so, how consolidated supervision applies.

01/01/2007

SUP App 1.5

Determining the prudential categories of a firm

01/12/2004

SUP App 1.5.1

This appendix includes flow diagrams (Figures 1 and 2) to assist in determining the prudential category of a firm.

21/06/2001

SUP App 1.5.2

For a firm which became an authorised person after commencement, the FSA will have confirmed the applicable prudential category of the firm as part of the authorisation process.

21/06/2001

SUP App 1.5.3

For a firm with automatic authorisation by passporting under the Single Market Directives, exercising rights under the Treaty or as a UCITS qualifier, the FSA will have notified the firm of its prudential category at the same time as the FSA notified it of the applicable provisions to which it is subject (see SUP 13A for further details on inward passporting). If it has a top-up permission, then SUP App 1.5.2 G may also apply.

01/02/2006

SUP App 1.6

Changing prudential category after authorisation

01/12/2004

SUP App 1.6.1

A firm's prudential category may change in the following circumstances:

(1) A variation in the firm's permission may, in some cases, lead to an automatic change in the firm's prudential category or sub-category because of the way those categories are defined. For example, if an investment management firm is granted permission to accept deposits, it may become a bank and cease to be an investment management firm. Figures 1 and 2 may be used, even if a firm's permission is varied after commencement. They should enable a firm to determine whether any variation in its permission will lead to a change in prudential category.

(2) The FSA may vary the firm's permission and thereby require a firm to comply with the rules applicable to a different prudential category, either through using its own-initiative power or on the application of the firm.

21/06/2001

SUP App 1.6.2

A firm should notify the FSA immediately if it believes that its prudential category or sub-category has changed (see SUP 15.3.8 G (1)(g)), or if there has been an expansion or reduction in its business that could be relevant to its prudential categorisation or sub-categorisation (see SUP 15.3.8 G).

21/06/2001

SUP App 1.7

Prudential categories and sub-categories

01/12/2004

SUP Fig App 1.7.1

Figure 1: Determination of a firm's prudential category - general

01/11/2007

SUP Fig App 1.7.2

Figure 2: Determination of a firm's prudential category (cont'd)

21/06/2001

SUP App 1.8

Notes to Figures 1 and 2

01/12/2004

SUP App 1.8.1

Note 1

Chapter of IPRU(INV) that requirement on permission requires the firm to comply with

Firm's prudential category

Chapter 3

Securities and futures firm

Chapter 5

Investment management firm

Chapter 13

Personal investment firm

01/11/2007

SUP App 1.8.2

Note 2

The table below shows how a firm's main regulated activities determine its prudential category. A firm's 'main regulated activities' in this context are the regulated activities included in the firm's Part IV permission from which the firm derives or is expected to derive the most substantial part of its gross income, including commissions. The aggregate gross income from all of the activities listed against each prudential category should be considered to determine which source is the most substantial.

The gross income is based on the business plan submitted as part of the firm's application for a Part IV permission (for a firm given a Part IV permission after commencement) or on the firm's financial year preceding its authorisation under the Act (for a firm authorised under section 25 of the Financial Services Act 1986 prior to commencement).

If the firm's prudential categorisation is not clear, please consult the FSA for guidance.

Activities from which the most substantial part of the firm's gross income, (including commissions), from designated investment businessis derived

Firm's prudential category

(i) Managing investments other than for retail clients or if the assets managed are primarily derivatives;
(ii) OPS activity;
(iii) acting as the manager or trustee of an AUT;
(iv) acting as the ACD or depository of an ICVC;
(v) establishing, operating or winding up a collective investment scheme other than an AUT or ICVC;
(va) establishing, operating or winding up a personal pension scheme; and
(vi) safeguarding and administering investments.

Investment management firm

(i) Advising on investments, arranging (bringing about) deals in investments, or making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments in relation to packaged products; and
(ii) managing investments for private customers.

Personal investment firm

(i) An activity carried on as a member of an exchange;
(ii) making a market in securities or derivatives;
(iii) corporate finance business;
(iv) dealing (excluding, in the case of a home finance provider, dealing as principal in contractually based investments where this activity is carried out for risk management purposes and would have been excluded under article 16 of the Regulated Activities Order if the firm were an unauthorised person or under article 19 of the Regulated Activities Order), arranging (bringing about) deals in investments, or making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments in securities or derivatives;
(v) the provision of clearing services as a clearing firm;
(vi) managing investments where the assets managed are primarily derivatives; and
(vi) activities relating to spread bets;

Securities and futures firm

06/12/2009

SUP App 1.8.3

Note 3

Single SRO membership

Firm's prudential category

IMRO

Investment management firm

PIA

Personal investment firm

SFA

Securities and futures firm

21/06/2001

SUP App 1.8.4

Note 4

SRO to whose Financial Supervision requirements the firm was subject

Firm's prudential category

IMRO

Investment management firm

PIA

Personal investment firm

SFA

Securities and futures firm

21/06/2001

SUP App 1.8.5

Note 5
Only a small number of firms are expected to be authorised under section 25 of the Financial Services Act 1986 immediately prior to commencement and not be a member of one of the SROs. These firms are directly regulated by the FSA under the Financial Services Act 1986.

21/06/2001

SUP App 2

Insurers: Regulatory intervention points and run-off plans

SUP App 2.1

Application

31/12/2004

SUP App 2.1.1

SUP App 2.1 to 2.15 apply to an insurer, unless it is:

(1) a Swiss general insurer; or

(2) an EEA-deposit insurer; or

(3) an incoming EEA firm; or

(4) an incoming Treaty firm.

31/12/2006

SUP App 2.1.2

SUP App 2.1 to 2.15 apply to every friendly societythat is an insurer.

31/12/2006

SUP App 2.1.3

SUP App 2.15 applies to an insurer carrying on with-profits business, but only if COBS 20.2.53 R (Ceasing to effect new contracts of insurance in a with-profits fund) also applies.

01/11/2007

SUP App 2.2

Interpretation

31/12/2004

SUP App 2.2.1

For the purpose of SUP App 2.1 to 2.14:

(1) "capital resources":

(a) in relation to a non-directive friendly society, has the meaning given to "margin of solvency" in rule 4.1(4) of IPRU(FSOC);
(b) in relation to a participating insurance undertaking, means P+T, where P and T have the meanings given by INSPRU 6.1.45R (3)(a) and (e) respectively, as calculated in accordance with INSPRU 6.1.43 R; and
(c) in relation to any other firm, means the firm's capital resources as calculated in accordance with GENPRU 2.2.17 R;

(2) "guarantee fund":

(a) in relation to a non-directive friendly society, has the meaning given to that term in IPRU(FSOC);
(b) in relation to a participating insurance undertaking, means the amount of capital resources which that firm must hold to comply with INSPRU 6.1.45R (2);
(c) in relation to a firm which is not covered by (a) or (b), carrying on general insurance business, means the amount of capital resources which that firm must hold to comply with GENPRU 2.2.34 R; and
(d) in relation to a firm which is not covered by (a) or (b), carrying on long-term insurance business, means the amount of capital resources which that firm must hold to comply with GENPRU 2.2.33 R;

(3) "material transaction" means a transaction (when aggregated with any similar transactions) in which:

(a) the price actually paid or received for the transfer of assets or liabilities or the performance of services; or
(b) the price which would have been paid or received had that transaction been negotiated at arm's length between unconnected parties;
exceeds:
(c) in the case of a firm which carries on long-term insurance business, but not general insurance business, the sum of €20,000 and 5% of the firm's liabilities arising from its long-term insurance business, excluding property-linked liabilities and net of reinsurance ceded; or
(d) in the case of a firm which carries on general insurance business, but not long-term insurance business, the sum of €20,000 and 5% of the firm's liabilities arising from its general insurance business, net of reinsurance ceded; or
(e) in the case of a firm which carries on both long-term insurance business and general insurance business:

(i) where the transaction is in connection with the firm's long-term insurance business, the sum of €20,000 and 5% of the firm's liabilities arising from its long-term insurance business, excluding property-linked liabilities and net of reinsurance ceded; and
(ii) in all other cases, the sum of €20,000 and 5% of the firm's liabilities arising from its general insurance business, net of reinsurance ceded; and

(4) "required margin of solvency":

(a) in relation to a non-directive friendly society, has the meaning given to that term in IPRU(FSOC);
(b) in relation to a participating insurance undertaking, means R-S-U, where R, S and U have the meanings given by INSPRU 6.1.45R (3)(c), (d) and (f) respectively;
(c) in relation to a firm which is not covered by (a) or (b), carrying on general insurance business, means the general insurance capital requirement applicable to that firm; and
(d) in relation to a firm which is not covered by (a) or (b), carrying on long-term insurance business, means the long-term insurance capital requirement applicable to that firm.

31/12/2006

SUP App 2.2.2

The calculation of each of the base capital resources requirement, the long-term insurance capital requirement and the general insurance capital requirement is set out in GENPRU 2.1 . The calculation of each of the "guarantee fund" and "required margin of solvency" for non-directive friendly societies is set out in chapter 4 of IPRU(FSOC).

31/12/2006

SUP App 2.3

Purpose

31/12/2004

SUP App 2.3.1

To fulfil its obligations under the Insurance Directives, and as part of the FSA's risk-based approach to supervision, there are certain times when the FSA needs to monitor a firm more closely than it normally would. This is so the FSA can fulfil its function of supervising firms properly and meet the regulatory objective of securing an appropriate degree of protection for consumers .

31/12/2004

SUP App 2.3.2

The rules in SUP App 2.1 to 2.14require a firm to submit reports and information to the FSA when:

(1) a firm is failing to satisfy threshold condition 4 (Adequate resources) (see COND 2.2), and its capital resources have fallen below its required margin of solvency, or its guarantee fund; or

(2) the capital resources of a firm have fallen below its capital resources requirement; or

(3) a firm has decided to cease to effect new contracts of insurance; or

(4) a firm is going through periods of potential uncertainty, for example, when it has come under the control of a new parent undertaking or following the grant or variation of permission.

31/12/2006

SUP App 2.3.3

The FSA may also ask a firm to submit reports and information to it when the firm's capital resources fall below the level advised in individual capital guidance given to the firm.

31/12/2006

SUP App 2.3.4

In accordance with the Insurance Directives, a firm whose capital resources have fallen below its required margin of solvency, or its guarantee fund, is required, by the rule set out in this appendix, to submit a scheme of operations, together with an explanation of how its capital resources will be adequately restored. In order to secure an appropriate degree of protection for consumers , the FSA applies the rule in this appendix to firms to which the provisions of the Insurance Directives would not otherwise apply.

31/12/2004

SUP App 2.3.5

A firm which is entering into run-off is required to submit a scheme of operations, including an explanation of how its liabilities to policyholders will be met in full. Where the capital resources of such a firm subsequently fall below its required margin of solvency, the firm is required to submit a plan for restoration.

31/12/2004

SUP App 2.3.6

Following a change in control, or the grant or variation of permission, the reports submitted help the FSA to identify when a firm departs from the scheme of operations submitted as part of the notification of a change in control, or an application for the grant or variation of permission, and on which basis such notification or application was approved.

31/12/2004

SUP App 2.3.7

Principle 4 of the FSA's Principles for Businesses provides that firm's should hold adequate financial resources, while GENPRU 1.2.26 R requires a firm to maintain overall financial resources which are adequate to ensure that there is no significant risk that it cannot meet its liabilities as they fall due. In considering these requirements, a firm may decide to maintain capital resources above the level advised in individual capital guidance given by the FSA , or, if no individual capital guidance has been given, above its capital resources requirement. The amount of any such additional capital resources held is at the discretion of the firm. However, the extent to which a firm matches these additional capital resources to the volatility of its capital base, in conjunction with the strength of its systems and controls environment, is likely to affect the frequency with which it is subject to intervention under this appendix.

31/12/2006

SUP App 2.3.8

In relation to a firm carrying on with-profits insurance business, action which it takes either to restore its capital resources to the levels set by the intervention points in this appendix, or to prevent its capital resources falling below those points, should be consistent with Principle 6 of the FSA's Principles for Businesses. Principle 6 requires a firm to pay due regard to the interests of its customers and treat them fairly.

31/12/2004

SUP App 2.3.9

These rules are in addition to the other rules and guidance in SUP, in particular SUP 2 (Information gathering by the FSA on its own initiative), SUP 15 (Notifications to the FSA ), SUP 16(Reporting requirements) and the Principles for Businesses (PRIN).

31/12/2004

SUP App 2.4

Capital resources below guarantee fund

31/12/2004

SUP App 2.4.1

If a firm's capital resources fall below its guarantee fund, it must, within 14 days of the firm becoming aware of this event, submit to the FSA a short-term financial plan, including:

(1) a scheme of operations (see SUP App 2.12); and

(2) an explanation of how, if at all, and by when, it expects its capital resources to be adequately restored to the guarantee fund.

31/12/2004

SUP App 2.4.2

See SUP App 2.11.2 G for guidance on the period that the scheme of operations should cover.

31/12/2004

SUP App 2.5

Capital resources below required margin of solvency

31/12/2004

SUP App 2.5.1

Unless SUP App 2.5.3 R applies:

(1) if a firm's capital resources are such that they no longer equal or exceed its required margin of solvency; or

(2) if a firm no longer complies with GENPRU 2.2.32 R and GENPRU 2.2.28 R, or INSPRU 6.1.45R (1)(a) and INSPRU 6.1.45R (1)(b), as applicable;

it must, within 28 days of becoming aware of this event, submit to the FSA a plan for the restoration of a sound financial position, including:

(3) a scheme of operations; and

(4) an explanation of how, if at all, and by when:

(a) it expects its capital resources to be restored to the required margin of solvency; or

(b) as the case may be, it expects to comply with GENPRU 2.2.32 R and GENPRU 2.2.28 R, or INSPRU 6.1.45R (1)(a) and INSPRU 6.1.45R (1)(b), as applicable.

31/12/2006

SUP App 2.5.2

See SUP App 2.11.2 G for guidance on the period that the scheme of operations should cover.

31/12/2004

SUP App 2.5.3

If a firm:

(1) falls into SUP App 2.5.1 R (1) or SUP App 2.5.1 R (2); and

(2) it has previously submitted either a run-off plan in accordance with SUP App 2.8.1 R or a scheme of operations in accordance with SUP App 2.5.1 R;

it must, within 28 days of becoming aware that it falls into SUP App 2.5.1 R (1) or SUP App 2.5.1 R (2):

(3) notify the FSA ; and

(4) submit a plan for restoration which:

(a) explains why the firm's capital resources have fallen below its required margin of solvency or, as the case may be, it no longer complies with GENPRU 2.2.32 R or GENPRU 2.2.28 R, or INSPRU 6.1.45R (1)(a) and INSPRU 6.1.45R (1)(b), as applicable; and

(b) demonstrates how, if at all, and by when, the firm will restore it or, as the case may be, resume compliance with GENPRU 2.2.32 R and GENPRU 2.2.28 R, or INSPRU 6.1.45R (1)(a) and INSPRU 6.1.45R (1)(b), as applicable.

31/12/2006

SUP App 2.6

Capital resources below capital resources requirement

31/12/2004

SUP App 2.6.1

Unless any of SUP App 2.4.1 R, SUP App 2.5.1 R or SUP App 2.5.3 R applies, if a firm's capital resources fall below its capital resources requirement, it must, within 28 days of becoming aware of this event:

(1) notify the FSA ; and

(2) submit a plan for restoration, which:

(a) explains why the firm's capital resources have fallen below its capital resources requirement; and

(b) demonstrates how, if at all, and by when, the firm will restore it.

31/12/2004

SUP App 2.7

Capital resources below the level of individual capital guidance

31/12/2004

SUP App 2.7.1

Unless any of SUP App 2.4.1 R, SUP App 2.5.1 R, SUP App 2.5.3 R or SUP App 2.6.1 R applies, if a firm's circumstances change, such that its capital resources have fallen, or are expected to fall, below the level advised in individual capital guidance given to the firm by the FSA , then, consistent with PRIN 2.1.1 R Principle 11 (Relations with regulators), a firm should inform the FSA of this fact as soon as practicable, explaining why capital resources have fallen, or are expected to fall, below the level advised in individual capital guidance , and:

(1) what action the firm intends to take to increase its capital resources; or

(2) what modification the firm considers should be made to the individual capital guidance which it has been given.

31/12/2006

SUP App 2.7.2

In the circumstance set out in SUP App 2.7.1 G, the FSA may ask a firm for alternative or more detailed proposals and plans or further assessments and analyses of capital adequacy and risks faced by the firm. The FSA will seek to agree with the firm appropriate timescales and scope for any such additional work, in light of the circumstances which have arisen.

31/12/2004

SUP App 2.7.3

In relation to a firm carrying on with-profits insurance business, if it intends either (a) to remedy a fall in the level of capital resources advised in its individual capital guidance , or (b) to prevent a fall in the level advised in that guidance, for example, in either case, by taking management action to de-risk a with-profits fund or by reducing non-contractual benefits for policyholders, it should explain to the FSA how such proposed actions are consistent with the firm's obligations under PRIN 2.1 Principle 6 (Customers' interests).

31/12/2006

SUP App 2.7.4

If a firm's capital resources fall below the level advised in individual capital guidance given to the firm and, at the same time, any one or more of SUP App 2.4.1 R, SUP App 2.5.1 R, SUP App 2.5.3 R or SUP App 2.6.1 R applies, the firm should first comply with those rules. Those rules are concerned with circumstances where capital resources are likely to have fallen to levels much lower than the level advised in individual capital guidance and are, in some cases, requirements imposed by the Insurance Directives.

31/12/2006

SUP App 2.7.5

If a firm has not accepted individual capital guidance given by the FSA it should, nevertheless, inform the FSA as soon as practicable if its capital resources have fallen below the level suggested by that individual capital guidance . In such circumstances, the FSA may ask the firm for further explanation as to why it does not consider the individual capital guidance to be appropriate. The FSA may also consider using its powers under section 45 of the Act to, on its own initiative, vary a firm's Part IV permission, so as torequire it to hold such capital as the FSA considers is necessary for the firm to comply with GENPRU 1.2.26 R .

31/12/2006

SUP App 2.8

Ceasing to effect contracts of insurance

31/12/2004

SUP App 2.8.1

If a firm decides to cease to effect new contracts of insurance, it must, within 28 days of that decision, submit a run-off plan to the FSA including:

(1) a scheme of operations; and

(2) an explanation of how, or to what extent, all liabilities to policyholders (including, where relevant, liabilities which arise from the regulatory duty to treat customers fairly in setting discretionary benefits) will be met in full as they fall due.

31/12/2004

SUP App 2.8.2

SUP App 2.8.1 R only applies if a firm ceases to effecting new contracts of insurance in respect of the whole of its insurance business.

31/12/2004

SUP App 2.8.3

For the purposes of SUP App 2.8.1 R, a new contracts of insurance excludes contracts effected under a term in a subsisting contract of insurance.

31/12/2004

SUP App 2.8.4

Under Principle 11, the FSA normally expects to be notified by a firm when it decides to cease effecting new contracts of insurance in respect of one or more classes of contract of insurance (see SUP 15.3.8 G). At the same time, the FSA would normally expect the firm to discuss with it the need for the firm to apply to vary its permission (see SUP 6.2.6 G and SUP 6.2.7 G) and, if appropriate, to submit a scheme of operations in accordance with SUP App 2.8.1 R.

31/12/2004

SUP App 2.8.5

See SUP App 2.11.2 G for guidance on the period that the scheme of operations should cover.

31/12/2004

SUP App 2.9

Under control of a new parent undertaking

31/12/2004

SUP App 2.9.1

A firm that has notified the FSA of a new parent undertaking may be requested to submit a scheme of operations (see SUP 11.5.5 G). A scheme of operations would be requested if the significance and circumstances of the change were considered to be sufficient to merit that level of scrutiny. This is normally only likely to be necessary when there has been an ultimate change in control, or when, as a result of the change in control, significant changes are proposed to the firm's regulated activities, business plan or strategy. A firm which has submitted a scheme of operations under SUP 11.5.5 G, is not required to submit a further scheme of operations under this appendix unless SUP App 2.4, SUP App 2.5 or SUP App 2.8 applies. SUP App 2.13 does, however, apply to such a firm.

31/12/2004

SUP App 2.10

Grant or variation of permission

31/12/2004

SUP App 2.10.1

The FSA may ask a firm seeking a grant or variation of permission to provide a scheme of operations as part of the application process (see SUP 6.3.25 G). Such a firm is not required to submit a further scheme of operations under this appendix unless SUP App 2.4, SUP App 2.5 or SUP App 2.8 applies. SUP App 2.13 and SUP 6 Annex 4 do, however, apply to such a firm.

06/10/2007

SUP App 2.11

Submission of a scheme of operations or a plan for restoration

31/12/2004

SUP App 2.11.1

A firm should discuss its plan in draft with the FSA before submitting it. If a plan is submitted which does not satisfy the FSA that the firm can restore its capital resources (as appropriate), or meet its liabilities as they fall due, the FSA may use its own-initiative power to vary or cancel the firm's permission. If a firm submitting a plan is part of a group of companies, the FSA may ask that firm to provide additional information in relation to other companies in the group, if this is necessary to establish how the firm will restore its own sound financial position. The firm should agree in discussion with the FSA the nature of such additional information.

31/12/2004

SUP App 2.11.2

The schemes of operations required when a firm's capital resources have fallen below its required margin of solvency or its guarantee fund (see SUP App 2.5.1 R and SUP App 2.4.1 R, respectively) should cover a period which is sufficient to demonstrate that the firm's capital resources will be adequately restored. Typically this would be a period of at least three years. However, if a scheme of operations has expired, but SUP App 2.4.1 R or SUP App 2.5.1 R continues to apply, the firm should submit a new scheme of operations. The scheme of operations required by SUP App 2.8.1 R, when a firm ceases to effect new contracts of insurance, should cover the run-off period until all liabilities to policyholders are met.

21/06/2001

SUP App 2.11.3

The period to be covered by, and the details to be included in, the plan for restoration required by SUP App 2.5.3 R will depend on the circumstances of the firm, why its capital resources have fallen below its required margin of solvency and the degree of risk that that fall will be repeated, even if the firm restores its capital resources in accordance with its plan.

21/06/2001

SUP App 2.11.4

In relation to a firm which carries on with-profits insurance business and which submits a plan, the FSA would expect an explanation of how any actions it plans to take to restore capital resources to the level of the guarantee fund, required margin of solvency or capital resources requirement are consistent with the firm's obligations under Principle 6 (Customers' interests).

21/06/2001

SUP App 2.12

Content of a scheme of operations

31/12/2004

SUP App 2.12.1

A scheme of operations must:

(1) describe the firm's business strategy;

(2) include financial projections (including appropriate scenarios and stress-tests) as follows:

(a) a forecast summary profit and loss account in accordance with SUP App 2.12.7 R;

(b) a forecast summary balance sheet in accordance with SUP App 2.12.8 R; and

(3) as at the end of each financial year which falls (in whole or part) within the period to which the scheme of operations relates:

(a) describe the assumptions which underlie those forecasts and the reasons for adopting those assumptions; and

(b) identify any material transactions proposed to be effected or carried out with, or in respect of, any associate.

31/12/2004

SUP App 2.12.2

The business strategy referred to at SUP App 2.12.1R (1) should include a description of the nature of the risks which the firm is underwriting, or intends to underwrite. It should also give an explanation of the firm's strategy for managing the risks associated with carrying on insurance business (including, in particular, reinsurance).

21/06/2001

SUP App 2.12.3

The amount of detail to be given on the firm's business strategy required by SUP App 2.12.1R (1) should be appropriate to the scale and complexity of the firm's operations and the degree of risk involved.

21/06/2001

SUP App 2.12.4

The information required by SUP App 2.12.1R (1) must reflect the nature and content of the rules relating to capital resources applicable to a firm.

21/06/2001

SUP App 2.12.5

In relation to firms covered by SUP App 2.1 to 2.14, IPRU(FSOC) 4.1 sets out the rules relating to capital resources for non-directive friendly societies and GENPRU 2.1, GENPRU 2.2 and INSPRU 6.1 set out the rules relating to capital resources for every other firm. The capital resources which a firm is required to maintain vary according to whether the firm has its head office in the United Kingdom or overseas, and depending on the nature of the insurance business it carries on. The information which a firm is required to submit under SUP App 2.12.1 R should reflect the nature and content of the rules relating to capital resources identified above. For example, in order to satisfy SUP App 2.12.1 R, a firm with its head office outside the United Kingdom which is carrying on direct insurance business in the United Kingdom should submit separate information concerning its world-wide activities and its UK activities.

31/12/2006

SUP App 2.12.6

To reflect its obligations under GENPRU 2.2.22 G or IPRU(FSOC) 4.1(2) (as applicable), in order to comply with SUP App 2.12.1 R, a firm which carries on both long-term insurance business and general insurance business should submit separate information for each type of insurance business.

31/12/2006

SUP App 2.12.7

Summary profit and loss account (see SUP App 2.12.1R (2)(a))

(1)

Premiums and claims (gross and net of reinsurance) analysed by accounting class of insurance business

(2)

Investment return

(3)

Expenses

(4)

Other charges and income

(5)

Taxation

(6)

Dividends paid and accrued

21/06/2001

SUP App 2.12.8

Summary balance sheet (see SUP App 2.12.1R (2)(b))

(1)

Investments analysed by type

(2)

Assets held to cover linked liabilities

(3)

Other assets and liabilities separately identifying cash at bank and in hand

(4)

Capital and reserves analysed into called up share capital or equivalent funds, share premium account, revaluation reserve, other reserves and profit and loss account

(5)

Subordinated liabilities

(6)

The fund for future appropriations

(7)

Technical provisions gross and net of reinsurance analysed by accounting class of insurance business and separately identifying the provision for linked liabilities, unearned premiums, unexpired risks and equalisation

(9)

Other liabilities and credits

21/06/2001

SUP App 2.12.9

A forecast statement of capital resources (under SUP App 2.12.1R (2)(c)) must include the forecast capital resources and the forecast required margin of solvency at the end of each financial year or part financial year.

21/06/2001

SUP App 2.13

Obligations on firms which have previously submitted a scheme of operations

01/12/2004

SUP App 2.13.1

A firm which has submitted a scheme of operations to the FSA, whether required by SUP App 2.4, SUP App 2.5 or SUP App 2.8, or as part of an application under SUP 6.3 (see SUP 6.3.25 G), SUP 6.4 (see SUP 6 Annex 4), or SUP 11.5 (see SUP 11.5.5 G), or an amended scheme of operations, must during the period covered by that scheme of operations:

(1) notify the FSA at least 28 days before entering into or carrying out any material transaction with, or in respect of, an associate, unless that transaction is in accordance with a scheme of operations which has been submitted to the FSA;

(2) submit a quarterly financial return to the FSA which must include for, or as at the end of, each quarter:

(a) a summary profit and loss account prepared in accordance with SUP App 2.12.7 R;

(b) a summary balance sheet prepared in accordance with SUP App 2.12.8 R; and

and which must identify and explain differences between the actual results and the forecasts submitted in the scheme of operations; and

(3) notify the FSA promptly of any matter which has either happened or is likely to happen and which represents a significant departure from the scheme of operations; the firm must either:

(a) explain the nature of the departure and the reasons for it and provide revised forecast financial information in the scheme of operations for its remaining term; or

(b) include an amended scheme of operations and explain the amendments and the reasons for them.

06/10/2007

SUP App 2.13.2

A report under SUP App 2.13.1R (2) must be submitted in accordance with the rules in SUP 16.3.6R to SUP 16.3.13R.

21/06/2001

SUP App 2.13.3

For the purpose of SUP App 2.13.1R (1), the FSA considers that transactions with, or in respect of, associates include:

(1) contracting (as either party), advancing, repaying, writing off or agreeing to change the terms of any loan;

(2) entering into (in any capacity), releasing, calling upon or agreeing to change the terms of any guarantee, pledge, security, charge or any off-balance-sheet transaction;

(3) entering into agreements to acquire or dispose of property or which otherwise affect the nature or value of the firm's assets;

(4) making an investment (directly or indirectly) in an associate;

(5) entering into (as either party), commuting or agreeing to change the terms of, any contract of reinsurance; and

(6) entering into, or changing the terms of, any agreement to give or provide services or to share costs.

21/06/2001

SUP App 2.13.4

The FSA considers that a significant departure referred to in SUP App 2.13.1R (3) includes:

(1) entry or withdrawal from a line of insurance business;

(2) significant revision of the firm's strategy for managing risks, in particular the basis upon which risks are reinsured;

(3) forecast premiums being exceeded, by more than 10%, for a single financial year (or part year if the period covered by the scheme of operations is or includes part of a financial year);

(4) claims experience being significantly worse than forecast for a single financial year (or part year if the period covered by the scheme of operations is or includes part of a financial year);

(5) the actual level of capital resources being significantly worse than forecast;

(6) paid or proposed dividends being greater than those forecast; and

(7) any other transaction or circumstance which is likely to have a material effect upon available assets (as defined in IPRU(INS) 11.1).

21/06/2001

SUP App 2.14

Financial Recovery Plan

01/12/2004

SUP App 2.14.1

When:

(1) the FSA has required a financial recovery plan within the meaning of article 20a of the First Non-Life Directive;

(2) the FSA is of the view that policyholders' rights are threatened because the financial position of the firm is deteriorating; and

(3) the FSA decides to require the firm to hold more capital than would otherwise be required under the Handbook to ensure that the firm will be able to fulfil the required margin of solvency in the near future;

any such higher capital requirement will be based on the financial recovery plan.

21/06/2001

SUP App 2.15

Run-off plans for closed with-profits funds

30/06/2005

SUP App 2.15.1

The run-off plan required by COBS 20.2.53 R should include the information described in SUP App 2.15.2 G to SUP App 2.15.13 G in respect of the relevant with-profits fund.

01/11/2007

Funding

SUP App 2.15.2

A firm's run-off plan should describe how the firm proposes to manage the run-off of the with-profits fund. That description should include:

(1) details of the expected duration and costs of fully running off the fund's liabilities;

(2) an explanation as to how a solvent run-off will be funded; and

(3) details of the firm's future strategy for managing the risks associated with the run-off of the fund.

30/06/2005

Investment risk

SUP App 2.15.3

A firm's run-off plan should include an explanation of its future investment strategy, including:

(1) its strategy for matching the with-profits fund's liabilities with appropriate assets; and

(2) any changes it expects to make to the with-profits fund's investment strategy as a result of the closure of the with-profits fund, including any changes to the proportions of different types of investments.

30/06/2005

Credit risk

SUP App 2.15.4

A firm's run-off plan should include an explanation of its strategy for managing the with-profits fund's counterparty and credit risk, both within and external to the firm's group.

30/06/2005

Operational risk

SUP App 2.15.5

A firm's run-off plan should show how it will address any additional operational risks that may flow from the closure of the with-profits fund, including:

(1) any changes that it proposes to make to staffing arrangements for the run-off;

(2) an estimate of the cost of proposed operational changes, including redundancy costs; and

(3) any material outsourcing arrangements it proposes to enter into, explaining how the firm will address any specific operational risks created by those arrangements.

30/06/2005

Reinsurance

SUP App 2.15.6

A firm's run-off plan should explain how it will use and manage reinsurance (if it will), including:

(1) any new inwards or outwards reinsurance it proposes to enter into as a result of the closure of the with-profits fund identifying, in each case, the proposed counterparty and the counterparty's relationship to the firm's group (if any); and

(2) how it will manage the risk that the reinsurance in (1) will not perform as expected.

30/06/2005

Governance and impact on policy holders

SUP App 2.15.7

A firm's run-off plan should include:

(1) details of any changes that will be made to the firm's corporate governance arrangements as a consequence of closure;

(2) an explanation of how costs charged to the with-profits fund may change in the light of closure;

(3) an explanation of any changes it will make, as a consequence of closure, to any charges for guarantees, including:

(a) the circumstances in which those charges may be varied in the future; or

(b) the manner by which the level of any appropriate variation to those charges may be determined;

(4) an explanation of any actual or potential changes in the maturity payment or surrender payment target ranges that the firm will apply to determine benefits under its with-profits policies;

(5) an explanation of any actual or potential changes in the firm's smoothing policy as a consequence of closure;

(6) an explanation of any changes to the firm's projection rates as a consequence of closure;

(7) details of any new deductions to be made from the firm's surrender payments, together with an explanation as to how those deductions are consistent with:

(a) Principle 6 (Customers' interests); and

(b) COBS 20.2.11 G to COBS 20.2.16 R (Amounts payable under with-profits policies: Surrender payments);

(8) if there are groups of unitised with-profits policies in the with-profits fund with similar market value reduction free dates, an explanation as to whether:

(a) the firm expects surrenders to peak around any of those dates; and

(b) if it does, how it proposes to deal with those peaks;

(9) details of the information that the firm gives to its with-profits policyholders about their right (if any) to use the proceeds of a personal pension scheme, stakeholder pension scheme, FSAVC, retirement annuity contract or pension buy-out contract to purchase an annuity on the open market when the relevant contracts or schemes vest or mature and any changes that will be made to that information as a result of the closure;

(10) details of how the firm will deal with any potential mis-selling costs that may arise in the future in respect of contracts of insurance effected in the with-profits fund;

(11) an explanation of how the firm:

(a) anticipates capital will become available for distribution to policyholders (and shareholders where appropriate); and

(b) will ensure a full and fair distribution of the closed with-profits fund, including any inherited estate;

including details of:

(c) how the firm plans to provide in the long term for annuity payments on any with-profits and non-profits policies under which benefits have vested;

(d) how the firm will address future adverse circumstances in relation to these (e.g. increased annuitant longevity); and

(e) details of the firm's plans for distributing the embedded value in any major subsidiaries held in or by the closed with-profits fund;

(12) an explanation of any material differences between the firm's run-off plan and relevant parts of its PPFM, together with details of any changes that will be made to the PPFM as a consequence of closure (The firm should provide the FSA with a copy of the revised sections of its PPFM when it submits its run-off plan.);

(13) an explanation of whether the firm will be seeking to expand any other business following closure of the with-profits fund. (This explanation should include whether the firm will effect any new with-profits policies in a different with-profits fund and whether it will seek to expand its unit-linked or non-profit insurance business. It should also include an explanation of how such plans will impact on the closed with-profits fund. For example, will the firm offer policyholders in the closed with-profits fund the opportunity to switch into another with-profits fund or into unit-linked business?)

01/11/2007

Financial projections

SUP App 2.15.8

A firm's run-off plan should include:

(1) a forecast summary revenue account for the with-profits fund, in the form of SUP App 2.15.9 G Table 1;

(2) a forecast summary balance sheet and statement of solvency for the with-profits fund, which has been prepared in the form of SUP App 2.15.9 G Table 2 and on a regulatory basis; and

(3) a forecast summary balance sheet and statement of solvency for the entire firm, which has been prepared in the form of SUP App 2.15.9 G Table 3 and on a regulatory basis;

in each case, for at least a three year period, beginning on the date of closure; and

(4) a description of the assumptions underlying the forecasts at (1) to (3) and the reasons for adopting those assumptions.

30/06/2005

SUP App 2.15.9

These tables belong to SUP App 2.15.8 G

Table 1 - forecast summary revenue account for the relevant with-profits fund

(1)

Premiums and claims (gross and net of reinsurance) analysed by major class of insurance business

(2)

Investment return

(3)

Expenses

(4)

Other charges and income

(5)

Taxation

(6)

Increase (decrease) in fund in financial year

(7)

Fund brought forward

(8)

Fund carried forward

Table 2 - forecast summary balance sheet and statement of solvency for the relevant with-profits fund

Assets analysed by type (excluding implicit items):

(1)

Equities

(2)

Land and buildings

(3)

Fixed interest investments

(4)

All other assets

(5)

Total assets (excluding implicit items)

(6)

Policyholder liabilities

(7)

Other liabilities

(8)

Total liabilities

(9)

Excess/(deficiency) of assets over liabilities before implicit items

(10)

Implicit items allocated to the with-profits fund

(11)

Long-term insurance capital requirement for the with-profits fund

(12)

Resilience capital requirement for the with-profits fund

(13)

With-profits insurance capital component (for realistic basis life firms only)

(14)

Net excess/(deficiency) of assets in the with-profits fund

Table 3 - forecast summary balance sheet and statement of solvency for the firm

Surplus long-term insurance assets, with-profit fund(s)

Surplus long-term insurance assets, non-profit fund(s)

Total long-term insurance assets

L1+L2

Total long-term insurance liabilities (excluding resilience capital requirement)

Total long-term insurance fund surplus

L3-L4

Shareholder fund assets

Implicit items

Long-term insurance capital requirement

Excess of regulatory assets over long-term insurance capital requirement

L5+L6+L7-L8

L10

With-profits insurance capital component

For realistic basis life firms only.

L11

Resilience capital requirement

L12

Net excess assets

L9-L10-L11

L13

FTSE level at which the long-term insurance capital requirement would be breached

30/06/2005

SUP App 2.15.10

If a firm is a realistic basis life firm, its run-off plan should include:

(1) a realistic balance sheet and statement of solvency position in the form of SUP App 2.15.9 G Table 2, if the financial position of the relevant with-profits fund would, when stated in that form, be materially different from the firm's most recent realistic solvency submission for that fund; or

(2) a statement that the firm is satisfied that the closure of the with-profits fund will not materially affect the realistic solvency position of that fund, as reflected in the firm's most recent realistic solvency submission for that fund.

30/06/2005

SUP App 2.15.11

A firm's run-off plan should include:

(1) a revised individual capital assessment for the firm (see INSPRU 7.1), which reflects the impact of the closure of the relevant with-profits fund; or
(2) a statement that the firm is satisfied that the closure will not materially affect the firm's most recent assessment.

31/12/2006

SUP App 2.15.12

A firm's run-off plan should include details of any:

(1) intra-group balances held by the with-profits fund;

(2) group company investments held by the with-profits fund; and

(3) guarantees given by the firm;

which, in each case, have a value in excess of 5% of the firm's gross technical provisions.

30/06/2005

SUP App 2.15.13

A firm's run-off plan should include any other information that the firm considers relevant to the run-off of the closed with-profits fund.

30/06/2005

SUP App 2.15.14

The FSA may request additional information and explanations from the firm. (See section 165 (Authority's power to require information) of the Act.)

30/06/2005

SUP App 2.15.15

Significant changes to, or departures from, a firm's run-off plan are likely to trigger one or more of the firm's obligations to notify the FSA . (See, for example, Principle 11 (Relations with regulators). The guidance in SUP 15.3 (General notification requirements) may also be relevant.)

30/06/2005

SUP App 2.16

Regulatory intervention points for Lloyd's

31/12/2006

Application

SUP App 2.16.1

The rules and guidance in SUP App 2 apply to the Society:

(1) with the modifications set out in SUP App 2.16.2 R to SUP App 2.16.5 R; but

(2) except SUP App 2.8.1 R to SUP App 2.8.5 G, SUP App 2.9.1 G, SUP App 2.10.1 G, SUP App 2.12.1R (2)(a), SUP App 2.12.2 G and SUP App 2.12.7 R.

31/12/2006

Interpretation

SUP App 2.16.2

For the purpose of SUP App 2.16 and the application of SUP App 2 to the Society:

(1) "capital resources", as the context requires:

(a) in relation to the Society's own capital resources, means its own capital resources calculated in accordance with the capital resources table;

(b) in relation to a member's capital resources, means the member's capital resources calculated in accordance with GENPRU 2.3.22 R;

(c) in relation to the aggregate capital resources of the Society and the members supporting the insurance business of the members, means the aggregate of the capital resources in (1)(a) and (b) but excluding the Society's callable contributions;

(2) "guarantee fund":

(a) in relation to the general insurance business carried on by members, means the amount of capital resources required in order to comply with GENPRU 2.2.26 R, GENPRU 2.3.17 G and GENPRU 2.3.26 R; and the "member's share of the guarantee fund" for general insurance business means the result of the calculation set out in GENPRU 2.3.27 R;

(b) in relation to the long-term insurance business carried on by members, means the amount of capital resources required in order to comply with GENPRU 2.2.25 R and GENPRU 2.3.17 G; and the "member's share of the guarantee fund" for long-term insurance business means the result of the calculation set out in GENPRU 2.3.25 R;

(3) "required margin of solvency":

(a) in relation to the general insurance business carried on by members, means the higher of the Society GICR and the general insurance capital requirement for the members in aggregate; and

(b) in relation to the long-term insurance business carried on by members, means the long-term insurance capital requirement for the members in aggregate.

31/12/2006

Capital resources below guarantee fund

SUP App 2.16.3

For the purposes of SUP App 2.4.1 R and SUP App 2.4.2 G, capital resources will have fallen below the guarantee fund if the Society's own capital resources are such that they are no longer sufficient to meet the aggregate of, for each member, the amount, if any, by which the member's capital resources fall short of the member's share of the guarantee fund.

31/12/2006

Capital resources below required margin of solvency

SUP App 2.16.4

For the purposes of SUP App 2.5.1 R to SUP App 2.5.3 R, capital resources will be such that they no longer equal or exceed the required solvency margin if the Society's own capital resources are insufficient to meet the aggregate of, for each member, the amount, if any, by which the member's capital resources fall short of the member's share of the required solvency margin.

31/12/2006

Capital resources below capital resources requirement

SUP App 2.16.5

For the purposes of SUP App 2.6.1 R, capital resources will have fallen below the capital resources requirement if the Society's own capital resources are insufficient to meet the aggregate of, for each member, the amount, if any, by which the member's capital resources fall short of the member's share of the capital resources requirement for the members in aggregate.

31/12/2006

Capital resources below the level of individual capital guidance

SUP App 2.16.6

For the purposes of SUP App 2.7.1 G to SUP App 2.7.5 G, capital resources will have fallen below the level of individual capital guidance if the Society's own capital resources have fallen below the level advised in individual capital guidance given to the Society in respect of those capital resources.

31/12/2006

SUP App 3

Guidance on passporting issues

SUP App 3.1

Application

01/12/2004

SUP App 3.1.1

This appendix applies to all firms when passporting.

01/07/2003

SUP App 3.2

Purpose

01/12/2004

SUP App 3.2.1

The purpose of this appendix is to give guidance:

(1) to UK firms on some of the issues that arise when carrying on passported activities(see SUP App 3.5and SUP App 3.6);

(2) to all firms on the relationship between regulated activities and activities passported under the Single Market Directives (see SUP App 3.9and SUP App 3.10).

14/01/2005

SUP App 3.3

Background

01/12/2004

The Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union

SUP App 3.3.1

(1) The Treaty establishes in EU law the rights of freedom of establishment and freedom to provide services in the EU.

(2) The Treaty lays down central principles governing the legal framework for freedom of establishment and the free movement of services in the EU. There are, however, a number of areas where the legal position is not clear. This includes, for example, identifying whether a service is provided through an establishment, where the issues involved are complex. Therefore, this Appendix is intended to provide guidance but cannot be regarded as comprehensive. Ultimately, the construction of the Treaty and relevant Directive provisions is a matter for the European Court of Justice.

01/12/2009

SUP App 3.3.2

The Treaty provides the framework for the provision of banking, insurance business, investment business, UCITS management services and insurance mediation, while the Single Market Directives clarify the rights and freedoms within that framework.

14/01/2005

EU and EEA

SUP App 3.3.3

The agreement on the European Economic Area, signed at Oporto on 2 May 1992, extends certain EU legislation to those EEA States that are not Member States of the EU.

01/12/2009

Interpretative communications

SUP App 3.3.4

In 1997, the European Commission published an interpretative communication (Freedom to provide services and the interests of the general good in the Second Banking Directive (97/C 209/04)) (the text of this directive and the First Banking Directive is now consolidated in the Banking Consolidation Directive). The European Commission's objective in publishing this communication was to explain and clarify the EU rules. The European Commission deemed it desirable "to restate in a Communication the principles laid down by the Court of Justice and to set out its position regarding the application of these Principles to the specific problems raised by the Second Banking Directive".

01/12/2009

SUP App 3.3.5

In 2000, the European Commission published a further interpretative communication (Freedom to provide services and the general good in the insurance sector (2000/C43/03)). This allowed the European Commission to publicise its own interpretation of the rules on the freedom to provide services.

01/07/2003

SUP App 3.3.6

(1) The European Commission has not produced an interpretative communication on MiFID. It is arguable, however, that the principles in the communication on the Second Banking Directive can be applied to investment services and activities. This is because Chaper II of Title II of MiFID (containing provisions relating to operating conditions for investment firms) also applies to the investment services and activities of firms operating under the Banking Consolidation Directive.
(2) The European Commission has not produced an interpretative communication on either the Insurance Mediation Directive or on the UCITS Directive.

01/11/2007

SUP App 3.3.7

In giving its views, communications made by the European Commission have the status of guidance and are not binding on the national courts of EEA States. This is because it is the European Court of Justice that has ultimate responsibility for interpreting the Treaty and secondary legislation. Accordingly, the communications "do not prejudge the interpretation that the Court of Justice ..., which is responsible in the final instance for interpreting the Treaty and secondary legislation, might place on the matter at issue." (European Commission interpretative communication: Freedom to provide services and the general good in the insurance sector (C(99) 5046). However, the Courts may take account of European Commission communications when interpreting the Treaty and secondary legislation.

01/12/2009

SUP App 3.3.8

Firms should also note that European Commission communications do not necessarily represent the views taken by all EEA States.

01/07/2003

E-Commerce

SUP App 3.3.9

The E-Commerce Directive covers services provided at a distance by means of electronic equipment for the processing (including digital compression) and storage of data. The services would normally be provided in return for remuneration and must be provided at the individual request of a recipient (see recital 17 of the E-Commerce Directive). The Directive implements the country of origin approach to regulation. This approach makes firms subject to the conduct of business requirements of the EEA State from which the service is provided. This is subject to certain derogations (see SUP App 3.3.11 G).

01/07/2003

SUP App 3.3.10

The E-Commerce Directive does not affect the responsibilities of Home State under the Single Market Directives. This includes the obligation of a Home State regulator to notify the Host State regulator of a firm's intention to establish a branch in, or provide cross border services into, the other EEA State.

01/07/2003

SUP App 3.3.11

There are, however, general derogations from the internal market provisions under article 3(3) of the E-Commerce Directive. The derogations include consumer contracts, the permissibility of unsolicited e-mail and certain insurance services (both life and non-life). Where these derogations apply, the EEA States in which the recipients of the service are based may continue to be able to impose their own requirements.

01/07/2003

Notification of establishing a branch or of providing cross border services

SUP App 3.3.13

The Single Market Directives require credit institutions, insurance undertakings (other than reinsurance undertakings), MiFID investment firms , UCITS management companies and insurance intermediaries to make a notification to the Home State before establishing a branch or providing cross border services.
SUP 13.5 (Notices of intention) sets out the notification requirements for a firm seeking to establish a branch or provide cross border services. As firms will note, the decision whether a passport notification needs to be made will be a matter of interpretation. The onus is on firms to comply with the requirements of the Act and, where relevant, the laws of other EEA States. So, in cases of doubt, firms should obtain their own legal advice on the specific issues involved.

06/03/2009

SUP App 3.3.14

Blanket notification is the practice of the Home State regulator notifying all Host State regulators in respect of all activities regardless of any genuine intention to carry on the activity. This practice is discouraged by the FSA . However, a firm may be carrying on activities in the United Kingdom or elsewhere in a way that necessarily gives rise to a real possibility of the provision of services in other EEA States. In such cases, the firm should consider with its advisers whether it should notify the relevant authorities and include that possibility in its business plan.

14/01/2005

SUP App 3.6

Freedom to provide services

01/12/2004

SUP App 3.6.1

Article 56 (Services) of the Treaty grants to EEA nationals established in one EEA State the freedom to provide cross border services to other EEA States.

01/12/2009

How services may be provided

SUP App 3.6.2

Under the Treaty, the freedom to provide services within the EC may be exercised in three broad ways:

(1) where the provider of a service moves temporarily to another EEA State in order to provide the service;

(2) where the service is provided without either the provider or the recipient moving (in this situation the provision, and receipt, of the service may take place by post, telephone or fax, through computer terminals or by other means of remote control);

(3) where the recipient of a service moves temporarily to another EEA State in order to receive (or, perhaps, commission the receipt of) the service within that State.

01/07/2003

SUP App 3.6.3

Under the Single Market Directives, however, EEA rights for the provision of services are concerned only with services provided in one of the ways referred to in SUP App 3.6.2 G (1) and (2) (How services may be provided).

01/11/2007

Place of supply

SUP App 3.6.5

In the opinion of the European Commission (and in the wording of the Single Market Directives) "only activities carried on within the territory of another Member State should be the subject of prior notification" (Commission interpretative communication: Freedom to provide services and the interests of the general good in the Second Banking Directive (97/C 209/04)). In determining, for the purposes of notification, whether a service is to be provided 'within' another EEA State, it is necessary to determine the place of supply of the service.

01/07/2003

SUP App 3.6.6

An insurance undertaking that effects contracts of insurance covering risks or commitments situated in another EEA State should comply with the notification procedures for the provision of services within that EEA State. The location of risks and commitments is found by reference to the rules set out in paragraph 6 of schedule 12 to the Act, which derive from article 1 of the Consolidated Life Directive and article 2 of the Second Non-Life Directive. It may be appropriate for insurers to take legal advice as to how these rules are interpreted and applied in other EEA States. The need to passport may arise because of only one of the risks covered by an insurance policy. This includes, for example, where a policy covers a number of property risks and one of those properties is in another EEA State.

01/12/2009

SUP App 3.6.7

In respect of banking services, the European Commission believes that "...to determine where the activity was carried on, the place of provision of what may be termed the 'characteristic performance' of the service i.e. the essential supply for which payment is due, must be determined" (Commission interpretative communication: Freedom to provide services and the interests of the general good in the Second Banking Directive (97/C 209/04)). In the FSA's view, this requires consideration of where the service is carried out in practice.

01/07/2003

SUP App 3.6.8

The FSA is of the opinion that UK firms that are credit institutions and MiFID investment firms should apply the 'characteristic performance' test (as referred to in SUP App 3.6.7 G ) when considering whether prior notification is required for services business. Firms should note that other EEA States may take a different view. Some EEA States may apply a solicitation test. This is a test as to whether it is the consumer or the provider that initiates the business relationship.

02/11/2007

SUP App 3.6.9

In the case of a UK firm conducting portfolio management, for example, this would mean looking at where the investment decisions and management are actually carried on in order to determine where the service is undertaken. Similarly, a UK stockbroker that receives orders by telephone from a customer in France for execution on a UK exchange may be deemed to be dealing or receiving and transmitting orders within the territory of the United Kingdom. In such a case, whether the firm solicited the overseas investor would be irrelevant.

01/07/2003

SUP App 3.6.10

Where, however, a credit institution or MiFID investment firm:

(1) intends to send a member of staff or a temporarily authorised intermediary to the territory of another EEA State on a temporary basis to provide financial services; or

(2) provides advice, of the type that requires notification under either MiFID or the Banking Consolidation Directive, to customers in another EEA State;

the firm should make a prior notification under the freedom to provide services.

01/11/2007

Temporary activities

SUP App 3.6.11

The key distinction in relation to temporary activities is whether a firm should make its notification under the freedom of establishment in a Host State, or whether it should notify under the freedom to provide services into a Host State. It would be inappropriate to discuss such a complex issue in guidance of this nature. It is recommended that, where a firm is unclear on the distinction, it should seek appropriate advice. In either case, where a firm is carrying on activities in another EEA State under a Single Market Directive, it should make a notification.

01/12/2009

Monitoring procedures

SUP App 3.6.15

The FSA considers that, in order to comply with Principle 3:Management and control (see PRIN 2.1.1 R), a firm should have appropriate procedures to monitor the nature of the services provided to its customers. Where a UK firm has non-resident customers but has not notified the EEA State in which the customers are resident that it wishes to exercise its freedom to provide services, the FSA would expect the firm's systems to include appropriate controls. Such controls would include procedures to prevent the supply of services covered by the Single Market Directives in the EEA State in which the customers are resident if a notification has not been made and it is proposed to provide services otherwise than by remote communication. In respect of insurance business, the insurer's records should identify the location of the risk at the time the policy is taken out or last renewed. That will, in most cases, remain the location of the risk thereafter, even if, for example, the policyholder changes his habitual residence after that time.

01/07/2003

Membership of regulated markets

SUP App 3.6.25

(1) The FSA is of the opinion that where a UK firm becomes a member of:

(a) a regulated market that has its registered office or, if it has no registered office, its head office, in another EEA State; or
(b) an MTF operated by a MiFID investment firm or a market operator in another EEA State,

the same principles as in the 'characteristic performance' test should apply. Under this test, the fact that a UK firm has a screen displaying the regulated market's or the MTF's prices in its UK office does not mean that it is dealing within the territory of the Home State of the regulated market or of the MTF.
(2) In such a case, we would consider that:

(a) the market operator operating the regulated market or the MTF is providing a cross-border service into the UK and so, provided it has given notice to its Home State regulator in accordance with articles 42(6) or 31(5) MiFID, it will be exempt from the general prohibition in respect of any regulated activity carried on as part of the business of the regulated market or of operating an MTF (see section 312A of the Act);
(b) the MiFID investment firm operating the MTF is providing a cross-border service into the UK and so needs to comply with SUP 13A.

01/11/2007

SUP App 3.6.26

Firms are reminded of their rights, under article 33 of MiFID , to become members of, or have access to, the regulated markets in other Member States.

01/12/2009

SUP App 3.6.27

Firms should note that, in circumstances where the FSA takes the view that a notification would not be required, other EEA States may take a different view.

01/07/2003

SUP App 3.9

Mapping of MiFID, Banking Consolidation Directive, UCITS Directive and Insurance Mediation Directive to the Regulated Activities Order

01/11/2007

SUP App 3.9.1

The following Tables 1, 2, 2A and 2B provide an outline of the regulated activities and specified investments that may be of relevance to firms considering undertaking passported activities under the Banking Consolidation Directive, MiFID, the UCITS Directive and the Insurance Mediation Directive. The tables may be of assistance to UK firms that are thinking of offering financial services in another EEA State and to EEA firms that may offer those services in the United Kingdom.

01/11/2007

SUP App 3.9.2

The tables provide a general indication of the investments and activities specified in the Regulated Activities Order that may correspond to categories provided for in the Banking Consolidation Directive, MiFID, the UCITS Directive or the Insurance Mediation Directive. The tables do not provide definitive guidance as to whether a firm is carrying on an activity that is capable of being passported, nor do the tables take account of exceptions that remove the effect of articles. Whether a firm is carrying on a passported activity will depend on the particular circumstances of the firm. If a firm's activities give rise to potential passporting issues, it should obtain specialist advice on the relevant issues.

01/11/2007

SUP App 3.9.3

In considering the issues raised in the tables, firms should note that:

(1) article 64 of the Regulated Activities Order (Agreeing to carry on specific kinds of activity) applies in respect of agreeing to undertake the specified activity; and

(2) article 89 of the Regulated Activities Order (Rights to or interests in investments) applies in respect of rights to and interests in the types of investments to which the category applies.

01/07/2003

SUP App 3.9.4

Activities set out in Annex I of the BCD

Table 1: BCD activities

Part II RAO Activities

Part III RAO Investments

Acceptance of deposits and other repayable funds from the public

Article 5

Article 74

Lending

Article 61, 64

Article 88

Financial leasing

Money transmission services

Issuing and administering means of payment (eg credit cards, travellers' cheques and bankers' drafts)

Guarantees and commitments

Trading for own account or for account of customers in:
(a) money market instruments
(b) foreign exchange
(c) financial futures and options
(d) exchange and interest rate instruments
(e) transferable securities

Article 14, 21, 25 (see Note 1), 64
Article 14, 21, 25, 64
Article 14, 21, 25, 64
Article 14, 21, 25, 64
Article 14, 21, 25, 64

Article 77, 78, 80, 83-85, 89
Article 83-85, 89
Article 83-85, 89
Article 83-85, 89
Article 76-81, 89

Participation in share issues and the provision of services relating to such issues

Article 14, 21, 25, 53, 64

Article 76-81, 89

Advice to undertakings on capital structure, industrial strategy and related questions and advice and services relating to mergers and the purchase of undertakings

Article 14, 21, 25, 53, 64

Article 76-80, 83-85, 89

10.

Money broking

Article 25, 64

Article 77, 78, 89

11.

Portfolio management and advice

Article 14, 21, 25, 37, 53, 64

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

12.

Safekeeping and administration of securities

Article 40, 45, 64

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

13.

Credit reference services

14.

Safe custody services

Note 1: The services and activities provided for in Sections A and B of Annex I of MiFID when referring to the financial instruments provided for in Section C of Annex I of that Directive are subject to mutual recognition according to the BCD from 1 November 2007.See the table at SUP App 3.9.5 G below for mapping of MiFID investment services and activities.For further details relating to this residual category, please see the "Banking Consolidation Directive"section of the passporting forms entitled "Notification of intention to establish a branch in another EEA State" and "Notification of intention to provide cross border services in another EEA State".

01/11/2007

SUP App 3.9.5

Services set out in Annex I to MiFID

Table 2: MiFID investment services and activities

Part II RAO Investments

Part III RAO Investments

A MiFID investment services and activities

Reception and transmission of orders in relation to one or more financial instruments

Article 25

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

Execution of orders on behalf of clients

Article 14, 21

A Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

Dealing on own account

Article 14

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

Portfolio management

Article 37 (14, 21, 25 - see Note 1)

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

Investment advice

Article 53

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

Underwriting of financial instruments and/or placing of financial instruments on a firm commitment basis

Article 14, 21

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

Placing of financial instruments without a firm commitment basis

Article 21, 25

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

Operation of Multilateral Trading Facilities

Article 25B (see Note 2)

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

Ancillary services

Part II RAO Activities

Part III RAO Investments

Safekeeping and administration of financial instruments for the account of clients, including custodianship and related services such as cash/collateral management

Article 40, 45, 64

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

Granting credits or loans to an investor to allow him to carry out a transaction in one or more of the relevant instruments where the firm granting the credit or loan is involved

Advice to undertakings on capital structure, industrial strategy and related matters and advice and services relating to mergers and the purchase of undertakings

Article 14, 21, 25, 53, 64

Article 76-80, 83-85, 89

Foreign exchange services where these are connected with the provision of investment services

Article 14, 21, 25, 53, 64

Article 83-85, 89

Investment research and financial analysis or other forms of general recommendation relating to transactions in financial instruments

Article 53, 64

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

Services related to underwriting

Article 25, 53, 64

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

Investment services and activities as well as ancillary services of the type included under Section A or B of Annex I related to the underlying of the derivatives included under Section C 5, 6, 7 and 10-where these are connected to the provision of investment or ancillary services.

Article 14, 21, 25, 25B, 37, 53, 64

Article 83 and 84

Note 1. A firm may also carry on these other activities when it is managing investments.

Note 2. A firm operating an MTF under article 25B does not need to have a permission covering other regulated activities, unless it performs other regulated activities in addition to operating an MTF.

01/11/2007

SUP App 3.9.6

Activities set out in Article 5(2) and (3) of the UCITS Directive

Table 2A: UCITS Directive activities

Part II RAO Activities

Part III RAO Investments

The management of UCITS in the form of unit trusts / common funds or of investment companies; this includes the function mentioned in Annex II of the UCITS Directive (see Note 2).

Articles 14, 21, 25, 37, 51, 53, 64

Articles 76-81, 83-85, 89

Managing portfolios of investments, including those owned by pension funds, in accordance with mandates given by investors on a discretionary, client-by-client basis, where such portfolios include one or more of the instruments listed in Section C of Annex I to MiFID .

Articles 14, 21, 25, 37, 53, 64

Articles 76-81, 83-85, 89

Investment advice concerning one or more of the instruments listed in Section Cof Annex I to MiFID .

Articles 53, 64

Articles 76-81, 83-85, 89

Safekeeping and administration services in relation to units of collective investment undertakings.

Articles 40, 45, 64

Articles 76-81, 83-85, 89

Note 1. A UCITS management company can only exercise passport rights under the UCITS Directive (article 2(1)(h) of MiFID ). A UCITS management company can only be authorised to carry on the non-core services set out in rows (3) and (4) of Table 2A if it is also authorised to carry on the activity set out in row (2) of the table.

Note 2. The functions set out in Annex 2 to the UCITS Directive are:

Investment management.

Administration:

legal and fund management accounting services;

customer inquiries;

valuation and pricing (including tax returns);

regulatory compliance monitoring;

maintenance of unit-holder register;

distribution of income;

unit issues and redemptions;

contract settlements (including certificate dispatch);

record keeping.

Marketing.

01/11/2007

SUP App 3.9.7

Activities set out in Article 2(3) of the IMD

Table 2B: Insurance Mediation Directive Activities

Part II RAO Activities

Part III RAO Investments

Introducing, proposing or carrying out other work preparatory to the conclusion of contracts of insurance.

Articles 25, 53 and 64

Articles 75, 89 (see Note 1)

Concluding contracts of insurance

Articles 21, 25, 53 and 64

Articles 75, 89

Assisting in the administration and performance of contracts of insurance, in particular in the event of a claim.

Articles 39A, 64

Articles 75, 89

Note 1. Rights to or interests in life policies are specified investments under Article 89 of the Regulated Activities Order, but rights to or interests in general insurance contracts are not.

01/11/2007

SUP App 3.10

Mapping of Insurance Directives to the Regulated Activities Order

01/12/2004

Introduction

SUP App 3.10.1

The guidance in Table 3 describes in broad outline the relationship between:

(1) the insurance-related regulated activities specified in the Regulated Activities Order; and

(2) the activities within the scope of the Insurance Directives

06/10/2007

SUP App 3.10.2

This is a guide only and should not be used as a substitute for legal advice

in individual cases.

Table 3: Insurance Directive activities

Part II RAO Activities

Part III RAO Investments

1. Non-life insurance activities

Taking up and carrying on direct non-life insurance business

Article 10

Article 75

Classes 1 to 18 of directnon-life insurance business in Point A of the Annex to the First Directive

Corresponding paragraphs 1 to 18 of Schedule 1, Part I

2. Consolidated Life Directive activities

Taking up and carrying on direct life insurance business

Article 10

Article 75

Classes I to IX of direct life insurance business in the Annex 1 to the Consolidated Life Directive

Corresponding paragraphs I to IX of Schedule 1, Part II

01/07/2003

Meaning of contract of insurance

SUP App 3.10.3

The meaning of contract of insurance is set out in article 3(1) of the Regulated Activities Order (Interpretation). It does not include benefit-in-kind funeral plans, which are specified in article 60 of the Regulated Activities Order (plans covered by insurance or trust arrangements). Such funeral plans (to the extent that they are insurance) are also excluded from the Insurance Directives. It covers some contracts which might not otherwise be viewed as insurance in the United Kingdom (for example, contracts of guarantee). These contracts are also governed by the Insurance Directives. For the purpose of the Regulated Activities Order, a contract of insurance includes a contract of reinsurance as well as a contract of direct insurance.

01/07/2003

The Insurance Directives

SUP App 3.10.4

Article 1 of the First Non-Life Directive and article 2 of the Consolidated Life Directive provides that the Directives "concern the taking up and pursuit of the self-employed activity of direct insurance". By contrast, article 10 of the Regulated Activities Order (Effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance) also covers reinsurance.

01/07/2003

SUP App 3.10.5

Articles 2, 3 and 4 of the First Non-Life Directive and article 3 of the Consolidated Life Directive set out certain exclusions by reference to:

(1) types of insurance;

(2) types of insurer;

(3) particular conditions under which insurance activities are carried out.

(4) annual income; and

(5) particular identified institutions.

01/07/2003

SUP App 3.10.6

Some of the exclusions referred to mirror exclusions in the Regulated Activities Order. So, the exclusion for breakdown insurance in article 2(3) of the First Non-Life Directive is matched by a slightly narrower exclusion in article 12 of the Regulated Activities Order (Breakdown insurance). The separate treatment of benefit-in-kind funeral plans under the Regulated Activities Order (see SUP App 3.10.4 G) is matched by their exclusion on a slightly wider basis in article 3(5) of the Consolidated Life Directive. Other requirements from these Directives are also excluded from regulation by the Exemption Order.

01/07/2003

SUP App 3.10.7

Most of the exclusions under the Directives, however, are not excluded from being regulated activities. For example, article 3 of the Consolidated Life Directive and article 3 of the Non-Life Directive exclude certain mutual associations whose annual contribution income falls below a defined threshold. In the United Kingdom, these include certain smaller friendly societies commonly referred to as "non-directive friendly societies". The activities of such societies are regulated under the Act, on a "lighter basis" than the activities of other insurers.

01/07/2003

Territorial scope of the Regulated Activities Order and the Directives

SUP App 3.10.8

Under the Act and the Regulated Activities Order, the activities of effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance are treated as being carried on in the United Kingdom on the basis of legal tests under which the location of the risk is only one factor. If the risk is located in the United Kingdom, then (other relevant factors being taken into account) the activity will, in the vast majority of cases, also be viewed as carried on in the United Kingdom. There are exceptions, however, and overseas insurers may insure risks in the United Kingdom without carrying on business here and so without requiring to be regulated (although the financial promotion regime may apply). By contrast, under the Directives, the responsibility, as between EEA States, for regulating the conduct of passported insurance services is determined by reference to the location of the risk or commitment, as defined in article 1 of the Consolidated Life Directive and article 2 of the Second Non-Life Directive.

01/07/2003

SUP App 3.10.9

So, the effect of App 3.12.1 is that an insurer may be carrying on insurance business in the United Kingdom which is to be treated as a regulated activity under article 10 to the Regulated Activities Order (Effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance) in circumstances where the risks covered are treated as located in another EEA State. In that event, the insurer is required by Schedule 3 to the Act to passport into the State concerned and may be subject to conduct of business requirements in that State (see SUP 13.10 (Applicable provisions)).

01/07/2003

SUP App 3.10.10

An insurer authorised in another EEA State who is insuring UK risks and so passports on a services basis under the Insurance Directives into the United Kingdom(see ),may not be carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom. But, if it passports into the United Kingdom, it will qualify for authorisation under paragraph 12 of Schedule 3 to the Act (Firms qualifying for authorisation). Where this is the case, the insurer will be subject to conduct of business requirements in the United Kingdom (see SUP 13A.6 (Which rules will an incoming EEA firm be subject to?)).

01/02/2006

Activities carried on by incoming EEA firms in connection with insurance business.

SUP App 3.10.11

Although the Insurance Directives are concerned with the regulated activities of effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance, an incoming EEA firm passported under the Insurance Directives will be entitled to carry on certain other regulated activities without the need for top-up permission. This is where the regulated activities are carried on for the purposes of or in connection with the incoming EEA Firm's insurance business. These regulated activities may include:

(1) dealing in investments as principal;

(2) dealing in investments as agent;

(3) arranging (bringing about) deals in investments;

(4) making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments;

(5) managing investments;

(6) safeguarding and administering investments;

(7) advising on investments;

(8) agreeing to carry on a regulated activity of the above kind.

14/01/2005

Financial promotion

SUP App 3.10.12

The financial promotion regime under section 21 of the Act (Restrictions on financial promotion) may also apply to EEA insurance undertakings regardless of whether they carry on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom or passport into the United Kingdom.

01/07/2003

Position of EEA insurers carrying out both direct and reinsurance business

SUP App 3.10.13

The Insurance Directives do not apply to the authorisation to carry on reinsurance. But, the Insurance Directives do not prevent insurance undertakings authorised under those Directives from carrying out reinsurance as well as direct insurance business. Article 13(2) of the First Non-Life Directive and article 10(2) of the Consolidated Life Directive state that financial supervision of insurance undertakings "shall include verification, with respect to the insurance undertaking's entire business, of its state of solvency, of the establishment of technical provisions and of the assets covering them". On that basis, an insurance undertaking authorised in another EEA State which carries on a mixed direct insurance and reinsurance business, and is, therefore, subject to the requirements of the Directives, will generally be treated as satisfying the conditions laid down by an EU instrument relating to the carrying on of the regulated activity of effecting or carrying out contracts of insurance. This is for the purpose of paragraph 3 of Schedule 4 to the Act (Exercise of treaty rights). The insurance undertaking will, therefore, generally be able to qualify for permission as a Treaty firm for its reinsurance business if it follows the procedure provided for by Schedule 4 (see SUP 13A.3.4 G to SUP 13A.3.11 G (Treaty Firms) ). This will be in addition to the insurance undertaking being an EEA firm under Schedule 3 of the Act for its direct insurance business.

01/12/2009

Transitional Provisions and Schedules

SUP TP 1

Transitional provisions

SUP TP 1.1

Transitional provisions applying to the Supervision manual only

Definitions for these transitional provisions, additional to those in the Glossary, are provided at paragraph 16 of the table.

SUP TP 1.2

(1)

(2) Material to which the transitional provision applies

(3)

(4) Transitional provision

(5) Transitional provision: dates in force

(6) Handbook provision: coming into force

SUP 3.3.2 R (1)

Auditors
A firm will not contravene SUP 3.3.2 R (1), if the office of auditor is filled at commencement. The auditor filling the office at that time will be deemed to be appointed under SUP 3.3.2 R.

From commencement

Commencement

SUP 3.9 and SUP 3.10

Expired

SUP 3.9.4 R

Expired

SUP 3.10

Expired

SUP 3.10.6 R, SUP 3.10.7 R

Expired

SUP 3.10

Expired

SUP 4.3.1 R (1) and SUP 4.4.1 R (1)

Actuaries
A firm will not contravene SUP 4.3.1 R (1) or SUP 4.4.1 R (1) to the extent that the office of actuarial function holder, with-profits actuary or appropriate actuary is filled by an actuary appointed on or before 31 December 2004, provided that that actuary was appointed in accordance with the statutory requirements, or the requirements of the regulatory system, in force at that time.

From commencement

Commencement

SUP 4

Anything done before 31 December 2004 for the purposes of an amended provision in SUP 4 has effect as if done under that provision.

From 31 December 2004

31 December 2004

[deleted]

4BA

SUP 4.3.16AR (3) and SUP 4.3.16AR (4)

The rules apply in respect of each financial year commencing on or after 1 January 2005.

From 31 December 2004

31 December 2004

[deleted]

SUP 4.3.3 R

If a firm's actuary has been appointed by a previous regulator under statutory or contractual powers and remains in office immediately before commencement, that appointment will be deemed to have been made under SUP 4.3.3 R, but on the terms of the actual appointment.

From commencement

Commencement

SUP 8.6.1 G

Expired

SUP 9.4

Individual guidance

From 19 July 2001

21 June 2001

(1)

If a person acts in accordance with individual written guidance:

(a)

given to him by any previous regulator (or body whose functions were assumed by a previous regulator);

(b)

relating to any pre-commencement provision; and

(c)

in the circumstances contemplated by that guidance;

then the FSA will proceed on the footing that the person has complied with the aspects of any provision in or under the Act (including a rule or guidance in the Handbook) to which the guidance relates if:

(d)

that provision is substantially similar to the pre-commencement provision in relation to the matter with which the guidance is concerned;

(e)

the guidance was current immediately before commencement; and

(f)

the guidance has not been superseded.

(2)

SUP 9.4.2 G - SUP 9.4.4 G are relevant for individual guidance in (1) in the same way as for individual written guidance given by the FSA .

(3)

References to "individual written guidance" in (1) and (2) include a written concession from a pre-commencement provision which is substantially similar to guidance in the Handbook.

SUP 10.13.6 R

Expired

SUP 10.4.1 R

(1) An application made under section 60 of the Act received before 31 October 2007 will be taken to relate to the controlled function existing at the date of determination.

From 1 November 2007

(2) The controlled functions CF 13 (finance function), CF 14 (risk assessment function) and CF 15 (internal audit function) are subsumed in the new controlled function CF 28 (systems and controls function) to the extent that they fall within the description of the systems and controls function.

On 1 November 2007

(3) The controlled functions CF 16 (significant management (designated investment business) function), CF 17 (significant management (other business operations) function), CF 18 (significant management (insurance underwriting) function), CF 19 (significant management (financial resources) function) and CF 20 (significant management (settlements) function) are subsumed in the new controlled function CF 29 (significant management function) to the extent that they fall within the description of the significant management function.

On 1 November 2007

(4) The controlled functions CF 21 (investment adviser function), CF 22 (investment adviser (trainee) function), CF 23 (corporate finance adviser function), CF 24 (pension transfer specialist function), CF 25 (adviser on syndicate participation at Lloyd's function), CF 26 (customer trading function) and CF 27 (investment management function) are subsumed in the new controlled function CF 30 (customer function) to the extent that they fall within the description of the customer function.

On 1 November 2007

(1) The effect of TP 8AR is that if immediately prior to 1 November 2007 a person was an approved person in relation to any of the controlled functions to be subsumed into the systems and controls function the original grant of approval by the FSA will remain valid in relation to the systems and controls function and no new approval to perform that controlled function will be required.

(2) The effect of TP 8AR is that if immediately prior to 1 November 2007 a person was an approved person in relation to any of the controlled functions to be subsumed into the significant management function the original grant of approval by the FSA will remain valid in relation to the significant management function and no new approval to perform that controlled function will be required.

(3) The effect of TP 8AR is that if immediately prior to 1 November 2007 a person was an approved person in relation to any of the controlled functions to be subsumed into the customer function the original grant of approval by the FSA will remain valid in relation to the customer function and no new approval to perform controlled function will be required.

Firms are reminded of their obligation under SUP 10.13.16 R to notify the FSA if the firm becomes aware of information which would be reasonably material to the continuing assessment of an approved person's fitness and propriety and in particular their competence to perform a function.

SUP 10.13.6 R (Ceasing to perform a controlled function) and SUP 10.13.3 D (Moving within a firm)

The obligation to submit Form C or Form E does not apply in relation to a person who:
(a) ceases to perform a controlled function because that controlled function ceases to exist on 1 February 2007; or
(b) performs a function which falls within the description of a different controlled function after 1 November 2007 as a result of TP 8AR.

From 1 February 2007 in relation to the sole trader function and 1 November 2007 in all other cases.

SUP 10.6.4 R (2)

(1) This rule deals with a person (a "director") who would otherwise have been performing the director function for a firm under SUP 10.6.4 R (2) on 6 August 2009 but who was not otherwise performing the director function for that firm at that date. This rule only applies if he was not approved at that date to perform the director function for that firm.

(2) Between the dates in column (5), the functions described in SUP 10.6.4 R (2) are not treated as forming part of the director function as respects that firm and that director unless they also fall under SUP 10.6.4 R (1).

(3) If this transitional rule has not already expired under column (5), this rule comes to an end as respects that director and that firm if and when an application is made for the director to perform the director function for that firm and that application is granted.

6 August 2009 to 6 February 2010

6 February 2010

SUP 10.6.8 R (1)(b)

(1) This rule deals with a person (a "non-executive director") who would otherwise have been performing the non-executive director function for a firm under SUP 10.6.8 R (1)(b) on 6 August 2009 but who was not otherwise performing the non-executive director function for that firm at that date. This rule only applies if he was not approved at that date to perform the non-executive director function for that firm.

(2) Between the dates in column (5), the functions described in SUP 10.6.8 R (1)(b) are not treated as forming part of the non executive director function as respects that firm and that non executive director unless they also fall under SUP 10.6.8 R (1)(a).

(3) If this transitional rule has not already expired under column (5), this rule comes to an end as respects that non executive director and that firm if and when an application is made for the non executive director to perform the non-executive director functionfor that firm and that application is granted.

6 August 2009 to 6 February 2010

6 February 2010

SUP 10.9.1 R (2)

(1) This rule deals with a person (a "proprietary trader") who would otherwise have been performing the significant management functionfor a firm under SUP 10.9.10 R (1A) on 6 August 2009 but who was not otherwise performing the significant management function for that firm at that date. This rule only applies if he was not approved at that date to perform the significant management function for that firm.

(2) Between the dates in column (5), the functions described inSUP 10.9.10 R (1A) are not treated as forming significant management function part of the as respects the firm and that proprietary trader unless they also fall under SUP 10.9.10 R (1).

(3) If this transitional rule has not already expired under column (5), this rule comes to an end as respects that proprietary trader and that firm if and when an application is made for the proprietary trader to perform the significant management function for that firm and that application is granted.

6 August 2009 to 6 February 2010

6 February 2010

SUP 10.1.7 R (1)

(1) This rule deals with the application of the director function under SUP 10.1.7 R (1) to a person (a "director") who would otherwise have been performing the director function on 6 August 2009 in an overseas firm which maintains an establishment in the United Kingdom from which regulated activities are carried on (or would have been doing so but for a waiver).

(2) Between the dates in column (5), the functions described in SUP 10.1.7 R (1) are not treated as forming part of the director function as respects that establishment in the United Kingdom, and that director.

(3) If this transitional rule has not already expired under column (5), this rule comes to an end as respects that director and that establishment in the United Kingdom, if and when an application is made for the director to perform the director function for that establishment in the United Kingdom and that application is granted.

6 October 2009 to 6 February 2010

6 February 2010

SUP 10.1.7 R (2)

(1) This rule deals with the application of the non-executive director function under SUP 10.1.7 R (2) to a person (a "non-executive director") who would otherwise have been performing the non-executive director function on 6 August 2009 in an overseas firm which maintains an establishment in the United Kingdom from which regulated activities are carried on (or would have been doing so but for a waiver).

(2) Between the dates in column (5), the functions described in SUP 10.1.7 R (2) are not treated as forming part of the non-executive director function as respects that establishment in the United Kingdom, and that non-executive director.

(3) If this transitional rule has not already expired under column (5), this rule comes to an end as respects that non-executive director and that establishment in the United Kingdom, if and when an application is made for the non-executive director to perform the non-executive director function for that establishment in the United Kingdom and that application is granted.

6 October 2009 to 6 February 2010

6 February 2010

SUP 10.1.7 R (5)

(1) This rule deals with the application of the systems and controls function under SUP 10.1.7 R (5) to persons who would otherwise have been performing the systems and controls function on 6 August 2009 in an overseas firm which maintains an establishment in the United Kingdom from which regulated activities are carried on (or would have been doing so but for a waiver).

(2) Between the dates in column (5), the functions described in SUP 10.1.7 R (5) are not treated as forming part of the systems and controls function as respects that establishment in the United Kingdom and that person.

(3) If this transitional rule has not already expired under column (5), this rule comes to an end as respects that person and that establishment in the United Kingdom, if and when an application is made for that person to perform the systems and controls function for that establishment in the United Kingdom and that application is granted.

6 October 2009 to 6 February 2010

6 February 2010

SUP 12.5.5 R
SUP 12.5.7 R

Expired

SUP 15.8.4 G

Notification of Delegation

From 13 February 2004 to 13 February 2007

13 February 2004

(1)

Subject to (2), SUP 15.8.4 G does not apply to a UCITS management company which became authorised before 13 February 2004.

(2)

Paragraph (1) does not apply in relation to any UK firm which exercises an EEA right under the UCITS Directive (in which event the rule applies in relation to acts of delegation occurring on or after the date on which the firm begins to exercise such rights).

SUP 12.5

A firm conducting designated investment business need not amend its written contract with an appointed representative (appointed before 15 January 2004) to take account of amendments to SUP 12.5 coming into force between 30 June 2004 and 30 June 2005, until 30 June 2005 or the date on which the contract is next updated (whichever is earlier).

From 30 June 2004 until 30 June 2005, that is, 12 months.

Commencement, and as amended with effect from 30 June 2004

SUP 16.4.5 R
SUP 16.5.5 G

Expired

10A

SUP 16.4
SUP 16.5

SUP 16.4 (Annual controllers report) and SUP 16.5 (Annual close links report) do not apply to a firm with permission to carry on only insurance mediation activity, mortgage mediation activity, or both.

(1) in respect of mortgage mediation activities, 31 October 2004 - 31 March 2005;
(2) in respect of insurance mediation activities, 14 January 2005 - 31 March 2005,

1 April 2005

SUP 16.6
SUP 16.7
SUP 16.8

Expired

SUP 16.7.7 R;
SUP 16.7.9 R,
SUP 16.7.11 R,
SUP 16.7.16 R,
SUP 16.7.24 R,
SUP 16.7.26 R,
SUP 16.7.35 R,
SUP 16.7.44 R,
SUP 16.7.46 R,
SUP 16.7.48 R,
SUP 16.7.57 R

Expired

12A

SUP 16.7.38 R

An investment management firm which, before 1 December 2003, was already submitting consolidated financial returns in the form in:
(a) SUP 16 Ann 10R; or
(b) SUP 16 Ann 7R (with associated guidance in SUP 16 Ann 8G);
may continue to use these forms instead of the consolidated financial resources return in SUP 16 Ann 5R.

From 1 December 2003 until, but not including, the date on which the provisions of the Financial Groups Directive take effect in the United Kingdom.

1 December 2003

12B

SUP 16.7.54 R;
SUP 16.7.76 R
SUP 16.7.79 R
SUP 16.7.80 R

(1)

Where a rule in SUP 16.7 requires a firm to submit information using the RMAR on a half-yearly basis, and the firm has:

From 1 April 2005

1 April 2005

(a)

annual income of less than £5m but more than £60,000 in total from insurance mediation activity, mortgage mediation activity and its permitted activities as a personal investment firm, and

(b)

an accounting reference date which

(i)

falls between 31 December 2004 and 31 March 2005; or

(ii)

falls between 30 June 2005 and 30 September 2005

this must be read as a reference to providing the first return in accordance with SUP TR 12CR.

(2)

Where a rule in SUP 16.7 requires a firm to submit information using the RMAR on a half-yearly basis, and the firm has:

(a)

annual income of less than £5m but more than £60,000 in total from insurance mediation activity, mortgage mediation activity and its permitted activities as a personal investment firm, and

(b)

an accounting reference date which is not within (1)(b);

the first return must cover the firm's first full financial half-year which starts on or after 1 April 2005 and be submitted 30 business days after period end.

(3)

Where a firm is carrying on regulated activities before 1 April 2005 and is required under a rule in SUP 16.7 to submit information using the MLAR, the first return must cover the firm's first full financial quarter which starts on or after this date and be submitted 20 business days after period end.

(4)

Where a rule in SUP 16.7 requires a firm to submit information using the RMAR on a half-yearly basis, and the firm has:

(a)

annual income of less than £60,000 in total from insurance mediation activity, mortgage mediation activity and its permitted activities as a personal investment firm, and

(b)

an accounting reference datewhich falls between 31 December 2004 and 30 December 2005,

the relevant rule must be read as requiring the first return to be provided in accordance with SUP TR 12DR.

(5)

Where a rule in SUP 16.7 requires a firm to submit information using the RMAR on a quarterly basis, and the firm has an accounting reference date which falls between 31 December 2004 and 30 December 2005 the relevant rule must be read as requiring the first return to be provided with SUP TR 14B.

12C

If SUP TR 12B R (1) - (3) applies, the firm's first return must be provided as follows:

Accounting reference date

Reporting period starts

Reporting period ends

Return to be provided

Between 30 June 2005 and 30 September 2005

1 April 2005

Accounting reference date within 2005

30 business days after period end.

31 December 2004

1 April 2005

30 June 2005

30 business days after the period end

Between 1 January 2005 and 31 March 2005

1 April 2005

6 months after the accounting reference date within 2005

30 business days after period end

12D

(1)

If SUP TR 12BR (4)SUP TR 12BR (4) applies, the firm's first return must be provided as follows:

Accounting reference date

Reporting period starts

Reporting period ends

Return to be provided

31 December 2004

1 April 2005

30 June 2005

30 business days after period end
(Note 1)

Between 1 January 2005 and 31 March 2005

1 April 2005

6 months after the accounting reference date within 2005

30 business days after period end
(Note 1)

Between 1 April 2005 and 29 June 2005

the day following the accounting reference date within 2005

6 months after the accounting reference date within 2005

30 business days after period end
(Note 1)

Between 30 June 2005 and 29 September 2005

1 April 2005

Accounting reference date within 2005

30 business days after period end

Between 30 September 2005 and 30 December 2005

The day after 6 months preceding the accounting reference date within 2005

Accounting reference date within 2005

30 business days after period end

12E

(2)

If SUP TR 12BR (4) applies, the firm's second return must be provided as follows:

Accounting reference date

Reporting period starts

Reporting period ends

Return to be provided

Between 30 June 2005 and 29 September 2005

the day following the accounting reference date within 2005

6 months after the accounting reference date within 2005

30 business days after period end
(Note 1)

12F

SUP 16.7.77 R

A mortgage administrator or mortgage lender must submit an annual report and audited accounts annually, 3 months after the firm's accounting reference date

31 October 2004 - 31 March 2005

1 April 2005

12G

SUP 16.7.7 R; SUP 16.7.9 R; SUP 16.7.11 R; SUP 16.7.16 R; SUP 16.7.20 R; SUP 16.7.24 R; SUP 16.7.26 R; SUP 16.7.28 R; SUP 16.7.35 R; SUP 16.7.57 R; SUP 16.7.62 R; SUP 16.7.65 R; SUP 16.7.73 R;

(1) Where a rule in SUP 16.7 requires a firm to submit information using the RMAR on a half yearly basis the relevant rule must be read as requiring the first return to be provided in accordance with SUP TR 12HR.
(2) Where a firm is carrying on regulated activities on or before 1 January 2007 and is required under a rule in SUP 16.7 to submit information using the MLAR, the first return must cover the firm's first full financial quarter which starts on or after this date and be submitted 20 business days after period end.

From 1 January 2007 - 31 December 2007

1 January 2007

12H

If SUP TR 12G R (1) applies, the firm's first return must be provided as follows:

Accounting reference date (dates inclusive)

Reporting period starts

Reporting period ends

Return to be provided

Between 1 January and 31 March

The day after the accounting reference date within 2007

6 months after the accounting reference date within 2007

30 business days after period end.

Between 1 April and 30 June

1 January 2007

Accounting reference date within 2007

30 business days after period end.

Between 1 July and 30 September

The day after 6 months preceding the accounting reference date within 2007

Accounting reference date within 2007

30 business days after period end.

Between 1 October and 31 December

1 January 2007

6 months before the accounting reference date within 2007

30 business days after period end.

12I

SUP 16.7.54 R

Until 6 September 2006, an authorised professional firm will not contravene SUP 16.7.54 R if it submits to the FSA the annual questionnaire that was contained in SUP 16 Annex 9R immediately prior to 6 July 2006.

6 July 2006 - 6 September 2006

6 July 2006

12J

(1)
SUP 16.7.24 R, SUP 16.7.25 R and 16.7.25A R, SUP 16.7.27 R and 16.7.27A R

A securities and futures firm that is a BIPRU investment firm is not required to submit the Annual Reporting Statement, the Annual Reconciliation and the Consolidated Supervision Return under SUP 16.7.25 R and SUP 16.7.27 R (as appropriate).

1 January 2007 to 31 December 2007

Commencement and 1 January 2007

(2)
SUP 16.7.35 R, SUP 16.7.36 R and SUP 16.7.36A R

An investment management firm that is a BIPRU investment firm is not required to submit the Annual Financial Return, the Consolidated Supervision Return and the Consolidated Financial Resources Return under SUP 16.7.36 R.

1 January 2007 to 31 December 2007

Commencement and 1 January 2007

(3)
SUP 16.7.67 R, SUP 16.7.68 R and SUP 16.7.68A R

A UCITS investment firm is not required to submit the Annual Financial Return and the Consolidated Supervision Return under SUP 16.7.68 R.

1 January 2007 to 31 December 2007

13 February 2004 and 1 January 2007

(4)
SUP 16.7.76 R, SUP 16.7.77 R and SUP 16.7.77A R

A personal investment firm that is a BIPRU investment firm is not required to submit the Consolidated Supervision Return under SUP 16.7.77 R.

1 January 2007 to 31 December 2007

1 April 2005 and 1 January 2007

(5)
SUP 16.7.16 R and SUP 16.7.17 R

A building society will not be required to submit reports MFS1, MFS1 Supp, MFS2 and QFS2 for reporting dates after 1 January 2008

From 1 January 2008

Commencement

12K

SUP 16.7.7 R, SUP 16.7.8 R, SUP 16.7.9 R, SUP 16.7.10 R, SUP 16.7.11 R, SUP 16.7.12 R, SUP 16.7.16 R, SUP 16.7.17 R, SUP 16.7.24 R, SUP 16.7.25 R, SUP 16.7.26 R, SUP 16.7.27 R, SUP 16.7.28 R, SUP 16.7.29 R, SUP 16.7.35 R, SUP 16.7.36 R, SUP 16.7.54 R, SUP 16.7.54A R, SUP 16.7.57 R, SUP 16.7.58 R, SUP 16.7.62 R, SUP 16.7.63 R, SUP 16.7.65 R, SUP 16.7.66 R. SUP 16.7.73 R, SUP 16.7.74 R, SUP 16.7.75 R, SUP 16.7.76 R and SUP 16.7.77 R,

Solely in respect of information regarding any reversion activity or home purchase activity required to be reported in the RMAR and MLAR, a firm:

1 April 2007 to 31 December 2008

Commencement

(1)

is not required to include such information in respect of the applicable reporting periods (as set out in the relevant provisions in SUP 16.7) ending before 1 October 2007;

(2)

must include such information in respect of reporting periods ending on or after 1 October 2007;

(3)

must include such information under existing mortgage headings (for the RMAR) or loan headings (for the MLAR) as set out in the guidance in SUP 16 Annex 18B and SUP 16 Annex 19B respectively.

12L

(1)
SUP 16.7.7 R, SUP 16.7.8 R, SUP 16.7.8A R , SUP 16.7.16 R, SUP 16.7.17 R, SUP 16.7.17A R , SUP 16.7.24 R, SUP 16.7.25 R, SUP 16.7.25A R, SUP 16.7.26 R, SUP 16.7.27 R, SUP 16.7.27A R, SUP 16.7.30 R, SUP 16.7.35 R, SUP 16.7.36 R, SUP 16.7.36AR, SUP 16.7.67R, SUP 16.7.68R, SUP 16.7.68AR, SUP 16.7.76R, SUP 16.7.77R, SUP 16.7.77AR

Except to the extent required by a transitional provision in TP12M, a BIPRU firm will not be required to report under these rules in respect of reporting dates after 31 December 2007, but will instead report under SUP 16.12.

1 January 2008 to 1 April 2009

1 January 2008

(2)
SUP 16.7.9 R , SUP 16.7.10 R

Except to the extent required by a transitional provision in TP12M, an EEA Bank, other than one with permission for cross border services only, will not be required to report under these rules in respect of reporting dates after 31 December 2007 but will instead report under SUP 16.12.5 R.

1 January 2008 to 1 April 2009

1 January 2008

(3)
SUP 16.12.11 R , SUP 16.7.12 R

Except to the extent required by a transitional provision in TP12M, a bank established outside the EEA will not be required to report under these rules in respect of reporting dates after 31 December 2007 but will instead report under SUP 16.12.5 R.

1 January 2008 to 1 April 2009

1 January 2008

(4)
SUP 16.7.62RSUP 16.12.5 R, SUP 16.7.63R

A credit union will not be required to report under these rules in respect of reporting dates after 31 December 2007 but will instead report under SUP 16.12.5R.

1 January 2008 to 1 April 2009

1 January 2008

(5)
SUP 16.7.66

An ELMI that is required to report a consolidated reporting statement on capital adequacy in the case of ELM 7.3.2 R in respect of reporting dates after 31 December 2007 will use FSA003 in place of FSA009. FSA003 should be submitted in accordance with SUP 16.12.3R (3).

1 January 2008

(6)
SUP 16.7.82R, SUP 16.7.83R

(1) A firm that is a member of a financial conglomerate:
(a) that is at the head of an FSA regulated EEA financial conglomerate; or
(b) whose Part IV permission contains a relevant requirement; will not be required to report under these rules in respect of reporting dates after 31 December 2007 but will instead report under SUP 16.12.32R and SUP 16.12.33R.
(2) In (1)(b), a relevant requirement is one as set out in SUP 16.7.82R (2).

1 January 2008 to 1 April 2009

1 January 2008

(7)
SUP 16.7.65R, SUP 16.7.66R

An ELMI will not be required to report under these rules in respect of reporting dates after 31 December 2007 but will instead report under SUP 16.12.5R.

1 January 2008 to 1 April 2009

1 January 2008

12M

(1)
SUP 16.12.5R

Firms in Regulated Activity Group 1 are not required to submit the following data items:
(i) for reporting dates falling prior to 30 June 2008:
FSA001
FSA002
FSA008
FSA010
FSA012
FSA013
FSA016
FSA018
FSA045
(ii) for reporting dates falling prior to 31 August 2008:
FSA005
FSA006
FSA007
FSA014
FSA020
FSA021
FSA022
FSA023
FSA024
FSA025
FSA026
and
(iii) for reporting dates falling prior to 30 September 2008:
FSA015
FSA044
FSA046

1 January 2008 to 29 September 2008

1 January 2008

(2)
SUP 16.12.5

UK banks in Regulated Activity Group 1 should not submit FSA017 for reporting dates prior to 31 August 2008.

1 January 2008 to 30 August 2008

1 January 2008

(3)
SUP 16.12.5

A building society in Regulated Activity Group 1:
(i) should not submit FSA017 for reporting dates prior to 31 August 2008.
(ii) should instead submit an 'Analysis of interest rate gap' quarterly, within 15 business days of the quarter end, except in the case of a building society on the "Administered" approach (see IPRU(BSOC) 4 Ann 4A 4A.2) which is not required to submit the 'Analysis of interest rate gap'.
In the case of (ii), reports should be prepared as at the end of March, June, September and December of each year. The 'Analysis of interest rate gap' must be submitted in accordance with TP 12L (4).

1 January 2008 to 30 August 2008

1 January 2008

(4)
SUP 16.12.5

In respect of the transitional reporting requirements in this transitional provision TP12L (3), the report should be submitted in accordance with SUP 16.3.6 R to SUP 16.3.10R.

1 January 2008 to 30 September 2008

1 January 2008

(5)
SUP 16.12.11R

Firms in Regulated Activity Group 3, other than exempt BIPRU commodity firms, are not required to submit the following data items:
(i) for reporting dates falling prior to 30 June 2008:
FSA001
FSA002
FSA008
FSA016
FSA018
FSA019
FSA045
(ii) for reporting dates falling prior to 31 August 2008:
FSA005
FSA006
FSA007
FSA039
FSA040
and
(iii) for reporting dates falling prior to 30 September 2008:
FSA046

1 January 2008 to 29 September 2008

1 January 2008

(6)
SUP 16.12.15R

Firms in Regulated Activity Group 4 are not required to submit the following data items:(i) for reporting dates falling prior to 30 June 2008:
FSA001
FSA002
FSA008
FSA016
FSA018
FSA019
FSA045
(ii) for reporting dates falling prior to 31 August 2008:
FSA005
FSA006
FSA007
FSA038
FSA039
FSA040
FSA041
FSA042and
(iii) for reporting dates falling prior to 30 September 2008:
FSA046

1 January 2008 to 29 September 2008

1 January 2008

(7)
SUP 16.12.22R

Firms in Regulated Activity Group 7 are not required to submit the following data items:(i) for reporting dates falling prior to 30 June 2008:
FSA001
FSA002
FSA008
FSA016
FSA018
FSA019
FSA045
(ii) for reporting dates falling prior to 31 August 2008:
FSA005
FSA006
FSA007
and
(iii) for reporting dates falling prior to 30 September 2008:
FSA046

1 January 2008 to 29 September 2008

1 January 2008

(8)
SUP 16.12.25R

Firms in Regulated Activity Group 8 are not required to submit the following data items:
(i) for reporting dates falling prior to 30 June 2008:
FSA001
FSA002
FSA008
FSA016
FSA018
FSA019
FSA045
(ii) for reporting dates falling prior to 31 August 2008:
FSA005
FSA006
FSA007
FSA039
FSA040
and
(iii) for reporting dates falling prior to 30 September 2008:
FSA046

1 January 2008 to 29 September 2008

1 January 2008

(9)
SUP 16.12.11R

Exempt BIPRU commodity firms are not required to submit the following data items for reporting dates:
(i) falling prior to 30 June 2008:
FSA008
(ii) falling prior to 31 August 2008:
FSA001
FSA002
FSA016
FSA018
FSA028
FSA033
FSA038
FSA039
FSA040
FSA041
FSA042

1 January 2008 to 30 August 2008

1 January 2008

(10)
SUP 16.12.11

Exempt BIPRU commodity firms are not required to submit the following data items for reporting dates falling prior to 1 January 2011:
FSA003
FSA004
FSA005
FSA006
FSA007
FSA019

1 January 2008 to 31 December 2010

1 January 2008

(11)
SUP 16.12.5R

(1) A UK bank must submit the following reports for reporting dates falling between 1 January 2008 and 29 June 2008 in accordance with the rules set out in SUP 16.7.8R:
BSD3 (unconsolidated, solo consolidated);
BSD3 (consolidated);
LE3 (unconsolidated, solo consolidated);
LE3 (consolidated);
M1 (unconsolidated, solo consolidated); and
M1 (consolidated).
Consolidated reports are only required from UK consolidation groups.
(2) In addition, a UK bank subject to IPRU(BANK) Chapter LS must submit the SLR1 for reporting dates between 1 January 2008 and 31 May 2008 in accordance with the rules set out in SUP 16.7.8R.
(3) Also, a UK bank subject to IPRU(BANK) Chapter LM must submit the LR for reporting dates between 1 January 2008 and 31 March 2008 in accordance with the rules set out in SUP 16.7.8R.

1 January 2008 to 29 June 2008

1 January 2008

(12)
SUP 16.7.9R, SUP 16.7.10R

An EEA Bank, other than one with permission for cross border services only, must submit the LR for reporting dates between 1 January 2008 and 31 March 2008 in accordance with the rules set out in SUP 16.7.10R.

1 January 2008 to 31 March 2008

1 January 2008

(13)
SUP 16.7.11R, SUP 16.7.12R

A bank established outside the EEA must submit:
(a) the LR for reporting dates between 1 January 2008 and 31 March 2008; and
(b) the B7 for reporting dates between 1 January 2008 and 29 June 2008
in accordance with the rules set out in SUP 16.7.12R.

1 January 2008 to 29 June 2008

1 January 2008

(14)
SUP 16.7.16R, SUP 16.7.17R

A building society must submit:
(a) the QFS1 and AFS1 for reporting dates between 1 January 2008 and 29 June 2008; and
(b) the interest rate gap report for reporting dates between 1 January 2008 and 30 August 2008
in accordance with the rules set out in SUP 16.7.17R.

1 January 2008 to 30 August 2008

1 January 2008

(15)
SUP 16.7.24R, SUP 16.7.25R

A securities and futures firm which is a category A or B firm or a broad scope firm, and is a BIPRU investment firm, must submit the large exposures quarterly reporting statement (Form LEM 1 or LEM 2) (consolidated and unconsolidated) and monthly reporting statement for reporting dates between 1 January 2008 and 29 June 2008 in accordance with the rules set out in SUP 16.7.25R, except that the monthly reporting statement should be submitted quarterly.

1 January 2008 to 29 June 2008

1 January 2008

(16)
SUP 16.7.26R, SUP 16.7.27R

A securities and futures firm which is a category C or D firm or an arranger or venture capital firm, and is a BIPRU investment firm, must submit the large exposures quarterly reporting statement (Form LEM 1 or LEM 2) (consolidated and unconsolidated) and quarterly reporting statement for reporting dates between 1 January 2008 and 29 June 2008 in accordance with the rules set out in SUP 16.7.27R, except that BIPRU 50K firms should submit the quarterly reporting statement half yearly.

1 January 2008 to 29 June 2008

1 January 2008

(17)
SUP 16.7.35R, SUP 16.7.36R

An investment management firm which is a BIPRU investment firm must submit either a quarterly financial return or a monthly financial return (depending on whether the firms is subject to a Liquid Capital Requirement or is an ISD firm subject to the Own Funds Requirement of Euro 730,000) for reporting dates between 1 January 2008 and 29 June 2008 in accordance with the rules set out in SUP 16.7.36R, except that BIPRU 50K firms should submit the quarterly financial return half yearly, and BIPRU 730K firms should submit the monthly financial return on a quarterly basis.

1 January 2008 to 29 June 2008

1 January 2008

(18)
SUP 16.7.65R, SUP 16.7.66R

An ELMI must submit the ELM CA/LE (unconsolidated and consolidated) for reporting dates between 1 January 2008 and 30 August 2008 in accordance with the rules set out in SUP 16.7.66R.

1 January 2008 to 30 August 2008

1 January 2008

(19)
SUP 16.7.67R, SUP 16.7.68R

A UCITS firm must submit the Quarterly Financial Return for reporting dates between 1 January 2008 and 29 June 2008 in accordance with the rules set out in SUP 16.7.68R.

1 January 2008 to 29 June 2008

1 January 2008

(20)
SUP 16.7.76 R, SUP 16.7.77 R

A firm that was not subject to other reporting requirements in SUP 16.7 (other than in SUP 16.7.76 R and SUP 16.7.77 R) at 31 December 2007, and is a BIPRU firm, must submit sections A, B, C and E of the RMAR and sections A and B of the MLAR for reporting dates between 1 January 2008 and 29 June 2008 in accordance with the rules set out in SUP 16.7.77 R, except that the frequency for these sections of the RMAR and MLAR is amended as follows:
(a) for BIPRU 730K firms and BIPRU 125K firms, quarterly; and
(b) for BIPRU 50K firms, half-yearly.

1 January 2008 to 29 June 2008

1 January 2008

(21)
SUP 16.12.23 R

Firms in RAGs 3, 4, 6, 7 and 8 that are required to complete Section J of the RMAR, with an accounting reference date falling between 1 July 2007 and 31 August 2007 inclusive, must additionally report on section J of the RMAR at their half year (i.e. for reporting dates falling between 1 January 2008 and 29 February 2008 inclusive), to be submitted within 30 business days of the half year date.

1 January 2008 to 29 February 2008

1 January 2008

12N

(1)
SUP 16.7.36 R

(1)

Subject to (2), SUP 16.7.36 R does not apply from 6 April 2007 to 30 August 2008 to an investment management firm which:

6 April 2007 to 30 August 2008

6 April 2007

(a)

was not a firm before 6 April 2007; and

(b)

carries on only the activity of establishing, operating or winding up a personal pension scheme.

(2)

Notwithstanding (1), a firm described in (1) with an accounting reference date of between 6 April 2007 and 30 August 2008 (inclusive) must submit a copy of its annual accounts to the FSA in accordance with SUP 16.7.36 R, unless (3) applies. The annual accounts must give a true and fair view of the state of affairs of the firm and of the firm's profit or loss.

12O

(1)

[deleted]

(2)
SUP 16.7.24 R, SUP 16.7.25 R, SUP 16.7.27 R

A securities and futures firm which is either

1 November 2007 to 31 December 2008

Commencement and 1 November 2007

(1)

an exempt CAD firm, or

(2)

an exempt BIPRU commodity firm to which the requirements of IPRU(INV) Chapter 3 apply

is not required to submit the Annual Reporting Statement and the Annual Reconciliation under SUP 16.7.25 R and SUP 16.7.27 R (as appropriate).

(3)
SUP 16.7.35 R, SUP 16.7.36 R

An investment management firm which is an exempt CAD firm is not required to submit the Annual Financial Return under SUP 16.7.36 R.

1 November 2007 to 31 December 2008

Commencement and 1 November 2007

(4)
SUP 16.7.67 R, SUP 16.7.68 R

A UCITS firm which is an exempt CAD firm is not required to submit an Annual Financial Return under SUP16.7.68R, Note 3.

1 November 2007 to 31 December 2008

13 February 2004 and 1 November 2007

(5)
SUP 16.12.11R, SUP 16.12.12R

An exempt BIPRU commodity firm that does not meet the conditions in BIPRU TP 16 is not required to submit FSA008 for reporting dates prior to 30 June 2008.

1 January 2008 to 29 June 2008

1 January 2008

12P

(1)
SUP 16.7.20R, SUP 16.7.21R, SUP 16.7.21AR, SUP 16.7.21BR, SUP 16.7.26R, SUP 16.7.27R, SUP 16.7.28R, SUP 16.7.29R, SUP 16.7.30R, SUP 16.7.35R, SUP 16.7.36R, SUP 16.7.54R, SUP 16.7.54AR, SUP 16.7.55R, SUP 16.7.56R, SUP 16.7.57R, SUP 16.7.58R, SUP 16.7.67R, SUP 16.7.68R, SUP 16.7.76R, SUP 16.7.77R

Except to the extent required by a transitional provision in TP 12Q, a firm, other than a BIPRU firm, will not be required to report under these rules in respect of reporting dates after 31 December 2007, but will instead report under SUP 16.12.

1 January 2008 to 31 March 2009

1 January 2008

12Q

(1)
SUP 16.12.11R

Firms in Regulated Activity Group 3:

1 January 2008 to 30 August 2008

1 January 2008

(1)

are not required to submit the following data items for reporting dates falling prior to 31 August 2008:
FSA029
FSA030
FSA031
FSA032
FSA033
FSA034
FSA035
FSA036
FSA037
FSA039
FSA040

(2)

are instead required to report as set out TP 12Q (5).

(2)
SUP 16.12.14R

Firms in Regulated Activity Group 4:

1 January 2008 to 30 August 2008

1 January 2008

(1)

are not required to submit the following data items for reporting dates falling prior to 31 August 2008:
FSA029
FSA030
FSA031
FSA032
FSA033
FSA034
FSA035
FSA036
FSA037
FSA038
FSA039
FSA040
FSA041
FSA042

(2)

are instead required to report as set out TP 12N (1), TP 12Q (5) or TP 12R (1).

(3)
SUP 16.12.19R

Firms in Regulated Activity Group 6:

1 January 2008 to 30 August 2008

1 January 2008

(1)

are not required to submit the following data items for reporting dates falling prior to 31 August 2008:
FSA029
FSA030
FSA031
FSA032
FSA033
FSA034
FSA035
FSA036
FSA037
FSA039
FSA040

(2)

are instead required to report as set out TP 12Q (5).

(4)
SUP 16.12.25R

Firms in Regulated Activity Group 8:

1 January 2008 to 30 August 2008

1 January 2008

(1)

are not required to submit the following data items for reporting dates falling prior to 31 August 2008:
FSA029
FSA030
FSA031
FSA032
FSA033
FSA034
FSA035
FSA036
FSA037
FSA039
FSA040

(2)

are instead required to report as set out TP 12Q (5).

(5)
SUP 16.12.11R, SUP 16.12.14R, SUP 16.12.19R, SUP 16.12.25R

(1)

A securities and futures firm that is:

1 January 2008 to 30 August 2008

1 January 2008

(a)

not a BIPRU firm, an exempt CAD firm or an exempt BIPRU commodity firm must submit the quarterly reporting statement in the manner and to the timescales set out in SUP 16.7.27R, and SUP 16.7.31R to SUP 16.7.34G;

(b)

an exempt CAD firm must submit the quarterly reporting statement in the manner and to the timescales set out in SUP 16.7.27R, and SUP 16.7.31R to SUP 16.7.34G;

(c)

an exempt BIPRU commodity firm (to which the requirements of IPRU(INV) Chapter 3 apply) must submit the quarterly reporting statement in the manner and to the timescales set out in SUP 16.7.27R, and SUP 16.7.31R to SUP 16.7.34G;

(2)

except in the case of an investment management firm that is not a BIPRU firm, is not an exempt CAD firm and is authorised by the FSA after 5 April 2007, an investment management firm that is:

(a)

neither a BIPRU firm nor an exempt CAD firm must submit the quarterly financial return in the manner and to the timescales set out in SUP 16.7.36R to SUP 16.7.38R;

(b)

an exempt CAD firm must submit the quarterly financial return in the manner and to the timescales set out in SUP 16.7.36R to SUP 16.7.38R, and FSA043 in the manner and to the timescale set out in SUP 16.7.36BR;

(3)

a UCITS firm:

(a)

other than an exempt CAD firm must submit the Quarterly Financial Return in the manner and to the timescales set out in SUP 16.7.68R and SUP 16.7.69R;

(b)

that is an exempt CAD firm must submit the Quarterly Financial Return in the manner and to the timescales set out in SUP 16.7.68R and SUP 16.7.69R and FSA043 in the manner and to the timescale set out in SUP 16.7.68BR; and

(4)

a firm that satisfies the criteria in SUP 16.7.76R and is:

(a)

neither a BIPRU investment firm nor an exempt CAD firm must submit the RMAR and MLAR in the manner and to the timescales set out in SUP 16.7.77R;

(b)

that is an exempt CAD firm must submit the RMAR and MLAR in the manner and to the timescales set out in SUP 16.7.77R and FSA043 in the manner and to the timescale set out in SUP 16.7.77BR.

12R

(1)

[deleted]

(2)
SUP 16.12.11R

An exempt BIPRU commodity firm that, at the reporting date for large exposures data item FSA008, satisfies the conditions of BIPRU TP 16 is not required to submit FSA008 for that reporting date.

30 June 2008 to 31 December 2010

30 June 2008

12S

(1)
SUP 16.12.15, SUP 16.12.16, SUP 16.12.17

In the case of an exempt BIPRU commodity firm that is subject to the requirements of IPRU(INV) Chapter 3, it is required to submit the capital adequacy data item FSA033 in the manner and to the frequency and timescales set out for firms other than BIPRU firms that are subject to IPRU(INV) Chapter 3 in SUP 16.12.15R to SUP 16.12.17R.

1 January 2009 to 31 December 2010

1 January 2009

12T

SUP 16.12.5 R to SUP 16.12.7 R;

SUP 16.12.10 R to SUP 16.12.17 R;

SUP 16.12.22 R to SUP 16.12.27 R

(1)

This rule deals with:

As set out in column (4)

(a) the date (the "start date") on which the requirements (the "new requirements") relating to data items FSA047 to FSA055 (inclusive) (the "new data items") made by the Supervision Manual (Integrated Regulatory Reporting of Liquidity for Banks, Building Societies and Investment Firms) Instrument 2009 (the "instrument") begin;

(b) the date on which the requirements relating to data items FSA010 and FSA013 end; and

(2)

The start date for reporting on a solo basis for a firm that as at 30 November 2009 or, as the case may be, 1 December 2009, or as the case may be, 30 November 2009 and 1 June 2010, falls into one of the classes covered by BIPRU TP 26.2 (Transitional rules for quantitative aspects of BIPRU 12 that apply to all firms to which BIPRU 12 applies) is the day immediately following the last day on which that transitional provision is in force as specified in column (5) of BIPRU TP 26.2.

(3)

The start date for reporting on a solo basis for other firms (other than a non-ILAS BIPRU firm) is 1 December 2009.

(4)

The reporting period for the first report on a solo basis for non-ILAS BIPRU firms ends on 31 December 2010.

(5)

Reporting on the basis of a defined liquidity group applies for all reporting periods beginning on or after 1 November 2010.

(6)

For a firm falling into paragraph (2), the following start dates apply to the following data items.

(a) The date for data items FSA047, FSA048 and FSA052 is 1 June 2010.

(b) The date for data items FSA050, FSA051, FSA053 and FSA054 is 1 November 2010.

(7)

For a firm falling into paragraph (3), the following start dates apply to the following data items.

(a) The date for data items FSA047 and FSA048 is 1 December 2009.

(b) The date for data item FSA052 is 1 June 2010.

(8)

If the start date under paragraphs (6) or (7) (taking into account paragraph (9)) falls before the start date in paragraphs (2) or (3), the dates in paragraphs (2) or (3) apply. However if the start date in paragraphs (6) or (7) (taking into account paragraph (9)) fall after the dates in paragraphs (2) or (3), the start dates in paragraphs (6) or (7) apply.

(9)

If the start date for a new data item occurs part of the way through what would have been a reporting period for that data item under SUP 16.12 if the relevant part of SUP 16.12 had been in force, the first reporting period for that data item begins on the first day ("the first day") of what would have been that reporting period (as specified in SUP 16.12), even though the first day falls before the start date. The time for submission of the data item and the length of the reporting period are calculated as if the new requirements relating to that data item had been in force from the first day.

(10)

(a) The requirements relating to data items FSA010 and FSA013 are as follows.

(b) If a firm does not fall into RAG 1 as at 30 November 2009, it does not have to submit these data items.

(c) Otherwise, the last reporting period for the data item concerned ends on the first date when the start date for that firm in relation to both data item FSA047 and FSA048 has occurred. That last reporting period for data item FSA010 or FSA013 is shortened accordingly if necessary.

(d) Any notes in SUP 16.12 relating to those data items continue in force as long as required by (a) to (c).

(11)

The changes to data item FSA011 only take effect with respect reporting periods beginning on or after the commencement date for those changes as specified in the instrument (1 October 2010).

12U

SUP 16.12.5 R to SUP 16.12.7 R; SUP 16.12.10 R to SUP 16.12.17 R; SUP 16.12.22 R to SUP 16.12.27 R

The effect of paragraph 12T is that a firm which becomes an ILAS BIPRU firm or non-ILAS BIPRU firm after 1 December 2009 and before the end of the transitional period which would otherwise have applied will be expected to comply with the requirements listed in column (2) from the date on which it becomes either an ILAS BIPRU firm or a non-ILAS BIPRU firm (as the case may be). However such a firm does have the benefit of the delayed start dates as specified in paragraphs (4), (5) and (7) of paragraph 12T.

12V

SUP 16.12.5 R to SUP 16.12.7 R; SUP 16.12.10 R to SUP 16.12.17 R; SUP 16.12.22 R to SUP 16.12.27 R

An example of how paragraph 12T(6) and (9) work is as follows. Say that the start date for a firm under paragraph 12T(2) is 1 June 2010. If the firm reports data item FSA047 weekly, the first reporting period for that data item starts on Saturday 29 May 2010 and ends on Friday 4 June 2010. It has to be submitted to the FSA by 2200 on Monday 7 June.

12W

SUP 16.12.5 R to SUP 16.12.7 R

If BIPRU TP 30.4 R (Liquidity floor for certain banks) applies to a firm the regulatory intervention point mentioned in that rule is added to the list in paragraph (a) of the definition of firm-specific liquidity stress in the case of that firm for as long as BIPRU TP 30.4 R applies to it.

For as long as BIPRU TP 30.4 R applies to the firm

At the end of period set out in column (5)

(2)

The abolition of that data item does not have effect in relation to a firm's reporting period for that data item that has begun but not ended as at 1 January 2011.

(3)

The changes to the definition of DLG by default do not have effect in relation to the reporting period of a firm that has begun but not ended as at 1 November 2010.

SUP 16.8

In Forms 1R(1) to (3) in SUP 16 Annex 6R , for any life policy promoted beforecommencement, a reference to "direct offer financial promotion" must be read as a reference to "direct offer advertisement", as defined in the rulebook of the PIA at the time the policy was promoted.

From commencement for 6 years

Commencement

13A

(1)
SUP 3.1.2 R

In relation to an investment management firm which carries on only the activity of establishing, operating or winding up a personal pension scheme and which is authorised by the FSA after 6 April 2007, SUP 3.9 will not apply to the firm's auditor.

6 April 2007 to 31 December 2008

6 April 2007

SUP 16.8

SUP 16.8 does not apply to an insurer (including a friendly society) which was not a member of the PIA immediately before commencement.

From commencement for 6 years

Commencement

14A

SUP 16.11.7 R

Until 1 July 2006, a firm will not contravene SUP 16.11.7 R if it does not complete the data reporting field 'Advice at the point of sale' (see SUP 16 Annex 21).

1 April 2005 - 30 June 2006

1 April 2005

14B

If SUP TR 12B R (5) applies, the firm's first return must be provided as follows:

Accounting reference date

Reporting period starts

Reporting period ends

Return to be provided

31 December 2004

1 April 2005

30 June 2005

30 business days after period end

Between 1 January 2005 and 31 March 2005

1 April 2005

6 months after the accounting reference date within 2005

30 business days after period end
(Note 2)

Between 1 April 2005 and 29 June 2005

The day following the accounting reference date within 2005

3 months after the accounting reference date within 2005

30 business days after period end
(Note 2)

Between 30 June 2005 and 29 September 2005

1 April 2005

Accounting reference date within 2005

30 business days after period end
(Note 2)

Between 30 September 2005 and 30 December 2005

The day after 6 months preceding the accounting reference date within 2005

3 months preceding the accounting reference date within 2005

30 business days after period end
(Note 3)

14C

16.10.4

A firm whose accounting reference date falls between 1 April 2005 and 30 June 2005 (inclusive) need not comply with SUP 16.10.4 R until its accounting reference date in 2006.

1 April 2005-30 June 2005

1 April 2005

14D

16.11.3

The report under SUP 16.11.3R (1) for the quarter 1 April to 30 June 2005, together with the report for the quarter 1 July to 30 September 2005 must be submitted within 20 business days after the end of the 1 July-30 September 2005 quarter.

1 April 2005-30 June 2005

1 April 2005

[deleted]

15A

Rules in SUP 20

Expired

15B

Transitional ruleSUP 15A

Expired

15C

The Supervision manual (SUP)

A regulated sale and rent back firm need not comply with the rules in this sourcebook to the extent that they carry on regulated sale and rent back activity, provided that within a period of 3 months after submitting an application for interim authorisation in accordance with article 32 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) Order (SI 2009/1342), and every 6 months after such date until 30 June 2010, they provide to the FSA for the relevant period the following information:
(a) management accounts for the firm, including a balance sheet, profit/loss statement and management report;
(b) details of the firm's funding arrangements; and
(c) where the firm is a SRB agreement provider, the number of regulated sale and rent back agreements it has entered into in that period, distinguishing between direct sales (both advised and non-advised) and indirect sales (advised and non-advised).

1 July 2009 to 30 June 2010

1 July 2009

15D

SUP 16

A regulated sale and rent back firm need not comply with the rules in SUP 16 to the extent that they carry on regulated sale and rent back activity. A regulated sale and rent back firm must instead:

(a) within a period of 3 months from becoming authorised (for previously unauthorised persons); or

(b) according to their existing reporting schedules (for firms that previously held an interim authorisation or interim variation of permission in accordance with article 32 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) Order (SI 2009/1342) or hold a Part IV permission to carry on regulated sale and rent back activity as a result of having made a variation of permission application that has been approved by the FSA);

and every 6 months after such date until 30 June 2011 (unless otherwise advised by the FSA), provide to the FSA for the relevant period the following information:

(i) management accounts for the firm, including a balance sheet, profit/loss statement and management report;

(ii) details of the firm's funding arrangements; and

(iii) where the firm is a SRB agreement provider, the number of regulated sale and rent back agreements it has entered into in that period, distinguishing between direct and indirect sales.

If a firm does not submit a complete report by the date on which it is due in accordance with this transitional provision, the firm must pay an administrative fee of £250.

30 June 2010 to 29 June 2011

30 June 2010

Paragraphs 1 to 15

Definitions

From commencement

Commencement

In these transitional provisions:

(1)

"pre-commencement provision" means a provision repealed or revoked by or under the Act or a rule or guidance of the firm's previous regulator, including (where the context permits) any relevant provision which it replaced before commencement; and

(2)

"substantially similar" means substantially similar in purpose and effect.

SUP 20.4.4 R (4)

The periodic fee modification set out in SUP 20.4.4 R (4) does not apply to the A.2, A.18 and A.19 activity groups until 1 April 2005.

From 31 October 2004 to 31 March 2005

1 April 2002

SUP

GEN contains some technical transitional provisions that apply throughout the Handbook and which are designed to ensure a smooth transition at commencement . These include transitional provisions relevant to record keeping and notification rules.

From commencement of the relevant provision in SUP

Various dates

Note 1 = The return need not provide data for sections A, B, C, D, E of the RMAR.

Note 2 = Sections A, B, C, D, E of the RMAR should be reported for the 3 months to the reporting end date.

Note 3 = This should only cover sections A, B, C, D, E of the RMAR

SUP TP 1.3

Transitional provisions relating to written concessions

The purpose of the transitional provisions in the following table is to carry forward existing written concessions relating to pre-commencement provisions - for example, formal waivers or modifications given by IMRO, PIA or SFA ("an SRO") and the recognised professional bodies, written concessions from the standards in the FSA's Guide to Banking Supervisory Policy, and formal written consents and determinations made by an SRO under an SRO rule.

An existing written concession is only carried forward if the pre-commencement provision to which it relates is substantially similar to a rule in the Handbook. The substantially similar test should be applied to the specific element of the rule to which the written concession relates. An existing written concession from a pre-commencement provision which is substantially similar to written guidance in the Handbook is carried forward in the same way as pre-commencement individual guidance; see transitional provision 6A (Individual guidance) in the schedule of Transitional provisions applying to the Supervision manual only.

An existing written concession is carried forward on a temporary basis only - for 12 months from commencement or, in the case of modifications relating to the Interim Prudential sourcebooks or SUP 16.6 (Compliance reports) or SUP 16.7 (Financial reports), until the relevant provisions cease to apply. A firm wishing to retain the benefit of a concession after that time will need to apply in good time for a waiver (see SUP 8 (Waiver and modification of rules)).

An existing written concession is carried forward as an amendment to the rule to which it relates. Any such amendment has effect for all purposes (including FSA enforcement action and actions for damages under section 150 of the Act).

An existing written concession is not carried forward if, and to the extent that, doing so would be inconsistent with any EU law obligation of the United Kingdom, in particular with the proper implementation of a directive.

These transitional provisions do not apply to rules which are continued by designation of pre-commencement provisions rather than made as new rules. Written concessions of such rules are carried forward, to similar effect, as waivers (given under section 148 of the Act) by article 8 of The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Transitional Provision and Savings) (Rules) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1534). The relevant rules are in IPRU(INV), those identified as designated rules in the schedule to IPRU(INV) entitled "Powers exercised".

[deleted]

Definitions for these transitional provisions, additional to those in the Glossary, are provided at paragraph 4 of the table.

SUP TP 1.4

(1)

(2) Material to which the transitional provision applies

(3)

(4) Transitional provision

(5) Transitional provision: dates in force

(6) Handbook provision: coming into force

Rules in: IPRU, SUP 16.6 and SUP 16.7

(1)

A rule listed in column (2) (including evidential provisions, transitional rules and relevant defined expressions) is disapplied, or is modified in its application, to a firm:

from commencement until revoked.

Commencement

(a)

in order to produce the same effect, including any conditions, as a written concession had on a pre-commencement provision listed in paragraph 2; and

(b)

for the same period as the written concession would have lasted, if shorter than the period in column (5);

(c)

the rule is substantially similar to the pre-commencement provision in relation to the matter with which the written concession is concerned;

(d)

the written concession was current as respects the firm immediately before commencement;

(e)

there is no specific transitional rule relating to the written concession; and

(f)

the written concession has not been superseded by a waiver from the FSA.

(2)

Paragraph (1) does not have effect if, and to the extent that, it would be inconsistent with any EU law obligation of the United Kingdom.

Rules in: IPRU, SUP 16.6 and SUP 16.7

The pre-commencement provisions referred to in paragraph 1(1) are those contained in any of the following (including relevant defined expressions):

from commencement until revoked.

firm

(1)

the legislative provisions of the FSA as designated agency under the Financial Services Act 1986;

(2)

the rules of IMRO, PIA, SFA and the recognised professional body;

(3)

the Insurance Companies Act 1982 and relevant secondary legislation;

(4)

the Friendly Societies Act 1992, and relevant secondary legislation;

(5)

the Banking Act 1987, relevant secondary legislation and the FSA's Guide to Banking Supervisory Policy;

(6)

the Building Societies Act 1986, relevant secondary legislation and the Building Societies Commission's Prudential Notes, Guidance Notes and DCE (Dear Chief Executive) letters.

Rules in: IPRU, SUP 16.6 and SUP 16.7

Notification of relevance etc of concession
A firm which has the benefit of a written concession to which paragraph 1 applies must notify the FSA immediately if it becomes aware of any matter which is material to the relevance or appropriateness of the written concession.

from commencement until revoked.

Commencement

Rules in: IPRU, SUP 16.6 and SUP 16.7

Definitions

from commencement until revoked.

Commencement

In these transitional provisions:

(1)

"substantially similar" means substantially similar in purpose and effect; and

(2)

"written concession" means a waiver, exemption, concession, modification, consent, approval, determination or similar exercise of discretion which:

(a)

disapplied, or tended to reduce the burden of complying with, a pre-commencement provision (with or without conditions); and

(b)

was evidenced in writing.

SUP TP 1.5

(1)

A firm may, in the written contract with its introducer appointed representative, extend the scope of appointment to include:

(a)

receiving and forwarding to an insurer or insurance intermediary an application by a customer for a connected travel insurance contract together with any associated documentation; and

(b)

receiving client money from a customer in respect of a connected travel insurance contract, and holding that client money.

(2)

The extension of the scope of the appointment must apply only where the receipt of an application or of client money results from documentation given to a customer, where the deadline for submission of this documentation to the publishers for publishing was on or before 15 November 2008.

(3)

This rule applies until 31 December 2009.

01/01/2011

SUP Sch 1

Record keeping requirements

31/12/2004

SUP Sch 1.1

The aim of the guidance in the following table is to give the reader a quick overall view of the relevant record keeping requirements.

It is not a complete statement of those requirements and should not be relied on as if it were.

01/12/2004

SUP Sch 1.2

Handbook reference

Subject of record

Contents of record

When record must be made

Retention period

SUP 4.3.17 R (3)

Data for actuary (or actuaries appointed under SUP 4 (Actuaries)

Such data as the actuary (or actuaries) appointed under SUP 4 (Actuaries) reasonably require

Not specified

SUP 12.9.1 R, SUP 12.9.2 R,

Appointed representatives

(1) Appointed representative's name

On appointment, amendment of contract or termination of contract

3 years from termination or amendment of the contract, other than in respect of tied agents when period is five years.

SUP 12.9.5 R

EEA tied agents

If a UK MiFID investment firm appoints an EEA tied agent the record keeping requirements in SUP 12.9 applies to that firm as though the EEA tied agent were an appointed representative.

(2) Copy of the original contract with the appointed representative and any subsequent amendments to it (including details of any restrictions placed on the activities which the appointed representative may carry on)

(3) Date and reason for terminating or amending the contract

(4) arrangements agreed with other principals under SUP 12.4.5B R

SUP 13.11

UK firm exercising EEA right

(a) the services or activities it carries on from a branch in, or provide cross border services into, another EEA State under that EEA right; and the requisite details or relevant details relating to those services or activities (if applicable)

Not specified

Three years from the earlier of the date on which:(a) it was superseded by a more up-to-date record; or

(a) the UK firm ceased to have a branch in, or carry cross border services into, any EEA State under an EEA right

SUP 13.11.1 R

Exercise of passport rights by UK firms

(1) Services or activities carried on from a branch in, or providedcross-border into, another EEA State under an EEA right

Not specified

Five years (for firms passporting under MiFID) or three years (for other firms) from earlier of:(1) record being superseded;

(2) The details relating to those services or activities (as set out in SUP 13.6 and SUP 13.7).

(2) firm ceasing to have any EEA branches or cross- border services.

SUP 16.8.23 R

Persistency reports and data reports

Records to enable the firm to monitor regularly the persistency of life policies and stakeholder pensions effected through each of its representatives and make the required reports to the FSA .

Not specified

01/11/2007

SUP Sch 2

Notification requirements

01/12/2004

SUP Sch 2.1

The aim of the guidance in the following table is to give the reader a quick overall view of the relevant requirements for notification and reporting.

It is not a complete statement of those requirements and should not be relied on as if it were.

01/01/2005

SUP Sch 2.2

Handbook reference

Matter to be notified

Contents of notification

Trigger event

Time allowed

SUP 3.3.2 R (2)

Vacancy in the office of auditor.

The fact of the vacancy and the reason for it.

Vacancy in the office of auditor will arise or has arisen.

Without delay.

SUP 3.3.2 R (5)

Appointment of auditor.

The fact of the appointment, name and business address of the auditor and the date the appointment takes effect.

Appointment of auditor.

Not specified.

SUP 3.3.5 R

Vacancy in the office of auditor to a Lloyd's underwriting agent or the auditor of the insurance business of a Lloyd's syndicate.

The fact of the vacancy and the reason for it

Vacancy in the office of auditor will arise or has arisen.

Without delay.

Appointment of auditor by Lloyd's underwriting agent.

The fact of the appointment, name and business address of the auditor and the date the appointment takes effect.

Appointment of auditor.

Not specified.

SUP 3.5.3 R

Auditor not independent of the firm.

The fact of the lack of independence.

Firm aware that its auditor not independent of the firm.

A reasonable time.

SUP 3.7.2 G (1)

Expectation that auditor will qualify his report on the audited annual financial statements or add an explanatory paragraph.

Fact of expectation.

Firm decides qualification or explanatory paragraph is probable and the matter justifies notifying the FSA.

Not specified.

SUP 3.7.2 G (2)

The firm receives a written communication from its auditor commenting on internal controls.

Content of written communication.

Firm receives written communication and decides that it is appropriate that the FSA should be informed.

Not specified.

SUP 3.8.10 G

Matters requiring reporting under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act.

Information on or the auditor's opinion on the matters which have caused the auditor to believe the circumstances set out in Statutory Instrument 2001 No. 2587 apply.

Auditor believes that the circumstances set out in Statutory Instrument 2001 No.2587 paragraph 2 apply.

Not specified.

SUP 3.8.11 R

Auditor: termination of office.

The fact of the termination.

Auditor removed from office by the firm, resigns before his term of office expires or is not re-appointed by the firm.

Without delay.

SUP 3.8.12 R

Auditor: termination of office.

Any matter connected with ceasing which he thinks ought to be drawn to the FSA's attention; or the fact that there is no such matter.

Auditor ceasing to be (or being formally notified that he will cease to be) auditor of the firm.

Without delay.

SUP 3.10

Auditor: client assets.

Either: (1)
Whether firm has: maintained systems to comply with CASS (client assets), is in compliance with the client asset rules at the report date, and nominee company records are adequate; or
(2) if the firm claims not to hold client money or custody assets whether anything has come to the auditor's attention that causes him to believe that they were held.

Report period must end no more than 53 weeks after previous report.

A reasonable time

SUP 3.10.8 R

Failure by auditor to report under SUP 3.10.4 R.

Auditor to report the failure and the reasons why it has been unable to meet the requirements of SUP 3.10.7 R.

Failure by the auditor to deliver a report under SUP 3.10.4 R to the FSA so as to be received within four months of the end of each period covered by the report.

Not specified.

SUP 4.3.1 R (2)

Vacancy in the office of actuary.

The fact of the vacancy and the reason for it.

Vacancy in the office of actuary will arise or has arisen.

Without delay.

SUP 4.3.1 R (3) and SUP 4.3.2 G

Appointment of actuary .

Matters specified in SUP 10 (because the actuarial function and the with-profits actuary function are specified as controlled functions).

Appointment of actuary.

Before appointment.

SUP 4.5.9 R

Actuary: termination of office.

The fact of the termination.

Actuary removed from office by the firm, resigns before his term of office expires or is not re-appointed by the firm.

Without delay.

SUP 4.5.10 R

Actuary: ceasing to hold office.

Any matter connected with ceasing which he thinks ought to be drawn to the FSA's attention; or the fact that there is no such matter.

Actuary ceasing to be (or being formally notified that he will cease to be) actuary of the firm.

Without delay.

SUP 4.5.11 G

Actuary: ceasing to hold office.

Matters specified in SUP 10.13.6 R and SUP 10.13.7 R (because the actuarial function and the with-profits actuary function are specified as controlled functions)..

Actuary ceasing to hold office.

Seven business days; or, if approved persons Form C is qualified, as soon as reasonably practicable.

SUP 4.6.1 R

Vacancy in the office of Lloyd's actuary will arise or has arisen.

Fact of the vacancy and the reason for the vacancy.

The Society of Lloyd's becomes aware that a vacancy will arise or has arisen.

Without delay.

SUP 4.6.17 R

Syndicate actuary of a general insurance business syndicate will or may be unable to produce an unqualified opinion under SUP 4.6.16 R.

Fact that the syndicate actuary will or may be unable to produce an unqualified opinion (to be notified by the managing agent to the FSA).

The managing agent becomes aware that the syndicate actuary will or may be unable to produce an unqualified opinion.

Notification to be made promptly.

SUP 5.4.12 G

Delay in producing a skilled person report.

Skilled person: inform the FSA and the person in SUP 5.2.1 G that the report may not be delivered on time.

The skilled person becomes aware that the report may not be delivered on time.

As soon as possible.

SUP 5.5.1 R

Matters which the skilled person is required and permitted to report to the FSA.

As set out in SUP 5.5.1 R.

Skilled person becomes aware of reportable matter.

Not specified.

SUP 5.5.8 G

Cost of skilled person report.

As set out in SUP 5.5.8 G.

On request.

Not specified.

SUP 6.2.6 G

Firm seeking to vary its Part IV permission substantially or cancel its Part IV permission.

The fact of seeking such applications to initiate discussion.

Firm seeking to vary its Part IV permission substantially or cancel its Part IV permission.

As early as possible before making the application.

SUP 6.2.7 G

Firm intending to cease carrying on one or more regulated activities permanently.

The fact of intending to cease carrying on one or more regulated activities permanently.

Firm intending to cease carrying on one or more regulated activities permanently.

Prompt notice.

SUP 6.2.10 G

Firm winding down (running off) its activities.

The fact of winding down (running off) its activities.

Firm winding down (running off) its activities.

Before making an application for variation of or cancellation of Part IV permission.

SUP 6.3.15 D

Variation of permission.

The desired variation and the regulated activity or regulated activities which the firm proposes to carry on. The FSA will advise the firm of any additional information required (see SUP 6.3.15 D to SUP 6.3.27 G).

Firm wishes to vary its Part IV permission.

Before variation is required; the FSA has six months to consider a completed application.

SUP 6.3.15 D (3)

Variation of permission- any significant change in information provided.

Any significant change in the information given in the application.

Until the application has been determined, a change in information provided on the application for variation of Part IV permission.

Immediately.

SUP 6.4.5 D

Cancellation of Part IV permission.

Reasons for the application, the date on which the firm has ceased, or expects to cease, to carry on regulated activities and an explanation of the full circumstances of its application.

Firm wishes to cancel its Part IV permission.

Before cancellation is required; the FSA has six months to consider a completed application. See SUP 6.4.3 G.

The FSA will advise the firm of any additional information required (see SUP 6.4.8 G to SUP 6.4.17 G).

SUP 6.4.5 D (4)

Cancellation of Part IV permission- any significant change in information provided.

Any significant change in the information given in the application.

Until the application has been determined, a change in information provided on the application for a cancellation of Part IV permission.

Immediately.

SUP 8.3.3 D

Application for a waiver.

The form in SUP 8 Annex 2(Application form for a waiver or modification).

Firm seeks a waiver.

Before the waiver is required; the FSA will aim to give a waiver decision within 20 business days of receiving the application.

SUP 8.5.1 R

Waiver: altered circumstances.

The matter that affects the continuing relevance or appropriateness of the application or waiver.

Firm that has applied for or has been granted a waiver becoming aware of any matter which could affect the continuing relevance or appropriateness of the application or waiver.

Immediately.

SUP 9.2.6 G

Guidance request.

Sufficient information to enable the FSA to properly evaluate the situation and respond. In particular, identification of the rule, general guidance or other matter on which the individual guidance is sought and a description of the circumstances relating to the request.

A firm seeks individual guidance.

Before individual guidance required (the FSA will aim to respond quickly and fully to reasonable request).

SUP 10.12.2 D

Approved persons- application.

Approved persons the relevant Form A Application to perform controlled functions under the approved persons regime (see SUP 10 Annex 4).

Firm wishes to appoint a person to a controlled function.

Before appointment takes effect (the FSA has three months to consider a properly completed application but will deal with cases more quickly whenever circumstances allow).

SUP 10.12.13 R

Approved persons- withdrawal of an application.

Approved persons Form B Notice to withdraw an application to perform controlled functions under the approved persons regime (see SUP 10 Annex 5).

Firm wishes to withdraw an application for approved person status.

Not specified.

SUP 10.13.1 G

Approved persons- moving within a firm.

Approved persons Form E Internal transfer of an approved person (see SUP 10 Annex 8).

An approved person is both ceasing to perform one or more controlled functions and needs to be approved in relation to one or more new controlled functions within the same firm.

Before appointment takes effect (the FSA has three months to consider a properly completed application but will deal with cases more quickly whenever circumstances allow).

SUP 10.13.6 R

Approved persons- ceasing to perform a controlled function.

Approved persons Form C Notice of ceasing to perform controlled functions (see SUP 10 Annex 6).

An approved person ceasing to perform a controlled function.

Seven business days after an approved person ceases to perform a controlled function.

SUP 10.13.7 R

Approved persons- ceasing to perform a controlled function- qualified withdrawal.

The fact of the qualified withdrawal.

An approved person ceasing to perform a controlled function and the firm becoming aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that it will submit a qualified Form C in respect of that approved person(qualified defined in SUP 10.13.7 R (2): approved person dismissed; approved person under investigation; approved person's fitness and propriety affected).

As soon as practicable (guidance in SUP 10.13.8 Gstates, where possible, within one business day).

SUP 10.13.14 R

Approved persons- change to personal details - title, name or national insurance number.

Approved persons Form D Notification of changes in personal information or application details (see SUP 10 Annex 7).

An approved person's title, name or national insurance number changes.

Seven business days of the firm becoming aware.

SUP 10.13.16 R

Approved persons- change to personal details - information reasonably material to fitness and propriety.

Approved persons Form D Notification of changes in personal information or application details (see SUP 10 Annex 7).

Firm becomes aware of information which would reasonably be material to the assessment of an approved person's, or a candidate's, fitness and propriety.

As soon as practicable.

SUP 11.3.7 D

Controllers - person proposing to acquire or increase control- notification from controller or proposed controller.

If the controller or proposed controller is an authorised person: those sections of Controllers Form A which deal with details of the proposed change in control, joint notifications and supplementary information (see SUP 11 Annex 4D)
If the controller or proposed controller is an authorised person and a fund manager which satisfies SUP 11.3.5 G: notification in accordance with SUP 11.3.5 G.

Proposing to take a step which would result in acquiring the specified control.

Before acquiring control (the FSA has up to three months to consider whether to approve control).

In other cases: all of Controllers Form A (see SUP 11 Annex 4) and one or more of Controllers Form B (see SUP 11 Annex 5) for relevant individuals (see SUP 11.3.8 D).

SUP 11.3.10 D

Controllers- correction to previously submitted information by controller.

Details of the information which may be false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate, or has or may have changed.

A person who submitted a notification under SUP 11.3.7 D becoming aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that he has or may have provided the FSA with information which was or may have been false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate or has or may have changed, in a material particular.

Immediately.

SUP 11.3.15 G

Controllers- proposing to reduce control- notification from controller.

Extent of control (if any) which the controller will have following the change in control
If the controller is a fund manager which satisfies SUP 11.3.5 G: notification in accordance with SUP 11.3.5 G.

Reduction in control.

Before reducing control.

SUP 11.3.16 G

Controllers- change in control occurs - notification from controller.

Date relevant change of control occurred. If a person has reduced control, details of the extent of control retained (if any).

Change in control has occurred.

Not specified.

SUP 11.4.2 R

Controllers- proposed change of control- notification from a UK domestic firm.

When acquiring or increasing control:
(1) the name of the firm;
(2) the name of the controller or proposed controller and, if it is a body corporate and is not an authorised person, the names of its directors and its controllers;
(3) a description of the proposed event including the shareholding and voting power of the person concerned, both before and after the proposed event; and
(4) any other information of which the FSA would reasonably expect notice, including information which could have a material impact on any of the approval requirements in section 186(2) of the Act and any relevant supporting documentation.
The notification need only contain as much of the information the firm is able to provide, having made reasonable enquiries from persons and other sources as appropriate.
When reducing control:
(1) the name of the controller; and
(2) details of the extent of control (if any) which the controller will have following the change in control.

(1) a person acquiring control or ceasing to have control;
(2) an existing controller acquiring an additional kind of control or ceasing to have a kind of control;
(3) an existing controller increasing or decreasing a kind of control which he already has so that the percentage of shares or voting power concerned becomes or ceases to be equal to or greater than 20, 33 or 50
(4) an existing controller becoming or ceasing to be a parent undertaking.

As soon as the firm becomes aware that a person is proposing to take a step that would result in the event concerned; or if the event takes place without the knowledge of the firm, within 14 days of the firm becoming aware of the event concerned.

SUP 11.4.2A R

Controllers - proposed change of control notification from a UK insurance intermediary.

When acquiring control:
(1) the name of the firm;
(2) the name of the controller or proposed controller and, if it is a body corporate and is not an authorised person, the names of its directors and its controllers;
(3) a description of the proposed event including the shareholding and voting power of the person concerned, both before and after the proposed event; and
(4) any other information of which the FSA would reasonably expect notice, including information which could have a material impact on any of the approval requirements in section 186(2) of the Act and any relevant supporting documentation.
The notification need only contain as much of the information the firm is able to provide, having made reasonable enquiries from persons and other sources as appropriate.
When reducing control:
(1) name of the controller; and
(2) details of the extent of control (if any) which the controller will have following the change in control.

(1) a person acquiring control or ceasing to have control;
(2) a person becoming or ceasing to be a parent undertaking.

As soon as the firm becomes aware that a person is proposing to take such a step that would result in the event concerned; or if the event takes place without the knowledge of the firm, 14 days of the firm becoming aware of the event concerned.

SUP 11.4.4 R

Controllers- proposed change of control- notification from an overseas firm.

When acquiring or increasing control:(1) the name of the firm;
(2) the name of the controller or proposed controller and, if it is a body corporate and is not an authorised person the names of its directors and its controllers;
(3) a description of the proposed event including the shareholding and voting power of the person concerned, both before and after the proposed event; and
(4) any other information of which the FSA would reasonably expect notice, including information which could have a material impact on any of the approval requirements in section 186(2) of the Act and any relevant supporting documentation.
The notification need only contain as much of the information the firm is able to provide, having made reasonable enquiries from firm and other sources as appropriate.
When reducing control:
(1) the name of the controller; details of the extent of control (if any) which the controller will have following the change in control.

(1) a person acquiring control or ceasing to have control;
(2) an existing controller becoming or ceasing to be a parent undertaking.

SUP 11.4.8 G

Controllers- notification under Principle 11 by firms.

Proposed change of control.

Any prospective changes of which the firm is aware, in controllers' or proposed controllers' shareholdings or voting power (if the change is material).

The earliest opportunity and before the formal notifications . As a minimum, the FSA considers such discussions should take place before a person:
(1) enters into any formal agreement in respect of the purchase of shares or a proposed acquisition or merger which would result in a change in control (whether or not the agreement is conditional upon any matter, including the FSA's approval) or
(2) purchases any share options, warrants or other financial instruments, the exercise of which would result in the person acquiring control or any other changes in control.

SUP 11.6.2 R to SUP 11.6.5 R

Controllers- change in information provided by a UK domestic firm.

(1) Details of the information which is or may be false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate, or has or may have changed
(2) An explanation why such information was or may have been provided; and
(3) The correct information.

After submitting a notification under SUP 11.4.2 Ror SUP 11.4.2A R and until the change in control occurs, the firm becomes aware, or has information that reasonably suggests, that information provided by the controller or proposed controller is false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate, or has or may have changed in a material particular.

Immediately.

SUP 11.6.4 R

Controllers- change in notification has taken place - notification by firm.

The fact that the change in control has taken place or that there are grounds for reasonably believing that the event will not now take place.

A change in control previously notified under SUP 11.4.2 R, SUP 11.4.2A R, SUP 11.4.4 Ror taking place; or the firm having grounds for reasonably believing that the event will not now take place.

14 days of the change in control or having grounds for reasonably believing that the event will not now take place.

SUP 11.8.1 R

Controllers- changes in the circumstances of existing controllers.

The fact of:
(1) a controller, or any entity subject to his control, being the subject of any legal action or investigation which might put into question the integrity of the controller;

The firm becoming aware of:
(1) a controller, or any entity subject to his control, is or has been the subject of any legal action or investigation which might put into question the integrity of the controller;

Immediately.

(2) a significant deterioration in the financial position of a controller;

(3) a corporate controller undergoing a substantial change or series of changes in its governing body;

(4) a controller, who is authorised in another EEA State as an MiFID investment firm or BCD credit institution or under the Insurance Directives or the Insurance Mediation Directive, ceasing to be so authorised (registered in the case of an IMD insurance intermediary).

SUP 11.9.1 R

Close links.

(a) the name of the person;
(b) the nature of the close links;
(c) if the close link is with a body corporate, its country of incorporation, address and registered number;
(d) if the close link is with an individual, his date and place of birth; and
(e) group organisation chart (required only quarterly if the firm has elected to report monthly).

The firm becoming aware that it has become or ceased to be closely linked with any person.

As soon as reasonably practicable and no later than one month after the firm becomes aware that it has become or ceased to be closely linked or if the firm has elected to report monthly, within 15 business days of the end of each month (see SUP 11.9.4 R).

SUP 12.7.1 R

Appointed representatives.

The notification should give details of the appointed representative and the regulated activities which the firm is, or intends to, carry on through the appointed representative, including:
(1) the name of the firm's new appointed representative (if the appointed representative is a body corporate, this is its registered name)
(2) any trading name under which the firm's new appointed representative carries on a regulated activity in that capacity;
(3) a description of the regulated activities which the appointed representative is permitted or required to carry on and for which the firm has accepted responsibility.

A firm appointing an appointed representative.

(1) (if the appointment covers insurance mediation activities and the appointed representative is not included on the Register as carrying on such activities in another capacity) before; or
(2) if the firm appoints a tied agent and the tied agent is not included in the Register (see SUP 12.4.11 R), before; or
(3) (otherwise) ten business days after;
the appointed representative begins to carry on regulated activities under the contract.

SUP 12.7.7 R (1)

Appointed representative - extension of scope of appointment to cover insurance mediation activities for the first time.

That fact.

Extension of scope of appointment to cover insurance mediation activities for the first time and the appointed representative is not included on the Register as carrying on insurance mediation activities in another capacity.

Before the appointed representative begins to carry on insurance mediation activities under the contract.

SUP 12.7.7 R (1A)

Appointed representatives - commencing as tied agent.

That fact.

Change of scope of tied agent's appointment.

Notification must be made prior to tied agent acting.

SUP 12.7.7 R (2)

Appointed representatives- change in other information.

The information that has changed.

A change being made to other information provided under SUP 12.7.1 R or the firm becoming aware of the change.

Ten business days of a change being made, or if later, as soon as it becomes aware of the change.

SUP 12.7.8 R

Appointed representatives- belief that appointment conditions not met.

The fact that the firm has reasonable grounds for believing that the appointment conditions are not being met; and:
(a) the steps the firm proposes to take to rectify the matter; and
(b) the date of the termination of the contract with the appointed representative.

The firm having reasonable grounds for believing that the conditions in SUP 12.4.2 R, SUP 12.4.6 R or SUP 12.4.8A R are not being satisfied.
The SUP 12.4.2 R conditions are that:

As soon as the firm has reasonable grounds for believing that the approval conditions have not been met.

(1) the appointment does not prevent the firm from satisfying and continuing to satisfy the threshold conditions;

(2) the threshold conditions representative: (a) is solvent;
(b) is suitable to act for the firm in that capacity;
(c) has no close links which would be likely to prevent the effective supervision of the appointed representative by the firm; and

(3) the firm has adequate:
(a) controls over the appointed representative's regulated activities for which the firm has responsibility (see SYSC 3.1); and
(b) resources to monitor and enforce compliance by the appointed representative with the relevant requirements applying to the regulated activities for which the firm is responsible and with which the appointed representative is required to comply under its contract with the firm (see SUP 12.5.3 G (2)).

The SUP 12.4.6 Rconditions are that: On a continuing basis the firm must take reasonable care to ensure that the appointed representative is suitable to act for the firm in that capacity (having regard, in particular, to other persons connected with the appointed representative who will be, or who are, directly responsible for its activities).

SUP 12.7.9 R

EEA tied agents.

If a UK MiFID investment firm appoints an EEA tied agent the notification requirements in SUP 12.7 apply to that firm as though the EEA tied agent were an appointed representative.

SUP 12.8.6 R

EEA tied agents.

If a UK MiFID investment firm appoints an EEA tied agent the notification requirements in SUP 12.8 apply to that firm as though the EEA tied agent were an appointed representative.

SUP 12.8.1 R

Appointed representatives- termination of appointment.

(1) Written notice of the notification by the firm or the appointed representative
(2) The reason for the termination or amendment, if the termination or amendment is due to misconduct or the appointed representative is resigning while under investigation by the firm, the FSA, another regulator, a clearing house, an exchange, a designated professional body, or a government body or agency
(3) If relevant, details of action taken by the firm and, if applicable, its outcome.

Either the firm or the appointed representative notifying the other that it proposes to terminate the contract of appointment or to amend it so that it no longer meets the requirements contained in or referred to in SUP 12.5.

Ten business days after the date of the decision to terminate or so amend the contract or, if later, as soon as the firm becomes aware that the contract is to be or has been terminated or amended.

SUP 12.8.1 R

Appointed representatives- termination of appointment.

(1) Written notice of the notification by the firm or theappointed representative
(2) The reason for the termination or amendment, if the termination or amendment is due to misconduct or the appointed representative is resigning while under investigation by the firm, the FSA, another regulator, a clearing house, an exchange, a designated professional body, or a government body or agency
(3) If relevant, details of action taken by the firm and, if applicable, its outcome.

Ten business days after the date of the decision to terminate or so amend the contract or, if later, as soon as the firm becomes aware that the contract is to be or has been terminated or amended.

SUP 12.8.4 G

Appointed representatives- termination of appointment -approved persons.

Approved persons Form C Notice of ceasing to perform controlled functions (see SUP 10 Annex 6).

An approved person ceasing to perform a controlled function under an arrangement entered into by a firm or its appointed representative.

Seven business days after an approved person ceases to perform a controlled function.

SUP 12.8.4 G

Appointed representatives- termination of appointment -approved persons (qualified withdrawal).

The fact of the qualified withdrawal.

An approved person ceasing to perform a controlled function under an arrangement entered into by a firm or its appointed representative and the firm becoming aware, or has information which reasonably suggest, that it will submit a qualified Form C in respect of that approved person
(qualified defined in SUP 10.13.7 R (2); approved person dismissed, approved person under investigation, approved person's fitness and propriety affected).

As soon as practicable guidance (in SUP 10.13.8 Gstates, where possible, within one business day).

SUP 13.3.2 G (1)

Intention to establish a branch in another EEA State.

(a) activities which it seeks to carry on through branch (b) other information as specified in SUP 13.5.1 R.

Decision to establish a branch in other EEA State.

Before establishing a branch.

SUP 13.4.2 G (1)

Intention to provide cross border services into another EEA State.

(a) identifies activities which it seeks to carry on by way of provision of cross border services
(b) other information as specified in SUP 13.5.2 R.

Decision to provide cross border services into another EEA State.

Before providing cross border services.

SUP 13.5.1A R

UK pure reinsurer establishing a branch in another EEA State.

(a) the address of the branch
(b) the name of the firm's authorised agent
(c) whether the firm will be, or is, carrying on life or non-life reinsurance business, or both
(d) confirmation that the firm fulfils the solvency requirements of the Reinsurance Directive.

Decision to establish a branch in other EEA State.

Whenever possible, as soon as the information specified in SUP 13 Annex 1 R is known by the firm.

SUP 13.6.5 G (1)

Changes to branches (Firms passporting under the UCITS Directive and Banking Consolidation Directive).

Details of proposed change.

Change in circumstances within control of UK firm.

Before making change.

SUP 13.6.5B G

Changes to branches (Firms passporting under MiFID).

Details of proposed change.

Change in circumstances, including using for the first time or ceasing to use a tied agent established in the EEA State in which the branch is established.

Before making change.

SUP 13.6.7 G (1)

Changes to relevant EEA details of branches (Firms passporting under the Insurance Directives).

Details of proposed change.

Change in circumstances within control of UK firm.

Before making change.

SUP 13.6.8 G

Changes to relevant UK details of branches (Firms passporting under the Insurance Directives).

Details of proposed change.

Change arising from circumstances within control of UK firm.

At least one month before change is effected.

SUP 13.6.10 G

Changes to branches(not firms passporting under MiFID).

Details of change.

Changes to branch arising from circumstances beyond control of a UK firm.

As soon as reasonably practicable.

SUP 13.7.3 G

Firms passporting under the UCITS Directive: Change in program of operations, or activities to be carried on under its EEA right.

Details of proposed change.

Change in programme of operations, or activities to be carried on under its EEA right.

(a) change arises from circumstances within control of firm: before making change.
(b) change arises from circumstances beyond UK firm's control: as soon as practicable (whether before or after change).

SUP 13.7.3B G

Firms passporting under MiFID (cross-border services): Change in program of operations, or activities to be carried on under its EEA right.

Details of proposed change.

Change in activities to be carried on, using for the first time or ceasing to use a tied agent.

Before making change.

SUP 13.7.4 G

Firms passporting under Insurance Directive (providing cross border services) - change in relevant details.

Details of proposed change.

Change in relevant details.

(a) change arises from circumstances within control of firm: at least one month before proposed change
(b) change arises from circumstances beyond UK firm's control: as soon as reasonably practicable.

SUP 13A.3.6 G - SUP 13A.3.8 G

Intention of incoming Treaty firm to carry on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom.

Matters relevant to the notice as indicated in SUP 13A.3.6 G.

Intention to carry on a regulated activity.

At least seven days in advance.

SUP 14.2.3 G

Change to branch details in circumstances within control of the firm (firms passporting under the UCITS Directive and Banking Consolidation Directive).

Details of proposed change.

Change to branch details.

Before making the change.

SUP 14.2.6 G

Change to branch details in circumstances within control of the firm (firms passporting under the Insurance Directives).

Details of proposed change.

Change to branch details.

Before making the change.

SUP 14.2.8 G

Changes to branch details arising from circumstances beyond control of incoming EEA firm.

Change to branch details.

Details of the change.

As soon as reasonably practicable.

SUP 14.2.11 G

Changes to UK branch details for EEA MiFID investment firms.

Details of proposed change.

Changes to branch details.

Before making the change.

SUP 14.3.3 G

Changes to cross border services (firms passporting under the UCITS Directive).

Details of proposed change.

Changes to cross border services.

(a) change arises from circumstances within control of firm: before making change
(b) change arises from circumstances beyond UK firm's control: as soon as reasonably practicable.

SUP 14.3.3A G

Incoming EEA firm passporting under MiFID.

Details of the proposed change to cross-border services.

Change in details.

Before the change.

SUP 14.6.3 G

Incoming EEA firm - cancelling qualification for authorisation.

Incoming firm ceased, or intends to cease, to carry on regulated activity in the United Kingdom.

SUP 15.3.1 R

Notifications - matters having a serious regulatory impact.

The fact of any of the trigger events occurring.

Becoming aware or having information which reasonably suggests, that any of the following has occurred, may have occurred or may occur in the foreseeable future:

Immediately.

(1) the firm failing to satisfy one or more of the threshold conditions;

(2) any matter which could have a significant adverse impact on the firm's reputation;

(3) any matter which could affect the firm's ability to continue to provide adequate services to its customers and which could result in serious detriment to a customer of the firm; or

(4) any matter in respect of the firm which could result in serious financial consequences to the UK financial system or to other firms.

SUP 15.3.7 G and SUP 15.3.8 G

Notifications - anything relating to the firm of which the FSA would expect notice.

The matters specified in 'trigger events' which must be disclosed appropriately.

A firm must deal with its regulators in an open and co-operative way, and must disclose to the FSA appropriately anything relating to the firm of which the FSA would reasonably expect notice. (Principle 11 and SUP 15.3.7 G ) Compliance with Principle 11 includes, but is not limited to, giving the FSA notice of:

A firm should have regard to the urgency and significance of a matter. (SUP 15.7.2 G ) The period of notice will depend on the event, although the FSA expects a firm to discuss relevant matters with it at an early stage, before making any internal or external commitments. (SUP 15.3.9 G).

(1) any proposed restructuring, reorganisation or business expansion which could have a significant impact on the firm's risk profile or resources, including, but not limited to:
(a) setting up a new undertaking within a firm's group, or a new branch (whether in the UK or overseas); or
(b) commencing the provision of cross border services into a new territory;
(c) commencing the provision of a new type of product or service (whether in the UK or overseas);
(d) ceasing to undertake a regulated activity or ancillary activity, or significantly reducing the scope of such activities;
or
(e) entering into, or significantly changing, a material outsourcing arrangement; or
(f) a substantial change or a series of changes in the governing body of an overseas firm (other than an incoming firm); or
(g) any change to the firm's prudential category or sub-category, as used in the Interim Prudential sourcebooks and the Supervision manual and on which guidance is given in SUP App 1;

(2) any significant failure in the firm's systems or controls, including those reported to the firm by the firm's auditor;

(3) any action which a firm proposes to take which would result in a material change in its capital adequacy or solvency, including, but not limited to:

(a) any action which would result in a material change in the firm's financial resources or financial resources requirement; or

(b) a material change resulting from the payment of a special or unusual dividend or the repayment of share capital or a subordinated loan; or

(c) for firms which are subject to the rules on consolidated financial supervision, any proposal under which another group company may be considering such an action; or

(d) significant trading or non-trading losses (whether recognised or unrecognised).

SUP 15.3.11 R

Notifications - breaches of rules and other requirements in or under the Act.

(1) information about any circumstances relevant to the breach or offence;
(2) identification of the rule or requirement or offence; and
(3) information about any steps which a firm or other person has taken or intends to take to rectify or remedy the breach or prevent any future potential occurrence.

Becoming aware, or having information which reasonably suggests, that any of the following matters has occurred, may have occurred or may occur in the foreseeable future as regards the firm, any of its directors, officers, employees, approved persons, appointed representatives: , or tied agents
(a) a significant breach of a rule (which includes a Principle) or Statement of Principle; or
(b) a breach of any requirement imposed by the Act or by regulations or an order made under the Act by the Treasury (except if the breach is an offence, in which case (c) applies);
(c) the bringing of a prosecution for, or a conviction of, any offence under the Act.

Immediately.

SUP 15.3.15 R

Notifications - civil, criminal or disciplinary proceedings against a firm.

Details of the matter and an estimate of the likely financial consequences, if any.

(1) Civil proceedings being brought against the firm and the amount of the claim being significant in relation to the firm's financial resources or its reputation; or

Immediately.

(2) any action being brought against the firm under section 71 of the Act (Actions for damages) or section 150 (Actions for damages); or

(3) disciplinary measures or sanctions being imposed on the firm by any statutory or regulatory authority, professional organisation or trade body (other than the FSA) or the firm becoming aware that one of those bodies has started an investigation into its affairs: or

(4) the firm being prosecuted for, or convicted of, any offence involving fraud or dishonesty, or any penalties being imposed on it for tax evasion; or

(5) if it is an OPS firm, which is a trustee, being removed as trustee by a court order.

SUP 15.3.17 R

Notifications - Fraud, errors and other irregularities.

All relevant and significant details of the incident or suspected incident of which the firm is aware.

The following events arising, if significant:
(1) the firm becoming aware that an employee may have committed a fraud against one of its customers; or

Immediately.

(2) the firm becoming aware that a person, whether or not employed by it, may have committed a fraud against it; or

(3) the firm considering that any person, whether or not employed by it, acting with intent to commit a fraud against it; or

(4) the firm identifying irregularities in its accounting or other records, whether or not there is evidence of fraud; or

(5) the firm suspecting that one of its employees may be guilty of serious misconduct concerning his honesty or integrity and which is committed with the firm's regulated activities or ancillary activites.

SUP 15.3.21 R

Notifications - insolvency, bankruptcy and winding up.

The fact of the event.

(1) the calling of a meeting to consider a resolution for winding up the firm;

Immediately.

(2) an application to dissolve the firm or to strike it off the Register of Companies;

(3) the presentation of a petition for the winding up of the firm;

(4) the making of, or any proposals for the making of, a composition or arrangement with any one or more of its creditors;

(5) an application for the appointment of an administrator or trustee in bankruptcy to the firm;

(6) the appointment of a receiver to the firm (whether an administrative receiver or receiver appointed over particular property): or

(7) an application for an interim order against the firm under section 252 of the Insolvency Act 1986 (or, in Northern Ireland, section 227 of the Insolvency (Northern Ireland) Order 1989); or

(8) if the firm is a sole trader:
(a) an application for a sequestration order; or
(b) the presentation of a petition for bankruptcy; or

(9) anything equivalent to (1) to (8) above in respect of the firm in a jurisdiction outside the UK.

SUP 15.3.23 D

Any matter likely to be of material concern in relation to the FSA which may have arisen in relation to:

Details of the matters arisen.

The Society becomes aware.

Immediately.

(1) the regulated activities for which the Society has permission; or

(2) underwriting agents; or

(3) approved persons or individuals acting for or on behalf of underwriting agents.

SUP 15.3

Commencement, continuation and cessation of relevant investigations and disciplinary proceedings

Commencement, continuation and cessation of relevant investigations and disciplinary proceedings listed in SUP 15.3.24 D and SUP 15.3.25 D.

Commencement of proceedings.

Not specified.

SUP 15.4.1 R

Notifications - notified person - overseas firm which is not an incoming firm.

Form F Changes in notified person (see SUP 15 Ann 2 R) However, if the person is an approved person, notification giving details of his name, the approved person's FSA individual reference number and the position to which the notification relates, is sufficient.

Any person taking up or ceasing to hold the following positions:
(a) the firm's worldwide chief executive (that is, the person who, alone or jointly with one or more others, is responsible under the immediate authority of the person for the whole of its business) if the person is based outside the UK;
(b) the person within the overseas firm with a purely strategic responsibility for UK operations;
(c) for a bank: the two or more persons who effectively direct its business in accordance with SYSC 4.2.2 R ;
(d) for an insurer: the authorised UK representative.

30 business days.

SUP 15.5.1 R

Notifications - change in name.

Details of the proposed new name and the date on which the firm intends to implement the change of name.

A change in:(1) the firm's name (which is the registered name if the firm is a body corporate);

Reasonable advance notice.

(2) any business name under which the firm carries on a regulated activity or ancillary activity either from an establishment in the UK or with or for clients in the UK.

SUP 15.5.4 R

Notifications - change in address.

Details of the new address and the date of the change.

A change in any of the following addresses:
(1) the firm's principal place of business in the UK;
(2) in the case of an overseas firm, its registered office (or head office) address.

Reasonable advance notice.

SUP 15.5.5 R

Notifications - change in legal status.

The fact of the proposed change in liability.

A proposed change in a firm's legal status which limits the liability of any of its members or partners.
This includes:

Reasonable advance notice.

(1) re-registration as a limited liability company of a company incorporated with unlimited liability; and

(2) a general partner in a firm becoming a limited partner.

SUP 15.5.7 R

Notifications - other regulators.

The fact of becoming subject to or ceasing to be subject to the supervision of any overseas regulator (including a Home State regulator).

A firm becoming subject to or ceasing to be subject to the supervision of any overseas regulator (including a Home State regulator).

Immediately.

SUP 15.6.4 R

Notification - inaccurate, false or misleading information.

(1) details of the information which is or may be false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate, or has or may have changed;
(2) an explanation why such information was or may have been provided; and
(3) the correct information.

A firm becoming aware, or having information that reasonably suggests that it has or may have provided the FSA with information which was or may have been false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate, or has or may have changed in a material particular.

Immediately If the information required cannot be submitted with the notification (because it is not immediately available), it must instead be submitted as soon as possible afterwards.

SUP 15.8.1 R

Notification - management of occupational pension scheme assets.

The fact of receiving the request or instruction.

A firm which manages the assets of an occupational pension scheme receiving a request or instruction from a trustee which it knows or on substantial grounds suspects or has cause reasonably to suspect is at material variance with the trustee's duties.

As soon as reasonably practical .

SUP 15.8.2 R

Administration of individual pension accounts.

If a firm begins or ceases to administer individual pension accounts, notify the FSA.

Event of beginning or ceasing to administer individual pension accounts.

As soon as reasonably practicable.

SUP 15.8.3 R

Insurers' commission clawback.

As set out in SUP 15.8.3 R.

Any amount of commission due from an intermediary remaining outstanding for four months after date when insurer gave notice to the intermediary that
(a) relevant premium had not been paid or
(b) that cancellation or overpayment has occurred.

As soon as reasonably practicable.

SUP 15.8.4 G

Operating a bureau de change .

That the firm intends to operate a bureau de change.

Intending to operate a bureau de change.

Before the firm begins to operate a bureau de change.

SUP 15.8.4 G

Operating a bureau de change.

That the firm has ceased to operate a bureau de change.

Ceasing to operate a bureau de change.

As soon as reasonably practicable.

SUP 15.8.6 R

Delegation by UCITS management company.

The fact that a function of the UCITS management company has been delegated together with (a) the identity of the party to whom the function has been delegated and (b) the period during which the delegation will apply.

The delegation of a function by a UCITS management company.

As soon as reasonably practicable.

SUP 15.8.8 R

CTF provider status.

The fact of the firm beginning or ceasing to hold itself out as a CTF provider.

Firm beginning or ceasing to hold itself out as a CTF provider.

As soon as reasonably practicable.

CTF third party administrator.

Engagement of third party administrator.

Third party administrator engaged.

As soon as reasonably practicable.

Intention to offer HMRC allocated CTFs.

Whether it intends to offer HMRC allocated CTFs.

Becoming a CTF provider.

As soon as reasonably practicable.

Intention to provide stakeholder CTF.

Whether it intends to provide its own stakeholder CTFs.

Becoming a CTF provider.

As soon as reasonably practicable.

SUP 15.8.9 R

Default by counterparty on its obligations in a transaction of a type specified in SUP 15.8.9 R.

The fact of the default.

Default by counterparty on its obligations in a repurchase agreement or reverse repurchase agreement or securities or commodities lending or borrowing transaction.

Immediately.

SUP 15.9.1 R

Being or ceasing to be a financial conglomerate.

The fact of being or ceasing to be a financial conglomerate.

Being or ceasing to be a financial conglomerate.

Immediately.

SUP 15.9.2 R

Reasonable likelihood of becoming or ceasing to be a financial conglomerate.

Immediately.

SUP 16.3.17 R

Reporting - change of accounting reference date.

The fact of a change in accounting reference date.

A change in accounting reference date.

If extending its accounting reference period, before the previous accounting reference date
If shortening its accounting period, it must make the notification in (1) before the new accounting reference date.

SUP 16.4.5 R

Reporting - annual controller report - every firm except:
(1) an ICVC;
(2) an incoming EEA firm;
(3) an incoming Treaty firm;
(4) a non-directive friendly Society;
(5) a partnership;
(6) a sole trader;
(7) a service company;
(8) a UCITS qualifier.

If the firm is not aware:
(a) that it has any controllers; or
(b) of any changes in the identity of its controllers since the submission of its previous report; or
If the above does not apply, the report must contain a list of all the controllers as at the firm's accounting reference date of which the firm is aware and, for each such controller, state:
(a) its name;
(b) the percentage of voting power in the firm, or in the firm's parent undertaking, which it is entitled to exercise or control the exercise of, whether alone or with any associate;
(c) the percentage of shares in the firm, or in the firm's parent undertaking, which it holds, whether alone or with any associate;
(d) if the controller is a body corporate, its country of incorporation, address and registered number; and
(e) if the controller is an individual, his date and place of birth.
This information may be provided in the form of a group organisation chart.

Annually from the accounting reference date
If a firm is a friendly society or a building society, then it is required to submit a report only if it is aware that it has a controller.

Four months.

SUP 16.5.4 R

Reporting - annual close links report - every firm except:
(1) an ICVC;
(2) an incoming EEA firm;
(3) an incoming Treaty firm;
(4) a non-directive friendly society;
(5) a partnership;
(6) a sole trader;
(7) a service company;
(8) a UCITS qualifier.

If a firm is not aware:
(a) that it has close links; or
(b) of any material changes to the details since the last report;then confirmation of this.
If the above does not apply, the report must contain a list of all persons with whom the firm has close links as at the firm's accounting reference date of which it is aware, and for each such person state:
(a) its name;
(b) the nature of the close links;
(c) if the close link is with a body corporate, its country of incorporation, address and registered number;
(d) if the close link is with an individual, his date and place of birth; and
(e) a group organisation chart.

Annually from the accounting reference date
If a firm is an unincorporated friendly society, then it is only required to submit a report if it is aware that it has close links.

Four months.

SUP 16.6.5 R

Reporting - compliance reports -bank- list of overseas regulators.

List of all overseas regulators for each legal entity in the firm's group.

Annually from the accounting reference date.

Six months.

SUP 16.6.5 R

Reporting - compliance reports -bank-authorised entities in the firm's group.

Organogram showing the authorised entities in the firm's group.

Annually from the accounting reference date.

Six months.

SUP 16.6.6 R

Reporting - compliance reports - trustee of an AUT

In relation to the manager of each AUT for which it is a trustee, the number of times during the quarter in which facts came to the firm's knowledge from which it appeared, or might have appeared, that the manager had failed (materially or otherwise) to:

Quarterly (the quarter ends are 31 March, 30 June, 30 September, 31 December).

One month.

(a) give correct instructions to the trustee to create or cancel units in the AUT when the manager should have done so, and the error:
(i) resulted in the creation of too few units or in the cancellation of too many units; and
(ii) was not corrected in accordance with the FSA's guidance as set out in COLL 6.2.12 G ;

(b) price units in the AUT in accordance with COLL 6, where the pricing error was:

(i) greater than 0.5% of the price of a unit; or

(ii) less than 0.5% of the price of a unit, and the trustee did not consider the manager's controls to be adequate; unless the failure was an isolated incident.

SUP 16.6.6 R

Reporting - compliance reports -depositary of an ICVC.

In relation to the authorised corporate director of each ICVC for which it is a depositary, the number of times during the quarter in which facts came to the firm's knowledge from which it appeared, that the authorised corporate director had failed (materially or otherwise) to:

Quarterly (the quarter ends are 31 March, 30 June, 30 September, 31 December).

One month.

(a) arrange for the issue or cancellation of shares in the ICVC when the authorised corporate director should have done so, and the error:
(i) resulted in the creation of too few shares or in the cancellation of too many shares; and
(ii) was not corrected in accordance with the FSA's guidance as set out in COLL 6.2.12 G

(b) price shares in the ICVC in accordance with COLL 6, where the pricing error was:
(i) greater than 0.5% of the price of a share; or
(ii) less than 0.5% of the price of a share, and the depositary did not consider the authorised corporate director's controls to be adequate;
unless the failure was an isolated incident.

SUP 16.6.6 R

Reporting - compliance reports -OPS firms.

Annual accounts of each occupational pension scheme in respect of which the firm is acting.

Annually.

Seven months after the end of the scheme year.

SUP 16.6.6 R

Reporting - compliance reports -OPS firms.

Audited annual accounts of each OPS collective investment scheme in respect of which the firm is acting.

Annually.

Seven months after the end of the scheme year.

SUP 16.6.8 R (3)

Reporting - compliance reports -OPS firms.

Any change in the date of commencement of the scheme year of an OPS or OPS collective investment scheme, in respect of which the firm is acting, not less than 15 business days before the date on which such a change is to become effective.

15 business days before the date on which such a change is to become effective.

SUP 16.8

Reporting - persistency reports from insurers

Persistency report. The report must report on every life policy which was promoted subject to rules in COB or COBS, is not a life policy of a type listed in SUP 16.8.13 R or SUP 16.8.14 R, and which:

Annually

By 30 April each year

(1) was effected by the firm submitting the report; or

(2) was effected by a member of the firm's group, which is not an authorised person, and in circumstances in which the firm submitting the report was responsible for promoting that life policy; or

(3) was effected by another firm, but is carried out by the firm submitting the report.

The report must be in the format of Forms 1R(1), (2) and (3) in SUP 16 Annex 6 R.

SUP 16.9.3 R

Details of appointed representatives. Every firm with a Part IV permission to advise on investments, arrange (bring about) deals in investments, make arrangements with a view to transactions in investments, or arrange safeguarding and administration of assets.

A list of all the current appointed representatives of the firm as at the firm's accounting reference date. A report is not required if a firm has no appointed representatives as at the firm's accounting reference date and this is reflected in the relevant extract from the FSA Register.

Annually

Four months

SUP 16.10.4 R

Verification of standing data items

Correction of inaccuracies in standing data

Accounting reference date

30 business days after accounting reference date

SUP 16.13.3 D to SUP 16.13.4 D

Reporting - authorised payment institution

FSA056 Capital Adequacy Return

Annually

30 business days

SUP 16.13.3 D to SUP 16.13.4 D

Reporting - small payment institution

FSA057 Payment Services Directive Transactions

Annually

1 month

SUP 17

Transaction reporting This applies to (a) a MiFID investment firm; (b) a third country investment firm; (c) a person who is the operator of an approved reporting mechanism or of a regulated market or MTF that is used by a firm to report transactions to the FSA; or (d) a firm acting in its capacity as a manager or operator of a collective investment undertaking, pension scheme, occupational pension scheme, a personal pension scheme or a stakeholder pension scheme.

A transaction report as specified in SUP 17.1.4 R, SUP 17.4.1 EU and SUP 17.4.2 R.

Executing a transaction, subject to the exceptions in SUP 17.2.1 R and SUP 17.2.3 R.

As quickly as possible and by not later than the close of the working day following the day upon which that transaction took place.

SUP 18.2.12 G

Possible proposal for insurance business transfer scheme

The broad outline of the scheme and its purpose

When an insurance business transfer scheme is being considered

As soon as reasonably practical

SUP 18.2.26 G

The FSA has to be informed to enable it to consult the transferee's Home State regulator

As set out in 18.2.26 G

If the transferee is (or will be) an EEA firm (authorised in its Home State to carry on insurance business under the Insurance Directives) or a Swiss general insurance company

Not specified

SUP 18.2.28 G

The FSA has to be informed to enable it to consult the Host State regulator

As set out in 18.2.28 G

If the transferor is an UK insurer and the business to be transferred includes business carried on from a branch in another EEA State,

Not specified

SUP 18.2.29 G

The FSA has to be informed to enable it to consult the Host State regulator

Should identify the parties to the transfer and include the transfer agreement or draft transfer agreement or a summary containing relevant information. It would be helpful if a draft of the scheme report was also available.

Not specified

If the transferor is an UK insurer and the business to be transferred includes a general insurance contract (other than reinsurance) for which the state of the risk is an EEA state other than the United Kingdom,

Not specified

SUP 18.2.31 G

Scheme report in a form approved by the FSA

As set out in SUP 18.2.33 G

Decision to apply to the court to approve an insurance business transfer scheme

SUP 18.2.32 G

Fact of the independent expert producing a scheme report

Independent expert appointed to produce a scheme report

At an early stage

SUP 18.2.42 G

Notice of the application to be sent to all policyholders of the parties. It may also be appropriate to give notice to others affected, in particular to: (1) reinsurers of the transferor where it is proposed that benefits or liabilities under their contracts should pass to the transferee (2) anyone with an interest in the policies being transferred who has notified the transferor of their interest.

In addition to the notice it would normally be appropriate to include a statement setting out the terms of the scheme and containing a summary of the scheme report.

Decision to apply to the court for approval of an insurance business transfer scheme (unless the court directs otherwise)

At least six weeks before court hearing

SUP App 2.3.1 R

Insurers: scheme of operations- an insurer which is not an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm - Margin of solvency below required level

A plan for the restoration of a sound financial position including: (1) a scheme of operations (see SUP App 2.9); and (2) an explanation of how, if at all, and by when it expects its margin of solvency to be adequately restored to the required margin of solvency

The firm becoming aware that its margin of solvency has fallen below its required margin of solvency

28 days

SUP App 2.4.1 R

Insurers: scheme of operations- an insurer which is not an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm - Margin of solvency below guarantee fund

A short term financial plan including:
(1) a scheme of operations (see SUP App 2.9 and
(2) an explanation of how, if at all, and by when it expects its margin of solvency to be adequately restored to the guarantee fund

The firm becoming aware that its margin of solvency has fallen below its guarantee fund

14 days

SUP App 2.5.1 R

Insurers: scheme of operations- an insurer which is not an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm- ceasing to effect contracts of insurance

A run-off plan including:
(1) a scheme of operations (see SUP App 2.9); and
(2) an explanation of how, or to what extent, all liabilities to policyholders (including where relevant, reasonable bonus expectations) will be met in full as they fall due

The firm deciding to cease to effect new contracts of insurance

28 days

[deleted]

SUP App 2.10.1 R (2) and SUP App 2.10.2 R

Insurers: scheme of operations- an insurer which is not an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm- obligations on insurers which have previously submitted a scheme of operations

Quarterly financial return: (a) a summary profit and loss account prepared in accordance with SUP App 2.9.7 R; (b) a summary balance sheet prepared in accordance with SUP App 2.9.8 R; and (c) a statement of solvency prepared in accordance with SUP App 2.9.9 R;
and which must identify and explain differences between the actual results and the forecasts submitted in the scheme of operations

The end of each quarter

Not specified

SUP App 2.10.1 R (3)

Insurers: scheme of operations- an insurer which is not an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm- obligations on insurers which have previously submitted a scheme of operations

(a) Explanation of the nature of the departure and the reasons for it and provide revised forecast financial information in the scheme of operations for its remaining term; or (b) an amended scheme of operations and explanation of the amendments and the reasons for them

Any matter which has either happened or is likely to happen and which represents a significant departure from the scheme of operations

Promptly

06/08/2010

SUP Sch 4

Powers exercised

01/12/2004

SUP Sch 4.1

The following powers and related provisions in or under the Act have been exercised by the FSA to make the rules in SUP:

Section 59 (Approval for particular arrangements)

Section 118(8) (Market abuse)

Section 138 (General rule-making power)

Section 139(1) and (4) (Miscellaneous ancillary matters)

Section 141 (Insurance business rules)

Section 144 (Price stabilising rules)

Section 145 (Financial promotion rules)

Section 146 (Money laundering rules)

Section 147 (Control of information rules)

Section 149 (Evidential provisions)

Section 150(2) (Actions for damages)

Section 156 (General supplementary powers)

Section 178 (Obligation to notify the Authority: acquisitions of control)

Section 191D (Obligation to notify the Authority: dispositions of control)

Section 238(5) (Restrictions on promotion)

Section 247 (Trust scheme rules)

Section 293 (Notification requirements)

Section 318(1) (Exercise of powers through Council)

Section 340 (Appointment)

Section 341 (Access to books etc.)

Paragraph 17(1) (Fees) of Schedule 1 (The Financial Services Authority)

Paragraphs 19 (Establishment) and 20 (Services) of Schedule 3 (EEA Passport Rights)

Regulations 6(1) (FSA rules) and 12 (applications for authorisation) of the OEIC Regulations

Article 4(1) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Transitional Provisions and Savings) (Rules) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1534)

04/10/2010

SUP Sch 4.2

The following powers and related provisions in or under the Act have been exercised by the FSA to give the guidance in SUP:

Section 157(1) (Guidance)

Article 11(1) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Transitional Provisions and Savings)(Rules) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1534)

06/10/2009

SUP Sch 4.3

The following powers and related provisions in or under the Act have been exercised by the FSA in SUP to direct or require:

Section 51 (Applications under this Part)

Section 60 (Applications for approval)

Section 148(3) (Modification or waiver of rules)

Section 182 (Notification)

Section 250(4) and (5) (Modification or waiver of rules)

Section 294 (Modification or waiver of rules)

Section 316 (Direction by Authority)

Paragraph 5(4) (Notice of Authority) of Schedule 4 (Treaty Rights)

Regulation 7(3) and (4) (Modification or waiver of FSA rules) of the OEIC Regulations

04/10/2010

SUP Sch 4.4

The following additional powers and related provisions have been exercised by the FSA to give the directions and make the guidance in SUP:

Regulation 82 (Reporting requirements) of the Payment Services Regulations

Regulation 93 (Guidance) of the Payment Services Regulations

23/07/2010

SUP Sch 5

Rights of actions for damages

01/12/2004

SUP Sch 5.1

The table below sets out the rules in SUP contravention of which by an authorised person may be actionable under section 150of the Act (Actions for damages) by a person who suffers loss as a result of the contravention.

If a "Yes" appears in the column headed "For private person?", the rule may be actionable by a "private person" under section 150(or, in certain circumstances, his fiduciary or representative). A "Yes" in the column headed "Removed" indicates that the FSA has removed the right of action under section 150(2)of the Act. If so, a reference to the rule in which it is removed is also given.

The column headed "For other person?" indicates whether the rule is actionable by a person other than a private person (or his fiduciary or representative). If so, an indication of the type of person by whom the rule is actionable is given.

01/12/2004

SUP Sch 5.2

Right of action under section 150

Chapter/Appendix

Section/Annex

Paragraph

For private person?

Removed?

For other person?

All rules in SUP with the status letter "E"

All rules in the section

All rules in sections SUP 10.1 to SUP 10.10

All other rules in SUP

Yes

01/12/2004

SUP Sch 6

Rules that can be waived

01/12/2004